福建厦门市海沧中学2026-2027学年第一学期高三年段第一次阶段性测试英语试题

2026 — 2027学年第一学期厦门市海沧中学 高三年段第一次阶段性测试 英 语 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What may cause the woman trouble? A. Missing a class. B. Having dinner outside. C. Getting back home too late. 2. What does the woman think of herself? A. Outgoing. B. Shy. C. Confident. 3. What did Fred have for breakfast today? A. Bread and an egg. B. Bread and an apple. C. A banana and an apple. 4. Who is the girl probably talking to? A. Her father. B. Her brother. C. Her teacher. 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. What pet David wants. B. Why David likes animals. C. How to take care of rabbits. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段长对话，回答下列各题。 6. What do the speakers both agree? A. It was an enjoyable evening. B. They had an expensive meal. C. The food was very delicious. 7. What does the man think of the music? A. Relaxing. B. Embarrassing. C. Special. 听下面一段长对话，回答下列各题。 8. What is the possible relationship between the two speakers? A. Friends. B. Teacher and student. C. Customer and salesman. 9. Why is the woman interested in the book with a note? A. It’s about poetry. B. It’s written by Shakespeare. C. It may be very valuable. 听下面一段长对话，回答下列各题。 10. How long has the man lived in this area? A. For 5 years. B. For 10 years. C. For 15 years. 11. How far is the gas station from the place where the two speakers are? A. About half a mile. B. About two miles. C. About two and a half miles. 12. What can be known about the gas station? A. It is very large. B. It has a red roof. C. It is very small. 听下面一段长对话，回答下列各题。 13. What’s the woman’s new problem? A. She has a sore throat. B. She has a toothache. C. She has an earache. 14. How often should the woman take the medicine? A. Once a day. B. Twice a day. C. Three times a day. 15. When does the woman need to see the doctor again? A. Next Monday. B. Next Tuesday. C. Next Thursday. 16. What does the doctor suggest the woman do finally? A. Make an appointment. B. Buy medicine outside. C. Write down the date. 听下面一段独白，回答下列各题。 17. What did Jin Schofield do at the laboratory? A. She did voluntary work. B. She worked as a translator. C. She helped treat deaf people. 18. What did Jin Schofield share with her friend? A. Her idea about creating a device. B. Her knowledge of sign language. C. Her experience of learning a language. 19. How did Jin Schofield and her friend start their work? A. They worked with local professors B. They communicated in sign language daily. C. They took online machine learning courses. 20. When did Jin Schofield and her friend win $10,000? A. In 2019. B. In 2020. C. In 2021. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A European Cities That Are Making Streets Become Car-Free The quality of life in cities would be so much better if they were car-free. So the following European cities are trying to reduce the number of cars in the streets. ● Copenhagen, Denmark Beginning in the 1960s Denmark’s capital pioneered walker-only zones and the city now has over 321 kilometers of bike routes. Over half of the people in Copenhagen ride bicycles to work. Denmark is building a super highway of 28 routes for bikes. That will connect the city to its surrounding suburban areas. The first-of-the routes opened in 2014. ● Hamburg, Germany The German city is planning on making walking and biking the main forms of transportation by reducing the number of cars allowed in specific areas of the city by 2035. The project calls for a green network of places people can go to without cars, which will cover 40 % of Hamburg. The green network will include parks, playgrounds and sports fields. ● Milan, Italy In this Italian city, for every day that drivers leave their cars parked at home during working hours, they’ll receive a 1.5 Euro ticket reward good for the use of public transportation. The city has buses, subways, trams (有轨电车) to choose from, so it pays to leave the driving to them. ● Paris, France In 2017, the French capital announced it would ban diesel (柴油) cars by 2024. Cars that run on gas are expected to be removed by 2030. There’s already an older car ban from the city center for working hours on weekdays. “If you live in Paris and get rid of your car, you can claim benefits of around $700 to buy a bike,” according to Fast Company. 21. What is under construction in Denmark? A. A bike-sharing system. B. More bike-only zones. C. A green business network. D. A superhighway for bikes. 22. Which city rewards people to take public transportation? A. Copenhagen, Denmark. B. Hamburg, Germany. C. Milan. Italy. D. Paris, France. 23. What’s the deadline of removing all the cars that run on traditional energy by Paris? A. 2017. B. 2024. C. 2030. D. 2035. B In the three decades since Darah Lady’s grandmother first arrived in this distant area of northern Brazil, clearing the forest by hand to build a house for her 14 children, the family has pushed deeper and deeper into the Amazon. It has been driven by a saying that good fortune comes when nature gives in to human control. Yet their growing community there could ruin not only their children’s future but also that of the entire planet. More global pandemics (流行病) are on the way, scientists say, and the next one is likely to crop up from a community like Darah Lady’s, where people are taking up more and more space of the natural world and erasing the buffer zone (缓冲区) between themselves and habitats that existed long. As people cut down forest, they not only speed up the global warming but also greatly increase their risk of exposure to disease. Scientists also say disease hot zones are expanding from Africa to South America, and that deforestation has already led to a rise in spreading disease. Zoologists have found that a third of all known disease outbreaks around the world were due to rapid land use change. Darah Lady’s community of Maruaga is filled with risks for the spread of viruses (病毒). Their family has already battled zoonotic illnesses — the term used to describe diseases spread between animals and humans. When 40% of a land area has been destroyed, according to Tom Gillespie, a university researcher, the region hits a sort of tipping point: Wild animals are pushed closer to humans for food, and viruses begin to spread. Darah Lady seemed to notice the slight difference of deforestation. “I get kind of sad,” Darah Lady said, “Because the forest is something I’ve loved since I was little. And they are deforesting, right? It’s destroying nature.” 24. What do you know about Darah Lady? A. She built a house for her 14 children. B. She made a big fortune in Amazon. C. Her family cut down trees for growing crops. D. Her family lived in Amazon for decades. 25. What led to the spread of zoonotic illnesses? A. The loss of the buffer zone. B. The effect of global warming. C. The lack of species variety. D. The expansion of wildlife habitats. 26. What is paragraph 5 mainly about? A. A possible treatment for diseases. B. A real example of the prevention of diseases. C. A further explanation of the spread of diseases. D. A supporting evidence for the danger of diseases. 27. In which section of a newspaper may this text appear? A. Entertainment. B. Design. C. Education. D. Environment. C “I’m not a reader.” It’s a common reply that Julia Torres, a teacher-librarian in Denver Public School, has heard throughout her 16-year career. She’s seen students tear up books, throw them away or check them out only to immediately return them all because they didn’t have confidence in their ability to read. As a librarian, Torres feels strongly that libraries should be spaces of liberation, places where students can develop a love of reading at any stage. Reading is a skill that everyone can grow to love, but too many negative experiences during a child’s literacy (读写能力) education can result in boredom, lack of interest or even anger. When a student has a poor experience like being shamed for their reading choices, they can begin to associate reading with painful feelings of insecurity, shame and stress. To prevent reading disorder (阅读障碍) practices, as Torres notes, librarians first can build an inclusive (内容丰富的) library where classified collections can make it easier for students to find out the books they want and also help identify gaps in the collections. Reevaluating librarians’ role is necessary, which allows students to take control of the library and have a say in what’s purchased for the collection, directly exciting students’ reading interest. Instead of hosting traditional book fairs where students have to pay for books, it is better to open up a True Book Fair, where students are invited to choose books intentionally to their interests without any costs. Librarians are recommended to read what students are reading. Another two important approaches to preventing reading disorder are to take a look at the library policies and redefine (重新定义) what counts as reading. It is necessary to get rid of fines, check-out limits, security gates, and punishment policies. Plus, students are encouraged to listen to audiobooks or read picture books. Find a way to teach important skills like comprehension or critical thinking with the texts that excite and interest students. 28. What does the underlined sentence “I’m not a reader.” in Paragraph 1 infer? A. Some students are not interested in reading. B. Some students have no ability to read books. C. Some students don’t borrow books from the library. D. Some students haven’t tried to read for entertainment. 29. What is directly linked with exciting students’ reading interests? A. Getting rid of library rules. B. Making their own choices. C. Librarians’ recommendation. D. Reducing charges caused by reading. 30. What is Paragraph 3 mainly about? A. What leads to students’ difficulty in reading. B. How negative reading experiences affect students. C. How to reduce reading disorder as librarians. D. Why to decrease reading disorder as librarians. 31. What is the author’s purpose of writing the text? A. To do a research on reading disorder. B. To offer suggestions to the librarians. C. To analyze why reading disorder forms. D. To draw attention to reading disorder prevention. D New high-tech shoes and insoles (鞋垫) have been developed that can help elderly, sick and disabled people walk without fear of falling over. Unveiled at the Wearable Technology Show in London on Tuesday, the Path Feel insoles and Path Finder shoes from U. K. startup Walk With Path provide tactile (触觉的) and visual feedback to assist walking. “If you walk and you don’t have a good feeling of the ground, you’ve got to be very careful, you keep checking every step, you need to look at the ground and see how you put your leg on the ground,” Iddo Wald, a design engineer at Walk With Path, tells Newsweek. “Path gives the confidence needed to walk without falling.” “We had a patient who suffers from a spinal cord injury and actually had no feeling of the ground at all but he could feel the vibration. It’s really exciting.” Pressure sensors in the Path Feel insoles provide tactile feedback that shakes the wearer’s feet and informs them when it is touching the ground. The Path Finder shoes are designed specifically for Parkinson’s patients who can’t walk smoothly. Lasers, projected out of the shoes in a green line aim to provide visual clues to help the sufferer focus on putting one foot in front of the other. According to the National Parkinson Foundation, 38% of people with Parkinson’s suffer from falls each year, while Age UK estimates one-in-ten people over the age of 65 fall over. The hope is that both the insoles and the shoes can help bring those numbers down. Both products are currently in the testing stage, with several London universities conducting trials. Early tests have seen some users improved their walking by over 50 percent. 32. How do the Path Feel insoles work? A. By shaking the wearer’s feet. B. By giving the wearer sound clues. C. By recording the wearer’s data. D. By counting the wearer’s steps. 33. What is the probable meaning of the underlined word “vibration” in Paragraph 4? A. Pain. B. Shake. C. Kick. D. Warmth. 34. What do we know about the smart shoes? A. They are popular among the elderly. B. They are being further tested. C. They will replace normal shoes. D. They can monitor the wearer’s health. 35. What can be the best title of this text? A. Smart Shoes Have Huge Market Prospects B. Smart Shoes Help Treat Parkinson’s Disease C. Smart Shoes Make Walking More Comfortable D. Smart Shoes Help the Elderly, Sick and Disabled Walk 第二节（共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Are You Using Your Time Wisely? Time. You get the same amount every single day. It is predictable, with scheduled times for sunrises and sunsets. Time is one of the few predictable elements in life. 36 It doesn’t matter how much money or influence you have, it is the same for everyone. What would you do if someone gave you $86,400 as a gift? Would you think long and hard about how you would use that money, and what fun or important things you would do with it? That’s the number of seconds we are given each and every day. But do you get up in the morning and think about what valuable and important things you will do with every second? Very few people do. So, start thinking about your “gift” of 86,400 seconds each day. Use them wisely each and every day. 37 Define what you care about. You have to make a living, pay the bills, attend to your family in need, finish the paper due for class and cook your meals. There are certain non-negotiables, but while you are doing all of these “have-to” things. consider what you care about. 38 Do you want to improve yourself? Do you want to learn something new? Do you want to gain insight or use the time you are doing these things to get in touch with your inner self? The point is that every activity in life gives you a chance for a deeper meaning if you establish first what you would like it to be. 39 If time is always beyond your management, start being more conscious of what you use it for and what you commit to. If you are a “yes” person who agrees to take on more than you should, consider saying “no.” If you do commit, break down what’s needed into small tasks so you can make gradual progress instead of rushing to get something done. Put things on the calendar. Plan for planning. Get attached to your calendar. Plan “me time,” “thinking time,” and “time-to-plan time” in your notebook. 40 Stick to it deliberately (刻意地) until it is more natural for you. Becoming more mindful and deliberate about your time will help you focus on it more thoroughly and find the gifts in every moment you are given. A. Become a planner. B. Do things mindfully. C. Do you want to enjoy the process? D. Don’t expect this will just unfold naturally. E. No one gets more in a day than anyone else. F. Here’s what you can do, especially if you are busy and time seems to disappear. G. Most of us don’t live as if our time is limited, and therefore waste too much of it. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 My son turned 14 and didn’t have a smartphone. He was the only kid in his class without one. When he asked for a phone, I 41 . “You can choose to do things 42 when you’re a parent.” I replied. But sometimes, I wondered if I was being too stubborn (固执的) or unfair. The more I research, the more confident I feel in my 43 . Many studies 44 the current mental health crisis among teenagers to changes in how they socialize, namely, the change from in-person to online 45 . But other parents 46 my view, saying “He must feel so left out!”. Then there are the parents who tell me with sadness that they regretted not delaying their teenager’s phone 47 longer than they did. They 48 me to hold out. If teenagers are truly spending about 5 hours on average per day on their devices, as a recent research states, then what are they not doing? Kids 49 in their devices are missing out on real life, which strikes me a lot. I want my son to have a 50 childhood, one full of adventures, imaginative play and physical challenges. The simplest way to achieve these 51 is to delay giving him a smartphone. Some think my son is missing out or falling behind, but he is not. He does well in school, 52 with friends, and moves independently around our town. He claimed he would give his own 14-year-old boy a phone someday, and I told him that’s 53 . But recently, he admitted he 54 the beautiful scenery on a drive to a mountain because he had been so absorbed in his iPad. If that is his 55 of admitting I’m right, I’ll take it. 41. A. agreed B. exclaimed C. refused D. apologized 42. A. gently B. differently C. desperately D. slightly 43. A. decision B. conversation C. preference D. memory 44. A. treat B. link C. limit D. solve 45. A. interaction B. payment C. business D. guidance 46. A. present B. change C. favor D. challenge 47. A. addiction B. membership C. ownership D. preference 48. A. require B. forbid C. refuse D. support 49. A. skilled B. absorbed C. hidden D. specialized 50. A. causal B. stable C. dramatic D. memorable 51. A. breakthroughs B. balances C. goals D. milestones 52. A. hangs out B. catches up C. shows off D. settles down 53. A. silly B. fine C. incredible D. meaningful 54. A. missed B. appreciated C. imagined D. polluted 55. A. commitment B. aim C. version D. promise 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Chinese screen, also known as pingfeng, is 56 unique and elegant piece of traditional furniture in Chinese decoration. 57 (typical), it is made of wood and features a delicate appearance. Famous for its carvings and paintings, the Chinese screen can block wind and noise from the outside, cover a door and make the room 58 (privacy). When decorating a house, Chinese people attach great importance 59 the harmony of their living space with the surrounding environment. Architects believe a screen can help to control 60 the energy flows in a room and promote a feeling of peace and 61 (calm). With its roots in Chinese culture and ancient history, the screen is more than just a physical barrier or decoration. In addition to its decorative and practical 62 (function), the Chinese screen 63 (consider) a symbol of honor and respect as well. When important guests visit, the host often greets them behind the screen as a sign of respect and privacy. Today, Chinese screens are still treasured and employed for their multiple roles. Whether 64 (use) to divide a room, create privacy, or add a touch of traditional elegance to a space, the Chinese screen 65 (remain) a beloved and valuable piece of design. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 假定你是李华，你校打算邀请外教Ryan在下周五举办的科技节（Science and Technology Festival）上当评委。请你代表学生会给 Ryan 写一封邮件。内容如下： 1．简介科技节；2．征求意见并发出邀请。 注意： 1．写作词数应为 80 左右；2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Ryan, Yours, Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 When I was in middle school, my family moved to Seattle, where my parents started their new business — a small grocery store downstairs my house. As a girl of shy and reserved nature, I had to take a fresh start to fit into the sophisticated city life. One sunny day, my school announced an exciting event, a talent show for the local food bank. Students were encouraged to showcase their unique talents in front of the public in the city hall on National Day. A buzz of excitement filled the school as everyone began preparing for the big day. Deep down, I felt a spark of curiosity and a desire to participate. However, my self-doubt held me back, “I don’t have any special skills to share.” Days turned into weeks, and the talent show drew closer. I couldn’t shake the upsetting feeling until one day Emma, one of the most popular girls in my class, came to me while I was helping in the grocery store after class. “How about singing together in the talent show?” She grinned, “I heard you singing a tune, along the way back home. I can’t help following you here.” Gosh, I couldn’t believe my ears. Emma, with personality and popularity, acknowledged my little talent. Since Emma had the world’s prettiest voice, I felt like being favoured by fortune. “You two? The talent show for the food bank?” My mum bent towards us and her face lit up. “A big occasion.” Then a light bulb seemed to go in her head. “Why not practise right now upstairs? I bet you’ll be a perfect match.” Winking at us, she seemed to know we were thinking alike. Emma and I embarked on rehearsing (排练) almost every single day after school. We brainstormed, exchanged ideas and rehearsed the scene. As the days rolled by, I was feeling pretty good about our act. But the day before the performance, Emma called that she had an terrible stomachache and was not in. 1．续写词数应为150左右；2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 I was completely knocked out by the news. Finally came the big moment. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $