黑龙江牡丹江市第二高级中学2026-2027学年高二上学期10月阶段检测英语试卷

牡丹江二中2026 — 2027学年度第一学期高二学年月考试题 英语 考生注意 1．本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2．考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段录音。每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。 1. What does the woman imply? A. She gets tired easily. B. She doesn’t like hiking. C. She can barely walk to the bus stop. 2. What does the woman suggest the man do? A. Wait for the roads to clear. B. Take the subway. C. Try another road. 3. Where does the conversation most probably take place? A. At a bus station. B. In a bank. C. In a police station. 4. What time does the library close on Friday? A. 8:00 p.m. B. 7:00 p.m. C. 6:00 p.m. 5. What will the speakers probably do next? A. Tidy up the room. B. Buy some storage containers. C. Get more new toys. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题都有5秒钟的作答时间。每段录音播放两遍。 听第6段录音，回答第6、7题。 6. Why does the man leave his phone in his bag? A. To talk to real people. B. To protect his eyesight. C. To relax his mind. 7. What is the man’s attitude towards AI and mobile phone use? A. Negative. B. Supportive. C. Objective. 听第7段录音，回答第8、9题。 8. What do we know about the woman? A. She wants to learn cooking. B. She has bad eyesight. C. She has a poor memory. 9. What will the woman probably do next? A. Buy a new ring. B. Go to the town hall. C. Call the night school. 听第8段录音，回答第10至13题。 10. What is the woman’s research about? A. The history of storing food. B. Food preservation methods. C. Canning method. 11. Which method does the woman think is the oldest? A. Smoking food. B. Drying food. C. Salting food. 12. When did the first commercial canning appear on the market? A. Around 1710. B. Around 1810. C. Around 1910. 13. Why did people spend a long time accepting the canning method? A. The early canning method was too costly. B. Unsealed cans often led to serious diseases. C. The early canning method had some disadvantages. 听第9段录音，回答第14至17题。 14. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Radio host and guest. B. Writer and fan. C. Teacher and student. 15. What book are the speakers discussing? A. A novel. B. A science fiction. C. A science book. 16. How does the woman describe the language in her book? A. Reader-friendly. B. Technical. C. Vivid. 17. Which subject was the woman good at in school? A. Math. B. Science. C. English. 听第10段录音，回答第18至20题。 18. What are animal spies according to the talk? A. Well-trained wild animals. B. Robots cooperating with animals. C. Robot animals with built-in cameras. 19. What did the team do to make the documentary? A. They worked for five years to make it. B. They traveled to the Antarctic to get material. C. They filmed 1,250 hours of material to make it. 20. What is the talk mainly about? A. How people filmed an animal documentary. B. Application of animal spies in documentary. C. Introductions to famous BBC animal shows. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Applications are officially open for the 2026 edition of the D-Prize Challenge. This is a global competition designed for those who are at the very beginning of their entrepreneurial (创业的) journeys. The selection process begins with an application. Applicants are asked to hand in a two-page summary of their business idea along with resumes (简历). With over 3,000 applications typically received per round, only a small percentage of applicants — about the top 5% — are invited to move on to the second stage. This stage involves responding to a set of detailed written questions within a two-week window. From there, a final group of standout applicants is chosen for interviews conducted through phone and email. The most promising individuals — around the top 1% — are awarded funding of $20,000 to begin launching their ideas. Beyond financial support, selected applicants will also benefit from the recognition and visibility that comes with being chosen by a respected global funding initiative. Qualification Open to applicants who have no previous funding or formally established organizations before applying. Entry fee $30 — Advance Registration (by 25 November 2025) $40 — Standard Registration (by 26 January 2026) $50 — Extended Registration (by 24 March 2026) $60 — Late Registration (by 21 April 2026) Students get a 50% discount Download the application package and apply for the D-Prize Challenge now. 21. How many rounds does the selection process include? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five. 22. What benefit do winners get besides financial support? A. Greater public attention. B. Wider information sources. C. Richer training opportunities. D. Faster business development. 23. How much does a student pay when registering on March 26, 2026? A. $25. B. $30. C. $50. D. $60. B In 1990, during a performance of my stage play, I became preoccupied with one particular member of the audience. While everybody else laughed, there she sat, staring at the floor, with her fingers in her ears. I’ll never forget her look of complete discomfort. That woman was my mother. Despite the fact I’d established myself as a humorist, my mother never found me or my work particularly funny. She was my hardest critic. “Is Drew really that funny?” she’d ask family members. To make matters worse, the feeling was mutual (相互的): though our social circle swore that she was humorous, I never saw it. My mother was supposedly very funny in her first language, Anishinaabemowin — an Indigenous (原住民的) language, but alas, I didn’t speak it. At family gatherings, when somebody would say something “funny” in Anishinaabemowin, she’d explain it to me. Sometimes the humour translated. Sometimes it didn’t. For a while I was convinced I would never make her laugh. Then, in 2005, I succeeded. I had published a book called Me Funny. In it were dozens of essays deconstructing Indigenous humour, along with 50 so-called “Indian jokes” to break up the various chapters. (For instance, “Why do Native people hate snow? Because it’s white and all over our land.”) She laughed hard and declared, “Wow, that was funny!” In 2009, my mother passed away at the age of 77. During the funeral, in the tears, family member after family member got up and recounted things she had done and said over the years. To my surprise, I found myself laughing. Suddenly I remembered a moment from the early ‘90s, when my mother asked me, completely serious, what “owie” meant in French. I struggled to come up with an answer until I spelled it out in my mind: oui (“yes” in English). More and more stories about her surfaced. We laughed as we remembered her. I couldn’t see my mother’s forest for my own trees. I wish I could have shared those laughs with her while she was alive, but I’m glad I finally made the connection. 24. What prevented the author and his mother from understanding each other’s humour? A. Language barriers. B. The author’s unique job. C. Mom’s critical personality. D. Views of Indigenous people. 25. Why did the author laugh at mother’s funeral? A. He tried to fit in his Indigenous family. B. He recalled amusing moments about mom. C. He wanted to hide his sadness over mother’s death. D. He intended his laugh to make mother rest in peace. 26. What does the underlined sentence mean? A. The author learned from mother a very important life lesson. B. The author failed to relate to his mother from her perspective. C. The author finally understood mother’s sense of humour better. D. The author didn’t write enough humorous books to make mother laugh. 27. Which of the following is the best title for the text? A. Am I funny? B. Why isn’t Mom laughing? C. What’s so funny? D. Does laughter have an accent? C A new study on baby birds shows that traffic noise can affect their growth and lead to lifelong harm. The finding raises new concerns about the effect of noise pollution on wildlife — and humans as well. Researchers already knew too much noise is likely to disturb birds, making it more difficult for the parents to communicate with and care for their baby birds. But it wasn’t clear whether the noise itself could directly harm young birds. Mylene Mariette, a behavioral ecologist at Deakin University, and her team set out to answer that question with birds held on campus in Melbourne, Australia. For 5 nights in a row, they played eggs either road noise or bird songs for several hours. The sounds were kept at a volume of 65 decibels (分贝) — about the same loudness as a conversation in a bar or city traffic. Other eggs were left in silence. After the eggs hatched, the baby birds received one of two treatments — road noise or bird songs — for another 9 nights. The baby birds heard the sounds in a separate room, and then were returned to their nests. Eggs exposed to traffic sounds were 19% less likely to hatch compared with those exposed to the sound of songs. It shows a clear effect of traffic noise, Mariette says. As the baby birds developed, they also showed worrying development signs. Those exposed to noise grew slower. Moreover, when those birds grew up, they had about half as many offspring (后代) as the birds exposed to songs as youngsters. Hans Slabbekoorn, an ecologist and animal behavior expert at Leiden University, notes that these concerns apply to humans as well. “The findings suggest that the acoustic (听觉的) environment of birds in cities and along highways should be better managed,” he writes, “and that the acoustic comfort in hospital environments for pregnant mothers and babies requires special attention.” Eventually, the research might help reveal how much and in what ways noise pollution should be reduced. 28. What does paragraph 3 mainly focus on about the study? A. Its process. B. Its result. C. Its difficulty. D. Its purpose. 29. How are the findings explained in paragraph 4? A. By giving examples. B. By analyzing reasons. C. By making comparisons. D. By making predictions. 30. What do the findings indicate? A. Move the birds from cities to protected areas. B. Make laws to close highways and other noisy places. C. Educate people on the bad effects of noise pollution. D. Pay special attention to the hospital environment for babies. 31. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. Traffic noise helps birds communicate B. Scientists have found ways to reduce noise C. Hospital environments are greatly affected D. Traffic noise causes lifelong harm to baby birds D A new study of e-sports gamers has found that sparkling water could be a better alternative to still water for those aiming to maintain concentration and alertness during extended periods of desk work. Gamers often rely on caffeine-rich drinks such as coffee or energy drinks to stay in the zone during long sessions. However, consuming these caffeinated drinks in large quantities poses significant potential health risks, including sleep disruption and increased heart burden. Researchers from the University of Tsukuba in Japan thus sought to investigate whether sparkling water could provide a safer and equally effective alternative. On two separate occasions, 14 casual gamers were asked to play virtual soccer for three hours. In one trial, they drank plain water; and in the other, they consumed sparkling water. Based on comprehensive measurements, including reaction speeds, pupil size changes (a key indicator of tiredness), physical stress hormones, and self-reported exhaustion levels, the results clearly indicated that sparkling water was superior in sustaining attention levels and minimizing tiredness. Scientists propose a plausible theory behind this improvement. The carbon dioxide mixed in sparkling water interacts with specific sensory receptors in the mouth known as “transient receptor potential” (TRP) channels. This interaction triggers an increase in mental alertness, thereby enhancing cognitive performance during extended tasks. Beyond subjective feelings of alertness, players also reported enjoying the sessions more when drinking sparkling water. Furthermore, statistical analysis revealed that players committed fewer in-game errors while under its influence, although their overall offensive and defensive skills remained unchanged. “These findings demonstrate that sparkling water effectively reduces both subjective and objective signs of cognitive tiredness during extended e-sports performance”, the researchers concluded. Nevertheless, these results should be considered alongside the study’s funding sources. The research received partial financial support from a soft drink company that manufactures the sparkling water employed in the experiments, and two of the study’s authors work for this company. These financial links introduce potential conflicts of interest that may have biased the results. 32. What does the study focus on? A. A better option for sustained concentration. B. The effects of caffeine-rich drinks on gamers. C. Measures to reduce gaming-related tiredness. D. The role of TRP channels in mental alertness. 33. How did sparkling water affect gamers’ performance? A. By increasing physical stress levels. B. By reducing misplay during matches. C. By improving reaction speed significantly. D. By enhancing offensive and defensive skills. 34. What is the main idea of paragraph 4? A. The core logic of the improvement. B. The overall process of the research. C. The key factors for the improvement. D. The procedures for collecting experimental data. 35. What’s the best title for the passage? A. The Hidden Dangers of Caffeine Drinks B. E-sports Gamer’s New Favorite: Sparkling Water C. A New Study on TRP Channels and Mental Alertness D. Sparkling Water — A Safer Choice for E-sports Gamers 第二节（共五小题，每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How to stay focused while studying Focus is like a muscle: it tires if you use it too long. The brain’s front part, responsible for willpower, needs regular breaks to refill its fuel. Study for 50 minutes and then walk away. A five-minute walk, preferably outside, boosts blood flow and clears mental rubbish. 36 Your phone is a slot machine (自动售货机) in your pocket. Every buzz or flashing pictures causes a happy feeling that breaks the weak chain of concentration. 37 If that feels impossible, start with “flight mode+1-hour timer”; after four cycles, reward yourself with a 10-minute scroll. The key is to make distraction harder than studying itself. Multitasking is a lie. What feels like doing two things at once is actually the brain switching rapidly between tasks, eating extra sugar each time. 38 Close every tab that is not the one you are working on; turn the desk so it faces a blank wall. One task, one window, one goal — that is how deep focus is born. 39 Write tomorrow’s top three tasks on a sticky note the night before. Then divide the day into “focus blocks” of 90 minutes at most, with 15-minute recovery gaps. During a block, nothing else exists; during recovery, do something fun and totally unrelated. By 5 p.m. you will have spent four high-quality hours, not ten distracted ones. Finally, train your brain to recognize when it has wandered. The moment you notice yourself rereading the same line, silently say “back” and return to the text. 40 After a week, you will catch yourself earlier; after a month, the number of “backs” drops sharply. Soon you will find yourself reading faster and remembering more. A. Therefore, create a single-task battlefield. B. This simple action acts like a mental seat-belt. C. The earlier you start, the longer you can concentrate. D. When you return, your “focus container” is full again. E. Put it in another room, or at least inside a closed drawer. F. Even the brightest students admit that they check phones too often. G. Willpower disappears gradually as the day goes on, so treat focus like money: plan it. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 My kids were surprised when they discover a stuffed cat. Gee stands beside them, quietly explaining each treasure. She tells me that she and Tom built their ornament (装饰物) collection slowly. She smiles as we leave with the box. Their precious heirlooms (传家宝), gathered over a lifetime, have found a new home. We first met the couple in the early days of our marriage. Someone had been 41 our garbage cans to the garage (车库) each garbage day, and Jim and I had 42 who. Then one day we 43 him: an elderly man who lived across the street. I baked cookies and left them in a chair outside the garage 44 a thank-you note. When we got home from work that day, a 45 had replaced the gift. The letter was from Tom and 46 how he had come to walk the neighborhood on garbage day, returning cans for his neighbors. Back when he’d been fighting a war, his 47 Gee was living alone. Neighbors had taken the time to deal with her garbage cans, and he never 48 . Now he paid it forward by doing the same for all of us. A few years after we’d moved in, Tom died. We photocopied that letter and 49 it to Gee. We told her how special Tom had been to us and how 50 we were to have known him. She 51 back and told us she still talked to Tom every day. When Gee invited us over to 52 a Christmas present, I realized how 53 it must be to part with that box, a piece of Tom. This Christmas, we’ll decorate our tree with Gee’s ornaments. Maybe I’ll 54 to Tom just as Gee still does. Thank you, I’ll say. For teaching us what it means to be a 55 . 41. A. destroying B. returning C. lifting D. repairing 42. A. wondered B. knew C. found D. reported 43. A. showed B. asked C. noticed D. caught 44. A. to B. for C. with D. on 45. A. letter B. card C. picture D. book 46. A. complained B. explained C. described D. demanded 47. A. sister B. mother C. daughter D. wife 48. A. applied B. forgot C. cared D. quit 49. A. gave B. clicked C. made D. drew 50. A. confusing B. anxious C. thankful D. confident 51. A. returned B. went C. arrived D. wrote 52. A. buy B. select C. sell D. find 53. A. interesting B. hard C. happy D. sudden 54. A. talk B. sing C. relate D. refer 55. A. husband B. friend C. worker D. neighbor 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式 Running is good for your health. It may help to protect you 56 heart disease and other health problems. Running may also help you live longer. According to a research 57 (conduct) in the US recently, runners are a great deal 58 (health) than non-runners. In fact, the runners live, on average, three years longer than the non-runners. Running may be good exercise, but it can be difficult on the body. Here 59 (be) commonly shared ideas among fitness experts to lower the risk of injury for people running regularly. Do not run too much, too soon or too fast. Most people get running injuries when they push 60 (they) too hard. Get good running shoes. You should find the shoes 61 offer the best fit and support for your feet. More 62 (important), you should have a new pair of shoes every 500 to 800 kilometers. After each run, write down notes about what you 63 (do) and 64 you felt. You may find that your knees hurt when you run sometimes. Or perhaps you feel great when you have 65 rest between running days. These notes will help you make the best plan for running. 第四部分 基础达标（满分25分） 第一节 单句语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 66. The sunset photo taken by Tom was a __________ (remark) shot, a far cry from his last one. 67. I can still remember that day__________ (vivid). 68. He avoided __________ (mention) the sensitive topic during the interview. 69. Joe fixed __________ (steel) eyes on her and took a deep breath. 70. I take my time over every spoonful, __________ (gentle) rolling the silky desserts around my mouth. 71. It is impolite to make negative __________ (remark) about others. 72. The party was full of __________ (entertain), such as singing, dancing and games. 73. Don’t ask such __________ (embarrass) questions in public. 74. His __________ (persevere) finally paid off, and he won the competition. 75. I regret __________ (tell) you that the tickets for the concert have all been sold out. 第二节 单词拼写（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 76. We must work harder to live up to our parents’ ______ (期望). 77. He benefited more than he expected when he chose to play against such an ______ (对手). 78. Many people turn to Eastern ________ (哲学) to find peace and mindfulness in their daily routines. 79. The excited child ran out of the classroom, __________ (弹起) happily towards the playground, but only tripped over a stone. 80. They sat at the back of the room, talking in a ________ (低语). 81. Every morning he ________ (刮，剃) his beard before going to work. 82. Hearing that she would have the opportunity to represent her school and take part in the competition, she was in a good _______ (心情). 83. To our great __________ (高兴), we won first prize in the competition. 84. It will be fine whenever you come, but you’d better __________ (通知) me of that before you come. 85. There is ________ (永久的) snow on the top of Mount Kilimanjaro. 第五部分 写作（满分15分） 假定你是李华，你校英语俱乐部计划排练一部英语经典喜剧。作为俱乐部导演，请你给你校外教Peter写一封邮件，寻求他的建议，内容包括： （1）告知俱乐部的计划； （2）请求推荐适合的喜剧作品； （3）期待回复。 注意：1．词数为80左右； 2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $