内容正文:
2026—2027学年度上学期
八年级英语阶段性检测题
一、听力测试(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
(一)听句子,选择恰当的答语。每个句子读一遍。(共6小题;每小题1分,满分6分)
1. A. Come on. B. Take it easy. C. You’re welcome.
2. A. You are polite. B. Please call me John. C. It’s my pleasure.
3. A. Be careful. B. I’m sorry to hear that. C. It’s nothing.
4. A. Yes, I was. B. No, you weren’t. C. Yes, I did.
5. A. Last year. B. In a month. C. For two years.
6. A. Bad luck. B. You’re wrong. C. Good idea.
(二)、短对话理解。你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出一个最佳选项。(共6小题;每小题1分,满分6分)
7. A. By train. B. By plane. C. By car.
8. A. ¥320. B. ¥160. C. ¥260.
9. A. 9:00 B. 9:30 C. 9:40
10. A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
11. A. It was sunny. B. It was windy. C. It was rainy.
12. A. Lucy’s father. B. Helen’s father. C. Lucy.
(三)、长对话理解。你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。(共4小题;每小题1分,满分4分)
听对话,回答13-14小题。
13. What did Joe use to do at night?
A. He used to play computer games.
B. He used to study.
C. He used to fight with his parents.
14. Who changed Joe?
A. His parents. B. His friend. C. His uncle.
听对话,回答15-16小题。
15. Where are they talking?
A. In the museum. B. In the park. C. In the library.
16. What made the boy give up reading the first book?
A. Too many pictures.
B. Too many new words.
C. Too many stories.
(四)、短文理解。(共4小题;每小题1分,满分4分)
听短文,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项,回答问题。
17. When did Steve go to a friend’s birthday party?
A. In the afternoon. B. Yesterday evening. C. Today evening.
18. What happened to Steven?
A. He had a toothache.
B. He had stomachache.
C. He was too fat.
19. What did the doctor tell him?
A. He should have something cold.
B. He had better eat much candy.
C. He mustn’t have anything cold or eat too much candies.
20. How did he go to school after breakfast?
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On foot.
二、完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
Last summer holiday, I traveled to Italy with my family. One evening, we walked into a local restaurant. The menu had no 21 , only Italian words. I was hungry and excited to try real Italian food, but I was too shy to ask the waiter 22 each word meant.
I looked at the menu for a few minutes, and then pointed at a word and said, “I want this, please.” I hoped it was a kind of noodles, my favorite. The waiter smiled and nodded, and I believed in 23 .
When the food came, I froze — it was ravioli, a kind of dumplings, not long noodles. I felt like 24 it but didn’t want to ask the waiter for help, so I decided to try it. An old Italian grandma at the next table noticed it and waved at me. She spoke softly 25 English, “Ravioli is a gift — enjoy it!” She showed me how to eat it with a fork and spoon, not chopsticks. Many of her moves were warm and friendly, making me relax. To my surprise, the ravioli was 26 — cheesy, juicy, and full of meat inside, which was very different from Chinese dumplings. I enjoyed every bite and even ordered a 27 plate. That night, I felt better than ever — what I thought was 28 turned out to be great.
My dad said later, “When you travel, don’t be shy to ask questions — but sometimes happy mistakes 29 too.” This was my first time ordering food blindly abroad, but it was the most unforgettable experience I had.
The holiday story taught me that being brave to ask is great, but 30 from others and surprise from mistakes can be wonderful too.
21. A. pictures B. prices C. dishes D. introductions
22. A. how B. why C. where D. what
23. A. herself B. himself C. yourself D. myself
24. A. changing B. eating C. buying D. watching
25. A. with B. in C. at D. by
26. A. disappointing B. boring C. amazing D. interesting
27. A. first B. second C. third D. fourth
28. A. right B. delicious C. easy D. wrong
29. A. happen B. find C. leave D. make
30. A. kindness B. weakness C. politeness D. shyness
三、阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列材料,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
Daisy likes reading Modern Girl Magazine because it often has personality quizzes. These quizzes are multiple-choice (多项选择的) questions about personal preference (偏爱). By answering the questions and reading the explanation of your score, you can discover what kind of person you are.
Here is one of Daisy’s completed quizzes. Give her 1 point for each (a) she chose, 2 points for each (b) and 3 points for each(c).
(1) I prefer spending my spare time ________.
□ (a) with my family
■ (b) with my friends
□ (c) by myself
(2) If I have a problem, I would rather ________.
■ (a) talk to my parents than to my friends
□ (b) talk to my friends than to my family
□ (c) work it out by myself
(3) I prefer to study ________.
□ (a) at home with my family around
□ (b) with my friends
■ (c) by myself
(4) For my birthday, I would prefer to ________.
□ (a) be with my family
□ (b) have a party with lots of friends
■ (c) go out with just my best friend
Score:
4-6: Your family are very important to you. You enjoy being with your friends but your family come first.
7-9: You have lots of friends and like to have fun. You are close to your family but your friends are also important to you.
10-12: You probably have one or two close friends, but you’d rather relax with a good book than go to a party. You are independent and happy to do things by yourself.
31. How many points does Daisy get in this quiz?
A. 4. B. 8. C. 9. D. 12.
32. What kind of person are you if your score is 8?
A. My family and my friends are both very important to me.
B. My family are the most important to me.
C. I’m very independent and happy to do things by myself.
D. I still cannot decide which is more important.
33. The quiz helps you find out ________.
A. whether you are a kind person or not
B. how many people are in your family
C. what kind of person you are
D. what kind of birthday present you would prefer
34. What can we infer from the passage?
A. The quiz can tell people what they will be in the future.
B. The quiz is just for fun, not a serious test.
C. People who get high scores have no friends.
D. We must take the quiz every month.
35. Where can you see the article?
A. In a sports ad. B. In a storybook.
C. In a travel guide. D. On a website.
B
When 10-year-old Grace, from Edinburgh, was unable to find her favorite haggis and black pepper crisps (羊杂黑胡椒薯片) in the shops, she decided to do something. She wrote a letter to the manager of Taylors Snacks, James Taylor, to ask if the company could bring back the popular haggis and black pepper crisps.
Last year, Taylors Snacks made the flavor (口味) available only during winter months. Grace felt disappointed about that. In the letter, Grace said that she and her family all loved the crisps, and added, “I really hope it could become available all year round. If you can, thanks. If not, I will be sad.”
The letter worked, with Taylors Snacks promising to have the crisps on sale all year round. What was more, Grace was gifted a collection of haggis and black pepper crisps for a year, and a ticket for a tour around the Taylors factory.
Grace’s mother Becky said, “This experience helps Grace see the importance of communicating. It really can make a big difference to a young child’s life.”
Now, Grace is looking forward to visiting the factory and learning how her favorite snacks are made.
36. How did Grace let Taylors Snacks know her wish?
A. By making a call. B. By sending an email.
C. By leaving a message. D. By writing a letter.
37. What does the underlined word “disappointed” mean?
A. Angry. B. Excited. C. Sad. D. Relaxed.
38. What did Taylors Snacks promise?
A. To sell crisps all year round.
B. To send free crisps to all customers.
C. To make more flavors instead.
D. To sell crisps only on some special days.
39. What does Grace expect to do now?
A. To get more free crisps.
B. To say thanks to James Taylor in person.
C. To learn to make crisps by herself.
D. To take a tour around the Taylors factory.
40. What does the text tell us?
A. Grace’s mother doesn’t like crisps at all.
B. Grace’s mother thinks the experience is educational.
C. Grace doesn’t mind the promise of Taylors Snacks.
D. Grace was sure that she could receive crisps all the time.
C
We spend most of our time with friends we like. Well, what kind of people are welcomed by others, then? There are people that naturally attract (吸引) you. By being with them just once, you start to like them. If you wonder why they attract people and want to be a person like them, you should learn how to develop the traits (特点) that they have.
Firstly, everybody wants to be happy, and nobody wants to spend their time with an unhappy person. Well, you see, there is what you call mood linkage. If you are with a happy person, you are more likely to be happy, too. When people choose to spend time with a person, they are more likely to choose those who are cheerful. So if you are a happy person, many people will want to spend their time with you.
Next, everybody needs someone to give encouragement to them, because sometimes in our lives we meet failure, sadness, problems and other bad things. So if you always choose to cheer (振奋起来) others up with encouraging words or actions, they would like to spend time with you.
Lastly, you are not a friend if you don’t give a hand to your friends when they need help. You should always be helpful to them, no matter what it costs, because when you need help, they will be there for you, too.
It feels good if people want to be your friends because of your character. So if you want to attract people, you should learn to develop these traits.
41. What can be an example of “mood linkage” according to the passage?
A. You would like to help when someone is in need.
B. You will be happy to see someone lose his games.
C. You will laugh loudly when you hear funny stories.
D. You will be happy when you are with happy people.
42. What does the underlined word “them” in Paragraph 4 refer to?
A. People who are good at encouraging others.
B. People who are glad to give a hand to others.
C. People who have a need for help.
D. People who are willing to spend time with you.
43. What trait can help one to attract others?
A. Being beautiful. B. Being careful. C. Being strict. D. Being helpful.
44. Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage?
A. ①②③④/⑤ B. ①/②③④⑤
C. ①②/③④/⑤ D. ①/②③④/⑤
45. What would be the best title for the passage?
A. Ways to Live a Happy Life B. Traits Needed to Attract People
C. Notes for Making Friends D. Words for Cheering Others Up
四、阅读还原(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Drones (无人机) can do a lot of things for us, such as taking photos, delivering (快递) things from packages to pizzas to milk and following wild animals. 46 .
Can you believe it? Drones can serve people coffee. US company IBM has made this kind of drone. It can send coffee to sleepy people. The drone can know when to bring a cup of coffee by studying a person’s personal information. Then, the drone will fly to the person. 47 It helps the drone to give people coffee. The drone can also learn about someone’s coffee-drinking habits and predict when someone needs their next cup of coffee.
48 One company in Africa use drones to deliver medicine and blood fast and save many people’s lives. The drones are able to fly at speeds of up to 60mph (英里每时) and when they are within a minute of the destination (目的地), the doctors get a text and wait nearby. 49 .
A 92-year-old hunter in Virginia was lost and had to spend a night in the woods. The police searched for him all night but failed to find him. 50 . Also, drones helped the fire fighters know about the fire in wildfire fight.
A. Drones can also save lives.
B. But they have other uses now.
C. There is a special device (设备) under the drone.
D. Luckily the drone found out where he was in 20 minutes.
E. The drone throws down the package and then goes back to its home.
F. Drones will be used everywhere in our daily life and bring us more convenience.
四、单词拼写。(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
51. We decide to go hiking to explore nature and enjoy the beautiful l__________.
52. I am __________ (熟悉) with this feeling, which shows my mom is angry.
53. We plan to d__________ the classroom with colorful balloons for the party.
54. The bell rings, but many students aren’t ready for class __________ (还).
55. Yesterday morning Tom __________ (参加) an important meeting in Zhengzhou.
56. China has a p__________ of more than 1.4 billion.
57. Anna laughed l_________ than Ben, so we heard her first.
58. We want to c__________ the animals and paint the walls light green.
59. Guangzhou has a __________ (适宜) temperature in January. It is about 16℃.
60. __________ (除了) singing, he is also good at performing.
五、语法填空。(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
I still remember the first day I 61 (meet) Jane. When she went into the classroom, all the students were very 62 (surprise) because there was a big red birthmark on her face. Jane didn’t care at all 63 some bad boys laughed at her. Instead, she was always smiling.
I wanted to know why Jane could always be so happy. So one day, I went to her and asked if she knew there was 64 birthmark on her face. She replied that of course she knew. Whenever she looked in the mirror, she could see it.
“Then how can you live 65 (happy) all the time? Don’t you think the mark make you strange?” I asked.
“No, actually, the mark makes me special. I always tell 66 (I) that I have no way to decide what I look like, but I can decide what I want to be. I’m much 67 (lucky) than those that can’t walk or run. At least I’m a 68 (health) person,” Jane answered 69 a smile.
Jane’s words opened a new world for me. At that moment, I understood the world better than before. If the world is looked from a very bright way, some bad things will be good 70 (gift).
61. __________ 62. __________ 63. __________ 64. __________ 65. __________
66. __________ 67. __________ 68. __________ 69. __________ 70. __________
六、阅读表达。(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
What does taking the train mean to you? Perhaps it’s just a way of getting to your destination (目的地). In fact, the train itself can be part of the fun.
On March 28th, China’s first panda-themed tourist train left Chengdu in Sichuan for Zunyi in Guizhou. It soon became the talk of China with its special design and comfortable service.
Its inside and outside are decorated with giant panda pictures. Attendants (乘务员) carry panda toys and passengers can try panda-shaped food and Sichuan snacks. Some people call it a mobile star hotel because it has a bar, karaoke room, dance hall, and mahjong (麻将) room.
This luxury (高档的) service is one aspect that has attracted travelers. But train travel interests people for other reasons.
In the fast-paced times we live in, train travel is a good way to slow down. It gives you time and space to read, sleep, chat with friends, or simply do nothing but watch the changing scenery outside.
One surprising thing is that you might meet new people. Sheng Yawei, 26, once took the longest railway in the world — the Trans-Siberian Railway. Sheng met a Russian student and they became friends. “I also met a cute boy who gave me melon seeds (瓜子). Though we didn’t understand each other’s language, it made me feel nice.”
71. When did China’s first panda-themed tourist train leave Chengdu for Zunyi?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
72. Why did the panda-themed tourist train become the talk of China?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
73. What food does this train provide for passengers?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
74. What is the best title for this passage?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
75. Do you want to take the panda-themed tourist train? Why or not?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
七、书面表达。(满分20分)
家,是爱的港湾,是心灵的归处。你的家庭成员之间在性格和爱好方面有哪些不同?为了共筑甜蜜的家,在刚刚过去的国庆节假期,你主动帮父母做了哪些家务?你有什么收获和感受?你对家的意义有什么理解?请以My Sweet Home为题,写一篇文章。
要求:
1.词数80-100;
2.书写认真规范,行文连贯,可适当发挥;
3.文中不能出现真实姓名和学校。
My Sweet Home
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