山东济南市章丘区2026-2027学年八年级英语上学期第一次学情调研

2026-2027学年八年级英语上学期第一次学情调研 I．听力测试（30分） A）听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子读一遍。（7.5分） 1. A. Lily kopt a diary last year. B. Lily kept a diary every Sunday. C. Lily kept a diary last Sunday. 2. A. I did something interesting. B. I did nothing interesting. C. I didn’t do anything special. 3. A. Can I borrow your chess set? B. Can he take you to the park? C. Can you help clean the classroom? 4. A. Where did you buy these plants? B. How did you buy these plants? C. Who did you buy these plants with? 5. A. My friend is similar to me. B. My friend is different from me. C. My friend looks like me. B）在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。（7.5分） 6. How did the man go to Lijiang? A. By plane. B. By train. C. By car. 7. What are the speakers talking about? A. Where to have a party. B. When to have a party. C. How to have a party. 8. What does Betty think of doing chores? A. Interesting. B. Useful. C. A and B. 9. Who probably can give David a lift? A. His mum. B. His dad. C. Gina’s dad. 10. How many differences are mentioned? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. C）在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。对话读两遍。（听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间）（7.5分） 11. Who will come to their home? A. Aunt Lucy. B. Aunt Lily. C. Uncle Jack. 12. What’s Sarah’s first work in the living room? A. Pick up the toys. B. Sweep the floor. C. Pack up the books. 13. What will Mum do in Sarah’s bedroom? A. Mop the floor. B. Make the bed. C. Wash the dishes. 14. What housework does Sarah help with in the kitchen? A. Set the table. B. Wash the dishes. C. Clean the table. 15. Which place will Dad clean? A. The bathroom. B. The bedroom. C. The living room. D）在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。短文读两遍。（听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间）（7.5分） 16. What’s the relationship between Jane and Mary? A. Sisters. B. Classmates. C. Teacher and student. 17. Where did they have lunch during the trip? A. In a small restaurant. B. In their school dining hall. C. At Mary’s home. 18. Why did Mary take many photos? A. She wanted to sell the photos. B. She needed them for her English homework. C. She planned to open a photo club. 19. How often does Mary watch TV on school days? A. Hardly ever. B. Twice a week. C. Every day. 20. What can we infer from the passage? A. Jane works harder than Mary. B. They won’t take trips any more. C. They hope to take another trip soon. II．阅读理解 阅读下列短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。（每小题2分，共40分） A This term, our school opened a new subject for our students. You can learn how to cook or plant in this class. What do students think of this special class? Let’s read their stories. In this class, I learned to make cookies. From this, I found that baking (烘焙) needs careful steps. I love the new subject. The teacher also guided us when to add sugar and eggs. Now, I can make sweet and crispy cookies on my own. — Xu Zihong, 12 Our school encouraged students to grow plants and experience the joy of labour. We grew peppers (辣椒), eggplants, beans, cabbages and so on. It seemed easy, but we took a lot of time to do it well. Because of this class, we started to treasure every grain of rice. Farming isn’t easy. The food tasted better when we put much effort into it. The labour class not only taught me important planting skills, but also provided a great way to relax during busy school days. — Zhao Keke, 15 I prepared warm water and soft dish cloths. I planned to practice washing dishes. It took me about 2 days to remember the steps and 10 days to be familiar with this housework. At first, I was slow and careless. I dried every plate carefully so they would stay clean. It was fun to finish the work well. — Zihan, 13 21. What did Xu Zihong learn to do in the labour class? A. Wash dishes. B. Grow peppers. C. Make cookies. D. Feed animals. 22. How long did it take Zihan to be familiar with washing dishes? A. 12 days. B. 2 days. C. 20 days. D. 10 days. 23. Why did Zihan dry every plate carefully? A. To keep the plates clean. B. To save some dish cloths. C. To make the water warm. D. To learn planting skills. 24. What does the underlined word “treasure” mean in Zhao Keke’s words? A. waste B. cherish C. pack D. smell 25. What is the main idea of the passage? A. It tells us three students’ experiences in the labour class. B. It tells us how to grow vegetables in the school garden. C. It tells us different ways to make delicious cookies. D. It tells us some good ways to do housework at home. B Wang Jibing is a food delivery rider, but he is also a poet (诗人). He won the Lu Xun Literary Prize (鲁迅文学奖) on July 15, 2026, because of his poetry book Low Flight. Now he is famous all over China. People call him “a delivery rider by day and a poet by night”. Wang is 57 years old and he comes from Jiangsu Province. Before he worked as a food delivery rider in Kunshan in 2019, he had many different jobs. He once helped build houses. Life was hard for him, but he never stopped writing poems (诗). After he became a delivery rider, he travelled more than 150,000 kilometers and wrote over 6,000 poems. Most of his poems come from his daily work and the common people he meets. Wang started publishing (出版) his works in magazines in the 1990s. Later, he shared his poems on the Internet. In 2022, his poem Man in a Hurry became popular online. It describes the busy life of delivery riders and moved many readers. The poem came from his real experience. Once a customer wrote down the wrong place, so Wang got a fine (罚款). Although Wang has become a famous poet, he says the prize will not change his life. He still delivered food the day before people knew he won the prize. He hopes his poems can help more people understand common workers’ lives. He also wants readers to know that great literature (文学) can come from everyday life. 26. When did Wang Jibing win the Lu Xun Literary Prize? A. In 1990. B. In 2019. C. In 2022. D. In 2026. 27. How many poems did Wang Jibing write after he became a delivery rider? A. More than 150,000. B. Less than 6,000. C. Over 6,000. D. About 1,990. 28. Which of the following is the correct order of the events? ①Wang got a fine. ②Wang published his works in magazines. ③Wang wrote the poem Man in a hurry. ④Wang became a food delivery rider. A. ②④③① B. ②④①③ C. ④②①③ D. ④②③① 29. Which of the following is TRUE? A. Wang Jibing started publishing his works in 2022. B. The poem Man in a Hurry is about teachers’ busy life. C. Wang stopped delivering food after he won the prize. D. Wang’s poems are from his daily work and common people. 30. Which word can best describe Wang Jibing? A. Strict. B. Hard-working. C. Kind. D. Outgoing C On April 19, 2026, something unusual happened in Beijing. About 12,000 human runners and over 100 humanoid robot teams started together at the Beijing E-Town Half Marathon. It was the world’s first half marathon where humans and robots ran on the same road. The star of the day was “Lightning,” a robot developed by Chinese company Honor. It was tall and thin with a round head and two long legs. Lightning finished the race in 50 minutes and 26 seconds. That was nearly seven minutes faster than the human world record of 57 minutes and 20 seconds. From the start, it took the lead and never gave it up. However, Lightning hit a barrier and fell near the end. After quick adjustments by the team, it restarted and crossed the finish line successfully. The crowd cheered loudly for its strong spirit. The progress from last year was amazing. In 2025, the winning robot took about 2 hours and 40 minutes, and only 6 of 20 teams finished. This year, nearly 40 percent of over 100 teams raced on their own, using sensors and cameras to find their way. Teams from France, Germany and Brazil also joined for the first time. The race was not just about winning. Experts say the technology used in Lightning will change many industries. Running long distances, climbing slopes and making sharp turns help solve key problems: battery life, heat control and balance. These are the same problems robots face when working in factories, hospitals or homes. So next time you see a robot, it may be training for something much bigger than a race. 31. What can we learn about the 2026 Beijing E-Town Half Marathon? A. It was held for human runners only. B. It had more robots than human runners. C. It allowed robots and humans to run together. D. It was the first marathon in the world 32. What happened to Lightning during the race? A. It lost its way on the road. B. It fell but finished the race. C. It failed to cross the finish line. D. It stopped to help human runners. 33. What does the underlined word “adjustments” in Paragraph 3 probably mean? A. Short breaks. B. Loud calls. C. Careful checks. D. Small changes. 34. How long did the winning robot take in the 2025 race? A. About 50 minutes. B. About 1 hour. C. About 2.5 hours. D. About 5 hours. 35. Why is the race important according to the last paragraph? A. It helps robots practice skills for real jobs. B. It proves robots can run faster than cars. C. It teaches humans how to run long distances. D. It shows robots can win every race. D If you walk through a Chinese night market, you might see an artist holding a spoon. With a few quick movements, the spoon drops hot, golden sugar onto a flat board. In seconds, a beautiful butterfly or a flying dragon appears. This is sugar painting — a traditional folk art that is both delicious and beautiful. Sugar painting started during the Ming Dynasty and became very popular in the Qing Dynasty. At first, only rich families could enjoy it because sugar was expensive. Later, as sugar became cheaper, common people could also buy this sweet art. Artists used hot sugar to “draw” pictures on stone boards. Once the sugar cooled down, it became hard and could be eaten like candy. The art of sugar painting is not easy to learn. Artists must move very quickly because the sugar cools fast. If they stop for too long, the sugar will become too hard to shape. Many sugar painters have practiced for years to get their skills. They can make animals, flowers, and even Chinese characters. Some artists also let customers choose what they want, and then create it right in front of them. Today, sugar painting is facing challenges. Fewer young people want to learn this skill because it takes a long time and does not make much money. However, some artists are trying to keep it alive. They go to schools to teach children about sugar painting. They also use social media to share their works with more people. “I hope this art will not disappear,” says Mr. Chen, a sugar painter in Shandong. “It is part of our culture, and it brings joy to people.” Sugar painting is more than just a snack. It is a living tradition that connects the past with the present. Next time you see a sugar painter, stop and watch. You will see not only a sweet treat, but also a piece of Chinese history. 36. What can we learn about sugar painting from Paragraph 2? A. It began in the Qing Dynasty and spread to other countries. B. It was first enjoyed by rich people before becoming popular. C. It was made with cold sugar and shaped on stone boards. D. It became less popular when sugar became expensive. 37. What is Paragraph 3 mainly about? A. The tools used in sugar painting. B. The places where sugar painting is sold. C. The different kinds of sugar paintings. D. The difficulty of learning sugar painting. 38. What does Mr. Chen’s words in Paragraph 4 suggest? A. He is worried that sugar painting will be lost. B. He believes sugar painting will make him rich. C. He thinks young people should stop using social media. D. He plans to give up sugar painting and find a new job. 39. How is the passage organized? A. ①② / ③④ / ⑤ B. ① / ②③ / ④⑤ C. ① / ②③④ / ⑤ D. ①②③ / ④ / ⑤ 40. Where is this passage most probably from? A. A school science report for students. B. A travel guide for foreign visitors. C. A cultural magazine for young readers. D. A history textbook for university students. III．阅读理解七选五 根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。（每小题2分，共10分） In families with many children, the oldest, middle and youngest children are often very different. Studies show that many first-born children are more hard-working and more serious than their brothers and sisters. 41 . They work hard to please (取悦) their parents. The youngest is always the parents’ “baby”, so the youngest is usually more outgoing and funnier than the other children. The youngest child is also usually the most spoiled (惯坏的) of all the children in the family. There is a common joke that all salespeople are the youngest in their families, 42 . 43 . Many middle children are good at making peace between people, because they have to learn how to live with the very different personalities of the youngest and the oldest. Middle children sometimes feel unhappy, because they feel that the hard-working oldest child and the outgoing youngest child get most of their parents’ attention. 44 , because they are used to thinking for themselves and choosing their own way. However, I think no matter when a person is born, everyone can choose his or her own path in life. Everyone can choose to make his or her good qualities stronger and bad qualities weaker. 45 . A. Middle children are often quicker and more thoughtful than the oldest and youngest. B. so they can sell everything easily. C. The order of birth does not decide anyone’s life. D. The order of birth can affect (影响) a person’s whole life. E. because they are good at convincing (说服) others to do what they want. F. They are more interested in following rules. G. But middle children very often grow up to do very unusual and great things. IV．补全对话 从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。（5分） A: Hi, David. Long time no see. B: Hi, Tom. A: 46. __________ B: I visited my grandparents in the countryside last month. A: Sounds nice! 47. __________ B: Yes. I fed chickens and picked fresh fruit with them. A: By the way, could you help me with something? 48. __________ B: Sure, no problem. I can help you clean the classroom after school. A: Thank you! I know you have a twin brother. 49. __________ B: He likes reading and playing ball games in his free time. A: Can you bring your brother to play basketball with us tomorrow? B: 50. ________ We have to finish our housework first. 46. A. Where did you go last month? B. How was your trip? C. Who did you go with? D. Did you take any photos? 47. A. How often did you go there? B. What did you do there? C. Did you do anything fun there? D. Was the countryside beautiful? 48. A. What do you usually do after school? B. Could you please clean our classroom? C. Can you help me look after my dog? D. Would you like to go shopping? 49. A. What does your brother like? B. Is your brother outgoing? C. What does your brother look like? D. Who is your twin brother? 50. A. Sure, I’d love to. B. That sounds great. C. I’d love to, but we can’t. D. No, we don’t. V．完形填空 阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。（15分） Emma’s mom told her to clean her room every day but she never listened. She thought it was pretty clean and tidy. Actually, Emma could 51 open the door. Why? That was 52 there were so many toys, clothes and books lying on the 53 . “Emma, our family are going to the zoo. Go and get your 54 on,” Mom said one day. The 55 was that she could only find one of them. “Mom, I can’t find my shoe. Will you wait 56 I’m looking for it?” she asked. Her mom whispered (耳语) something to Grandma and then said to Emma, “You will have to stay at home and 57 your room. Grandma will stay with you.” Emma felt sad and 58 for a long time after her parents left with her brother. “I think I’d better clean my room,” she thought. 59 took Emma two hours to clean her room. She put all the 60 clothes into the clothes basket and hung up all of her clean clothes. She put all her toys back in the 61 boxes and the books in the bookcase. She also 62 her bed. She even found her missing shoe! “I did it!” she said happily. From then on, Emma tried her 63 to keep her room clean. She always helped her mom cook dinner and set tables. “Doing housework not only teaches me how to look after 64 , but also develop my independence.” Emma said. A week later, her mom took her to the zoo and they had so much 65 there. 51. A. clearly B. hardly C. quietly D. finally 52. A. but B. so C. because D. and 53. A. sofa B. bed C. floor D. table 54. A. shoes B. hat C. bag D. snack 55. A. problem B. reason C. risk D. decision 56. A. or B. until C. after D. while 57. A. run away B. give away C. clean up D. fix up 58. A. laughed B. asked C. washed D. cried 59. A. One B. It C. This D. That 60. A. dirty B. cold C. cheap D. warm 61. A. wrong B. right C. front D. quiet 62. A. broke B. made C. threw D. built 63. A. most B. worst C. best D. better 64. A. herself B. themselves C. myself D. yourself 65. A. fun B. time C. day D. money VI．阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。（15分） Do you have close friends? Having close friends is one of the best things in 66 (we) life. In fact, everyone should have some close friends. If you have close friends, you can always have someone to work together with. For example, I am an outgoing girl while my friend Karen is quiet. Of all my 67 (friend), I think Karen is the most talented in music. Karen and I like to write songs together and Karen can also sing songs 68 (beautiful). What’s more, she is 69 (hard-working) than me. She gives me 70 useful saying, “The harder you work, the luckier you will be.” Another reason for having close friends is that they can cheer you up. They try their best 71 (do) this whenever you are sad. For example, when I 72 (get) a bad grade on my maths test last week, my friend Rick told jokes 73 (make) me laugh and decided to help me learn maths twice a week. Now I feel much better. And we 74 (work) out maths problem together at the moment. 75 his help, I think I will make progress in the near future. Close friends help us enjoy life and get out of trouble. Life is better with close friends! VII．书面表达（35分） 第一部分 情境运用 根据所提供的图画情景，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。（10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76. A: Where did your sister go on holiday? B: ________________. 77. A: Does Lily have longer hair than Lucy? B: No. ______________. 78. A: ________________________? B: OK, I’ll do it at once. 79. A: ________________________? B: Yes, she is. 80. A: ________________________? B: It was great. 第二部分 作文（25分） 汪曾祺说：“家人闲坐，灯火可亲。”和家人在一起是一件幸福的事。假如你是李辉，你们班正在举行一个名为“家的记忆”的主题班会，请你回忆发生在你家里的一件有意义的事情（包含发生了什么？什么时间发生的？故事中的人物是谁？）并谈谈你的感受或观点。具体按照下图提示写一篇英语短文向同学们分享。 要求： 1．短文须包含上图所有信息，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 2．100词左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数。 Family Memories Hi, everyone. I am very happy to _____________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $