2026年七年级英语秋季开学分班·学情自测卷01（南京专用）

2026年秋季七年级开学分班·学情自测卷01 英语 参考答案 （考试时间：90分钟 试卷满分：90分） 一、小完形填空。(本大题共15小题，每小题1分，共15分) 1．A 2．B 3．D 4．A 5．B 6．C 7．A 8．C 9．A 10．C 11．B 12．A 13．D 14．A 15．C 二、完形填空（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） 16．A 17．B 18．A 19．C 20．C 21．B 22．C 23．D 24．C 25．C 三、阅读理解（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） 26．C 27．C 28．C 29．B 30．D 31．B 32．A 33．D 34．C 35．C 36．D 37．A 38．B 39．A 40．A 四、词汇填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） 根据括号中所给的汉语写出单词，使短文意思完整正确。 41．classmates 42．polite 43．tennis 44．chat 45．usually 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 46．have/to have 47．drawing 48．goes 49．them 50．interested 根据短文内容，从下面方框中选择适当的单词或短语填空，使短文内容完整正确，其中有一项是多余选项。 51．at the weekend 52．greets 53．matches 54．brings 55．each other 五、任务型阅读（共9小题；56~63小题每小题1分，64小题2分，满分10分） 56．activities 57．doctor 58．car 59．work 60．walk 61．about 62．rest 63．early 64．favourite/favorite 65．practises 六、首字母填空（共 10小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） 66．(p)opular 67．(m)ake 68．(w)ith 69．(o)ranges 70．(c)hildren 71．(e)ating 72．(b)adly 73．(h)er 74．(l)ater 75．(q)uickly 七、书面表达（满分 15 分） 【答案】例文 Hello, everyone! I am Zhang Bei. My English name is Mya. I’m 13 and study in Class 10, Grade 7, at Sunshine Middle School. I have big eyes and long hair. I don’t wear glasses, and I’m tall and slim. I’m friendly and always ready to help others. I enjoy playing volleyball and jogging because they help me stay healthy. I also enjoy technology. I often visit science museums and like reading science books in my free time. My role model is my science teacher. In the future, I want to be a scientist. 1 / 2 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司zxxk.com 学科网（北京）股份有限公司zxxk.com 学科网（北京）股份有限公司zxxk.com 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 此卷只装订不密封 ………………○………………外………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… ………………○………………内………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… ………………○………………内………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… ………………○………………外………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… … 学校：______________姓名：_____________班级：_______________考号：______________________ 2026年秋季七年级开学分班·学情自测卷01 英 语 （考试时间：90分钟 试卷满分：90分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 4．考试范围：小学全部内容+新教材译林版七年级上册Units1~2 第Ⅰ卷 选择题（满分40分） 一、小完形填空。(本大题共15小题，每小题1分，共15分) A My mother’s birthday is next week. But I don’t know what to buy for 1 . I ask my father, “Dad, 2 is a good birthday gift for Mom?” “The one she likes,” he says. “Mom 3 strawberries. Oh, I know what to give her,” I say. Today is my mother’s birthday. We have breakfast 4 the morning. Then my parents go out. When they are not in the room, I get some strawberries. 5 I make a bunch of flowers with them. Then I put the strawberry flowers and 6 card in a white box. Some words are on the card. Dear Mom, Happy birthday! This is my gift for you. I want you to be happy every day. Your son, Jack I put the box on the dinner table. Then my mother can 7 it when she comes home. 1．A．her B．she C．him D．he 2．A．how B．what C．when D．where 3．A．fall B．falls C．love D．loves 4．A．in B．on C．at D．with 5．A．Or B．And C．Because D．But 6．A．the B．an C．a D．/ 7．A．see B．look C．watch D．give B When I first walked into my new middle school, my heart was beating (跳动) fast. Everything was so 8 . I missed (想念) my teachers and classmates in my old school very much. I didn’t know anyone. I was 9 and I didn’t know how to start talking to others first. Between classes, I only sat quietly. It was a long day for me. In the last lesson, Miss Chen, our class teacher, asked us to 10 . We needed to do two things. First, we told our 11 to others in a funny way. 12 , we shook (握) hands with our classmates one by one and called their names. 13 the game, some of my new classmates told some interesting things about their names, some made strange sounds, some moved (移动) their arms and legs to show the words. And I told a funny story about my name. We all tried hard to get them right. It was great fun! We 14 very happily. 15 , I got 12 names right! Can you believe it? I won the game and made more than 12 friends that day! 8．A．big B．old C．different D．interesting 9．A．shy B．clever C．kind D．friendly 10．A．do our homework B．write our names C．play a game D．take exercise 11．A．sizes B．names C．places D．numbers 12．A．Second B．Third C．Fourth D．Last 13．A．Before B．After C．When D．During 14．A．laughed B．sang C．danced D．learnt 15．A．Usually B．Quickly C．Finally D．Suddenly 二、完形填空（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） I’m Li Mei. I’m a middle school student. I have a good friend. Her name is Wang Lin. She is 13 years old. We are in the 16 class. She is good at English. She often 17 me with my English. I am good at math. I help her with math. We help each other. Wang Lin has many 18 . She can sing, dance and play the guitar. She wants to join the music club. I can play chess, 19 I want to join the chess club. Sometimes we go to the 20 club together. There we can play chess and listen to music. We also like to 21 stories. Wang Lin can tell stories very well. On weekends, we usually get up 22 8:00. Then we have breakfast. After breakfast, we do our homework. At 11:00, we go to the park. We often 23 there for an hour. In the afternoon, we go to the library. We like reading books. Reading is 24 for us. It helps us to know about the world. At 6:00 in the evening, we go home. We have a good time together. I am happy to have such a good 25 . 16．A．same B．different C．big D．small 17．A．asks B．helps C．teaches D．tells 18．A．hobbies B．lessons C．classes D．clubs 19．A．but B．because C．so D．or 20．A．art B．English C．chess D．music 21．A．write B．tell C．read D．listen 22．A．on B．in C．at D．for 23．A．walk B．run C．play D．stay 24．A．boring B．interesting C．good D．bad 25．A．sister B．teacher C．friend D．classmate 三、阅读理解（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） A Read this travel plan and answer the questions. CAMERON HIGHLANDS TOUR Day One 10:00 pm   Report (报到) at the entrance of Allan Tour Agency 10:30 pm   Leave Singapore for Cameron Highlands (金马伦高地) 12:30 am   Stop for a break at Yong Peng, Malaysia 9:30 am   Reach Cameron Highlands Hotel (free and easy for the rest of the day) Day Two 7:30 am   Breakfast 8:30 am   Gather (集合) at the entrance of Cameron Highlands Hotel 9:00 am   1st Stop—Strawberry farm (Buy freshly picked strawberries or pay a fee (付费) and pick them yourself.) 10:30 am   2nd Stop—Bee farm (Buy freshly gathered honey in bottles.) 12:00 noon   Lunch at mid-mountain village 1:00 pm   3rd Stop—Boh tea farm (Try different kinds of tea. Learn to make tea and buy your favourite tea.) 3:30 pm   Visit a local product shop 4:30 pm   Return to Cameron Highlands Hotel 26．How long does it take to travel from Allan Tour Agency to Cameron Highlands Hotel? A．10 hours. B．10.5 hours. C．11 hours. D．11.5 hours. 27．How many places do the tourists (游客) visit on the second day? A．3. B．4. C．5. D．6. 28．According to the travel plan, the tourists can ________. A．pick fresh strawberries for free B．buy some bottles and play with bees C．have some tea at Boh tea farm D．have lunch at a local product shop B Festivals Dates Activities April Fool’s Day 1st April Young people play tricks on others. Mother’s Day 2nd Sunday in May People give presents and show their love to their mothers. Halloween 31st October Children wear special costumes and masks and play tricks on others. Thanksgiving Day 4th Thursday of November People say thanks to others and have a good meal with their families. Christmas 25th December It’s the biggest festival of the year. People eat dinner together and give presents to each other. 29．Young people or children play tricks on others on ________. A．April Fool’s Day and Christmas Day B．April Fool’s Day and Halloween C．Halloween and Thanksgiving Day D．Halloween and Christmas 30．In America, people ________ on 25th December. A．wear special costumes B．play tricks on others C．say thanks to others D．get presents 31．American people have Mother’s Day because they want to ________. A．have a dinner together B．show their love to their mothers C．say thanks to each other D．play tricks on others C Rat helps Toad into his home. Toad is very happy to be in his friend’s house. “Oh Rat!” he cries, “I want to tell you about my adventures (冒险经历). I am a clever Toad! Prison (监狱), then run away on a train then a horse…” “Toad! You look terrible. Stop boasting (自吹自擂)! And why are you in a dress? Put on some dry clothes. Go!” Toad is angry. But he takes off his dress and puts on dry clothes. He washes his face and he looks in the mirror (镜子) and smiles. “I am a handsome Toad,” he says. Later, Toad and Rat have lunch. Toad eats and tells Rat about his adventures. He talks and talks. But Rat doesn’t say a word. At last Rat says, “Toad, you are an idiot (傻瓜). You steal (偷) cars; you go to the prison; a woman throws you in a river. All because you want to drive a car! That is not fun! Think about your friends, your friends are very sad.” Toad tries to look sad. 32．How does Toad feel when he comes into his friend’s house just after the adventures? A．Happy B．Terrible C．Sad D．Angry 33．Toad wants to tell Rat about his adventures ________. A．to make Rat know more about him B．to show he is happy in Rat’s house C．to thank Rat for his help D．to show he is clever 34．Why does Toad feel angry? A．Because Rat wants him to put on some clothes. B．Because Rat asks him why he is in a dry shirt. C．Because Rat doesn’t want to listen to him. D．Because Rat doesn’t like his nice dress. 35．Why doesn’t Rat say a word at lunchtime? A．Because Rat has nothing to say. B．Because Rat is a quiet animal. C．Because Rat is angry with Toad. D．Because Rat is proud of (为……而自豪) Toad. D ①Friends are very important to us. Do you have many friends? If you have many, you’re lucky. If you have a few good friends, you’re lucky. Our best friends can make our lives richer. They can teach us things. They can also challenge us to be better people. ②Good friends can help us stay healthy, too. When we are sick, they often take care of us. Without friends, we feel lonely. Loneliness (孤独) can be as harmful as smoking 15 cigarettes (香烟) a day. So, build up your circle of friends and keep them close. ③Good friends make us more confident (自信). Sometimes we feel bad and have doubts about ourselves. When you feel this way, go to your friends. They’ll be there to make you happy. They will let you know how amazing you are. ④Good friends make us be better people. They challenge us to do better and be better. What’s more, a friend’s good qualities can influence us. For example, if they are friendly and hard-working, you are more likely to be friendly and hard-working, too. 36．You are lucky to have a few good friends because a good friend ________. A．can teach you everything B．can bring better luck to you C．makes you have a lot of money D．helps you become a better person 37．What does “Loneliness can be as harmful as smoking 15 cigarettes a day” mean? A．Having no good friends is bad for our health. B．Having no good friends can feel as bad as smoking. C．Having no good friends may make us want to smoke. D．Having no good friends may cause problems to our lungs (肺). 38．Which of the following is true? A．You can stay healthy without friends. B．You can go to your friends when you feel bad. C．A friend’s good qualities cannot influence us. D．It’s important to make friends with rich people. 39．What is the structure (结构) of this passage? A． B． C． D． 40．Which can be the title (标题) of the text? A．Friends are very important to us. B．How to make many good friends. C．Good friends make us more confident. D．Loneliness can be as harmful as smoking. 第Ⅱ卷 非选择题（满分50分） 四、词汇填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） 根据括号中所给的汉语写出单词，使短文意思完整正确。 I have many new 41 (同学) at my school. These days, I have made a new friend at school. Her name is Lily, and she just moved to our city. She is very 42 (有礼貌的) and she can make everyone happy. We both like many things. We like reading books. Our favourite books are about animals. We want to have our own pets one day. We also like listening to music and playing 43 (网球运动). We 44 (闲聊) with each other at lunchtime every day. She always brings her favourite fruit and shares it with me. After school, we sometimes walk home side by side. When I have problems, she 45 (通常地) listens to me and helps me. I’m happy to have a good friend like her. 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Different people have different hobbies. Hobbies help people 46 (have) fun. Some people love collecting (收藏). They like to collect some interesting things. Some people love writing. They like to tell stories. Some people love dancing. They like to move their bodies. My best friend Lucy enjoys 47 (draw). She would like to become an artist one day. Every Sunday morning, she sits by the window with her coloured pencils. She draws many things like cute rabbits, beautiful flowers and even our classroom. My dad’s hobby is fishing. He often 48 (go) to the lake near our home at weekends. My mother loves gardening. It is full of vegetable plants in the garden. She waters 49 (they) every morning. My hobby is reading and I am 50 (interest) in reading storybooks. I read before bed every night. I can learn a lot from it and it makes me happy. Maybe some people have other hobbies. What are your hobbies? 根据短文内容，从下面方框中选择适当的单词或短语填空，使短文内容完整正确，其中有一项是多余选项。 each other, in the future, brings, greets, at the weekend, matches Every month, Grandma’s family members visit her 51 . When they get there, she 52 them with a big smile, and then cooks dinner and sets the table with care. During the meal, everyone talks happily about the exciting basketball 53 on TV. After dinner, Uncle 54 a cake to share as dessert (甜点). While Grandma and Uncle chat, the cousins play games together—they laugh and run after 55 in the living room. Grandma loves the noise and joy in her house, and the whole family feels warm and happy whenever they are together. each other in the future brings greets at the weekend matches. 五、任务型阅读（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） Alice is a doctor. She lives in London with her husband and her dog. Every day, she wakes up at 7:00, takes a shower, and then makes breakfast. She eats bread and drinks juice with her meal. Then she drives to work. Alice starts work at 9:00. At 11:00, she stops and drinks a black coffee. She stays in her office at lunchtime and eats a sandwich. After she finishes work at 5:00, Alice goes to the gym. She gets home at 6:30. Then she walks her dog in the nearby park. After that, she starts cooking. Dinner is usually pasta and sometimes she has ice-cream for desert. At 10:00, she usually reads for ten minutes, then goes to sleep. Pedro is a student. He lives in Madrid with his mother and his sister. During the week, he gets up at 7:30. At 8:10, he catches a bus to school because his lessons start at 8:45. He has a break at 10:30 and usually eats a biscuit. At lunchtime, he eats soup in the school cafeteria with his friends. Pedro finishes school at 4:00. After school, he plays football and gets home around 5:30. His mother cooks dinner at 7:00. After dinner, Pedro does his homework. After finishing it, he relaxes（放松）himself. He plays video games, has a shower, then gets into bed and watches TV. He goes to sleep at 10:30. Sven is a postman in Stockholm. Sven starts work at 5:30, so he wakes up at 4:45. He doesn’t have time to sit down and eat breakfast, so he usually eats a sandwich on the way to work. He spends the whole morning posting letters. He stops for lunch at 12:00. For lunch, he always eats a salad or a sandwich in the park. Sven finishes work at 3:30. He cooks dinner at 6:00, and he likes eating fish or meat with potatoes best. After dinner, he spends about an hour playing the piano every day. At 8:30, he has a shower. He goes to bed at 9:00. A day in the life Name & Job Everyday 56 Alice—a 57 from London After breakfast Alice goes to work by 58 She works from 9:00 a. m. to 5:00 p. m. . She does sports after 59 in the gym. After she gets home, she takes her dog for a 60 Pedro—a student from Madrid On weekdays, Pedro gets up at 7:30. It takes him 61 half an hour to get to school by bus. After school, he often plays football. After doing his homework, he has a 62 Sven—a postman from Stockholm Sven starts work very 63 He eats breakfast on the way to work and eats lunch in a park. For dinner his 64 food is fish or meat with potatoes. After dinner, he often 65 playing the piano. 六、首字母填空（共 10小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） Tanghulu is a p 66 traditional winter snack in North China. Traditionally, people only use haws to m 67 tanghulu. Haws are put on a thin bamboo stick. Then they are covered w 68 melted sugar. But today, besides haws, fruits such as o 69 , bananas and grapes are used to make it. Tanghulu is so delicious that it is enjoyed by both c 70 and adults! It is regarded by Chinese people as a symbol of happiness and family reunions. Besides, research shows that e 71 tanghulu made of haws can help with digestive (消化) problems. It is said that tanghulu saved the life of an emperor’s wife in the Southern Song Dynasty. She was ill b 72 . A doctor boiled haws with sugar and water for h 73 . She ate them before meals. Several days l 74 , she got well. The news spread to (传播) the public q 75 . Then people started to put the candied haws on a stick. 七、书面表达（满分 15 分） 76．假如你是张贝，英文名叫Mya，请根据表格所提示的要点，用英话一篇自我介绍。 张贝Mya 基本情况 十三岁，阳光中学七年十班 大眼长发，未带眼镜，高而苗条…… 性格特点 对人友善，乐于助人 兴趣爱好 擅长排球，酷爱慢跑，因为…… 科技迷，常参观科学博物馆，闲暇阅读科技类书籍 榜样…… 未来梦想 …… 注意： 1. 表达中必须包含所给的要点，省略号部分可以适当发挥，不要简单翻译。 2. 词数80左右。开头已经给出，不计入总词数。 3. 表达中请勿提及真实姓名。 4. 要秀出你漂亮的英语书写呀！ Hello, everyone! _________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 试题 第7页（共10页） 试题 第8页（共10页） 试题 第1页（共10页） 试题 第2页（共10页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司zxxk.com 学科网（北京）股份有限公司zxxk.com 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026年秋季七年级开学分班·学情自测卷01 英 语 （考试时间：90分钟 试卷满分：90分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 4．考试范围：小学全部内容+新教材译林版七年级上册Units1~2 第Ⅰ卷 选择题（满分40分） 一、小完形填空。(本大题共15小题，每小题1分，共15分) A My mother’s birthday is next week. But I don’t know what to buy for 1 . I ask my father, “Dad, 2 is a good birthday gift for Mom?” “The one she likes,” he says. “Mom 3 strawberries. Oh, I know what to give her,” I say. Today is my mother’s birthday. We have breakfast 4 the morning. Then my parents go out. When they are not in the room, I get some strawberries. 5 I make a bunch of flowers with them. Then I put the strawberry flowers and 6 card in a white box. Some words are on the card. Dear Mom, Happy birthday! This is my gift for you. I want you to be happy every day. Your son, Jack I put the box on the dinner table. Then my mother can 7 it when she comes home. 1．A．her B．she C．him D．he 2．A．how B．what C．when D．where 3．A．fall B．falls C．love D．loves 4．A．in B．on C．at D．with 5．A．Or B．And C．Because D．But 6．A．the B．an C．a D．/ 7．A．see B．look C．watch D．give B When I first walked into my new middle school, my heart was beating (跳动) fast. Everything was so 8 . I missed (想念) my teachers and classmates in my old school very much. I didn’t know anyone. I was 9 and I didn’t know how to start talking to others first. Between classes, I only sat quietly. It was a long day for me. In the last lesson, Miss Chen, our class teacher, asked us to 10 . We needed to do two things. First, we told our 11 to others in a funny way. 12 , we shook (握) hands with our classmates one by one and called their names. 13 the game, some of my new classmates told some interesting things about their names, some made strange sounds, some moved (移动) their arms and legs to show the words. And I told a funny story about my name. We all tried hard to get them right. It was great fun! We 14 very happily. 15 , I got 12 names right! Can you believe it? I won the game and made more than 12 friends that day! 8．A．big B．old C．different D．interesting 9．A．shy B．clever C．kind D．friendly 10．A．do our homework B．write our names C．play a game D．take exercise 11．A．sizes B．names C．places D．numbers 12．A．Second B．Third C．Fourth D．Last 13．A．Before B．After C．When D．During 14．A．laughed B．sang C．danced D．learnt 15．A．Usually B．Quickly C．Finally D．Suddenly 二、完形填空（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） I’m Li Mei. I’m a middle school student. I have a good friend. Her name is Wang Lin. She is 13 years old. We are in the 16 class. She is good at English. She often 17 me with my English. I am good at math. I help her with math. We help each other. Wang Lin has many 18 . She can sing, dance and play the guitar. She wants to join the music club. I can play chess, 19 I want to join the chess club. Sometimes we go to the 20 club together. There we can play chess and listen to music. We also like to 21 stories. Wang Lin can tell stories very well. On weekends, we usually get up 22 8:00. Then we have breakfast. After breakfast, we do our homework. At 11:00, we go to the park. We often 23 there for an hour. In the afternoon, we go to the library. We like reading books. Reading is 24 for us. It helps us to know about the world. At 6:00 in the evening, we go home. We have a good time together. I am happy to have such a good 25 . 16．A．same B．different C．big D．small 17．A．asks B．helps C．teaches D．tells 18．A．hobbies B．lessons C．classes D．clubs 19．A．but B．because C．so D．or 20．A．art B．English C．chess D．music 21．A．write B．tell C．read D．listen 22．A．on B．in C．at D．for 23．A．walk B．run C．play D．stay 24．A．boring B．interesting C．good D．bad 25．A．sister B．teacher C．friend D．classmate 三、阅读理解（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） A Read this travel plan and answer the questions. CAMERON HIGHLANDS TOUR Day One 10:00 pm   Report (报到) at the entrance of Allan Tour Agency 10:30 pm   Leave Singapore for Cameron Highlands (金马伦高地) 12:30 am   Stop for a break at Yong Peng, Malaysia 9:30 am   Reach Cameron Highlands Hotel (free and easy for the rest of the day) Day Two 7:30 am   Breakfast 8:30 am   Gather (集合) at the entrance of Cameron Highlands Hotel 9:00 am   1st Stop—Strawberry farm (Buy freshly picked strawberries or pay a fee (付费) and pick them yourself.) 10:30 am   2nd Stop—Bee farm (Buy freshly gathered honey in bottles.) 12:00 noon   Lunch at mid-mountain village 1:00 pm   3rd Stop—Boh tea farm (Try different kinds of tea. Learn to make tea and buy your favourite tea.) 3:30 pm   Visit a local product shop 4:30 pm   Return to Cameron Highlands Hotel 26．How long does it take to travel from Allan Tour Agency to Cameron Highlands Hotel? A．10 hours. B．10.5 hours. C．11 hours. D．11.5 hours. 27．How many places do the tourists (游客) visit on the second day? A．3. B．4. C．5. D．6. 28．According to the travel plan, the tourists can ________. A．pick fresh strawberries for free B．buy some bottles and play with bees C．have some tea at Boh tea farm D．have lunch at a local product shop B Festivals Dates Activities April Fool’s Day 1st April Young people play tricks on others. Mother’s Day 2nd Sunday in May People give presents and show their love to their mothers. Halloween 31st October Children wear special costumes and masks and play tricks on others. Thanksgiving Day 4th Thursday of November People say thanks to others and have a good meal with their families. Christmas 25th December It’s the biggest festival of the year. People eat dinner together and give presents to each other. 29．Young people or children play tricks on others on ________. A．April Fool’s Day and Christmas Day B．April Fool’s Day and Halloween C．Halloween and Thanksgiving Day D．Halloween and Christmas 30．In America, people ________ on 25th December. A．wear special costumes B．play tricks on others C．say thanks to others D．get presents 31．American people have Mother’s Day because they want to ________. A．have a dinner together B．show their love to their mothers C．say thanks to each other D．play tricks on others C Rat helps Toad into his home. Toad is very happy to be in his friend’s house. “Oh Rat!” he cries, “I want to tell you about my adventures (冒险经历). I am a clever Toad! Prison (监狱), then run away on a train then a horse…” “Toad! You look terrible. Stop boasting (自吹自擂)! And why are you in a dress? Put on some dry clothes. Go!” Toad is angry. But he takes off his dress and puts on dry clothes. He washes his face and he looks in the mirror (镜子) and smiles. “I am a handsome Toad,” he says. Later, Toad and Rat have lunch. Toad eats and tells Rat about his adventures. He talks and talks. But Rat doesn’t say a word. At last Rat says, “Toad, you are an idiot (傻瓜). You steal (偷) cars; you go to the prison; a woman throws you in a river. All because you want to drive a car! That is not fun! Think about your friends, your friends are very sad.” Toad tries to look sad. 32．How does Toad feel when he comes into his friend’s house just after the adventures? A．Happy B．Terrible C．Sad D．Angry 33．Toad wants to tell Rat about his adventures ________. A．to make Rat know more about him B．to show he is happy in Rat’s house C．to thank Rat for his help D．to show he is clever 34．Why does Toad feel angry? A．Because Rat wants him to put on some clothes. B．Because Rat asks him why he is in a dry shirt. C．Because Rat doesn’t want to listen to him. D．Because Rat doesn’t like his nice dress. 35．Why doesn’t Rat say a word at lunchtime? A．Because Rat has nothing to say. B．Because Rat is a quiet animal. C．Because Rat is angry with Toad. D．Because Rat is proud of (为……而自豪) Toad. D ①Friends are very important to us. Do you have many friends? If you have many, you’re lucky. If you have a few good friends, you’re lucky. Our best friends can make our lives richer. They can teach us things. They can also challenge us to be better people. ②Good friends can help us stay healthy, too. When we are sick, they often take care of us. Without friends, we feel lonely. Loneliness (孤独) can be as harmful as smoking 15 cigarettes (香烟) a day. So, build up your circle of friends and keep them close. ③Good friends make us more confident (自信). Sometimes we feel bad and have doubts about ourselves. When you feel this way, go to your friends. They’ll be there to make you happy. They will let you know how amazing you are. ④Good friends make us be better people. They challenge us to do better and be better. What’s more, a friend’s good qualities can influence us. For example, if they are friendly and hard-working, you are more likely to be friendly and hard-working, too. 36．You are lucky to have a few good friends because a good friend ________. A．can teach you everything B．can bring better luck to you C．makes you have a lot of money D．helps you become a better person 37．What does “Loneliness can be as harmful as smoking 15 cigarettes a day” mean? A．Having no good friends is bad for our health. B．Having no good friends can feel as bad as smoking. C．Having no good friends may make us want to smoke. D．Having no good friends may cause problems to our lungs (肺). 38．Which of the following is true? A．You can stay healthy without friends. B．You can go to your friends when you feel bad. C．A friend’s good qualities cannot influence us. D．It’s important to make friends with rich people. 39．What is the structure (结构) of this passage? A． B． C． D． 40．Which can be the title (标题) of the text? A．Friends are very important to us. B．How to make many good friends. C．Good friends make us more confident. D．Loneliness can be as harmful as smoking. 第Ⅱ卷 非选择题（满分50分） 四、词汇填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） 根据括号中所给的汉语写出单词，使短文意思完整正确。 I have many new 41 (同学) at my school. These days, I have made a new friend at school. Her name is Lily, and she just moved to our city. She is very 42 (有礼貌的) and she can make everyone happy. We both like many things. We like reading books. Our favourite books are about animals. We want to have our own pets one day. We also like listening to music and playing 43 (网球运动). We 44 (闲聊) with each other at lunchtime every day. She always brings her favourite fruit and shares it with me. After school, we sometimes walk home side by side. When I have problems, she 45 (通常地) listens to me and helps me. I’m happy to have a good friend like her. 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Different people have different hobbies. Hobbies help people 46 (have) fun. Some people love collecting (收藏). They like to collect some interesting things. Some people love writing. They like to tell stories. Some people love dancing. They like to move their bodies. My best friend Lucy enjoys 47 (draw). She would like to become an artist one day. Every Sunday morning, she sits by the window with her coloured pencils. She draws many things like cute rabbits, beautiful flowers and even our classroom. My dad’s hobby is fishing. He often 48 (go) to the lake near our home at weekends. My mother loves gardening. It is full of vegetable plants in the garden. She waters 49 (they) every morning. My hobby is reading and I am 50 (interest) in reading storybooks. I read before bed every night. I can learn a lot from it and it makes me happy. Maybe some people have other hobbies. What are your hobbies? 根据短文内容，从下面方框中选择适当的单词或短语填空，使短文内容完整正确，其中有一项是多余选项。 each other, in the future, brings, greets, at the weekend, matches Every month, Grandma’s family members visit her 51 . When they get there, she 52 them with a big smile, and then cooks dinner and sets the table with care. During the meal, everyone talks happily about the exciting basketball 53 on TV. After dinner, Uncle 54 a cake to share as dessert (甜点). While Grandma and Uncle chat, the cousins play games together—they laugh and run after 55 in the living room. Grandma loves the noise and joy in her house, and the whole family feels warm and happy whenever they are together. each other in the future brings greets at the weekend matches. 五、任务型阅读（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） Alice is a doctor. She lives in London with her husband and her dog. Every day, she wakes up at 7:00, takes a shower, and then makes breakfast. She eats bread and drinks juice with her meal. Then she drives to work. Alice starts work at 9:00. At 11:00, she stops and drinks a black coffee. She stays in her office at lunchtime and eats a sandwich. After she finishes work at 5:00, Alice goes to the gym. She gets home at 6:30. Then she walks her dog in the nearby park. After that, she starts cooking. Dinner is usually pasta and sometimes she has ice-cream for desert. At 10:00, she usually reads for ten minutes, then goes to sleep. Pedro is a student. He lives in Madrid with his mother and his sister. During the week, he gets up at 7:30. At 8:10, he catches a bus to school because his lessons start at 8:45. He has a break at 10:30 and usually eats a biscuit. At lunchtime, he eats soup in the school cafeteria with his friends. Pedro finishes school at 4:00. After school, he plays football and gets home around 5:30. His mother cooks dinner at 7:00. After dinner, Pedro does his homework. After finishing it, he relaxes（放松）himself. He plays video games, has a shower, then gets into bed and watches TV. He goes to sleep at 10:30. Sven is a postman in Stockholm. Sven starts work at 5:30, so he wakes up at 4:45. He doesn’t have time to sit down and eat breakfast, so he usually eats a sandwich on the way to work. He spends the whole morning posting letters. He stops for lunch at 12:00. For lunch, he always eats a salad or a sandwich in the park. Sven finishes work at 3:30. He cooks dinner at 6:00, and he likes eating fish or meat with potatoes best. After dinner, he spends about an hour playing the piano every day. At 8:30, he has a shower. He goes to bed at 9:00. A day in the life Name & Job Everyday 56 Alice—a 57 from London After breakfast Alice goes to work by 58 She works from 9:00 a. m. to 5:00 p. m. . She does sports after 59 in the gym. After she gets home, she takes her dog for a 60 Pedro—a student from Madrid On weekdays, Pedro gets up at 7:30. It takes him 61 half an hour to get to school by bus. After school, he often plays football. After doing his homework, he has a 62 Sven—a postman from Stockholm Sven starts work very 63 He eats breakfast on the way to work and eats lunch in a park. For dinner his 64 food is fish or meat with potatoes. After dinner, he often 65 playing the piano. 六、首字母填空（共 10小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） Tanghulu is a p 66 traditional winter snack in North China. Traditionally, people only use haws to m 67 tanghulu. Haws are put on a thin bamboo stick. Then they are covered w 68 melted sugar. But today, besides haws, fruits such as o 69 , bananas and grapes are used to make it. Tanghulu is so delicious that it is enjoyed by both c 70 and adults! It is regarded by Chinese people as a symbol of happiness and family reunions. Besides, research shows that e 71 tanghulu made of haws can help with digestive (消化) problems. It is said that tanghulu saved the life of an emperor’s wife in the Southern Song Dynasty. She was ill b 72 . A doctor boiled haws with sugar and water for h 73 . She ate them before meals. Several days l 74 , she got well. The news spread to (传播) the public q 75 . Then people started to put the candied haws on a stick. 七、书面表达（满分 15 分） 76．假如你是张贝，英文名叫Mya，请根据表格所提示的要点，用英话一篇自我介绍。 张贝Mya 基本情况 十三岁，阳光中学七年十班 大眼长发，未带眼镜，高而苗条…… 性格特点 对人友善，乐于助人 兴趣爱好 擅长排球，酷爱慢跑，因为…… 科技迷，常参观科学博物馆，闲暇阅读科技类书籍 榜样…… 未来梦想 …… 注意： 1. 表达中必须包含所给的要点，省略号部分可以适当发挥，不要简单翻译。 2. 词数80左右。开头已经给出，不计入总词数。 3. 表达中请勿提及真实姓名。 4. 要秀出你漂亮的英语书写呀！ Hello, everyone! _________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 试卷第1页，共3页 2 / 10 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026年秋季七年级开学分班·学情自测卷01 英 语 （考试时间：90分钟 试卷满分：90分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 4．考试范围：小学全部内容+新教材译林版七年级上册Units1~2 第Ⅰ卷 选择题（满分40分） 一、小完形填空。(本大题共15小题，每小题1分，共15分) A My mother’s birthday is next week. But I don’t know what to buy for 1 . I ask my father, “Dad, 2 is a good birthday gift for Mom?” “The one she likes,” he says. “Mom 3 strawberries. Oh, I know what to give her,” I say. Today is my mother’s birthday. We have breakfast 4 the morning. Then my parents go out. When they are not in the room, I get some strawberries. 5 I make a bunch of flowers with them. Then I put the strawberry flowers and 6 card in a white box. Some words are on the card. Dear Mom, Happy birthday! This is my gift for you. I want you to be happy every day. Your son, Jack I put the box on the dinner table. Then my mother can 7 it when she comes home. 1．A．her B．she C．him D．he 2．A．how B．what C．when D．where 3．A．fall B．falls C．love D．loves 4．A．in B．on C．at D．with 5．A．Or B．And C．Because D．But 6．A．the B．an C．a D．/ 7．A．see B．look C．watch D．give 【答案】1．A 2．B 3．D 4．A 5．B 6．C 7．A 【导语】本文主要讲述了作者给妈妈准备她喜欢的生日礼物。 【详解】1．句意：但是我不知道买什么给她。 空格前for为介词，后需用人称代词宾格形式。原文可知我要买礼物给妈妈，需用her。 2．句意：给妈妈送什么生日礼物好？ 此处考查特殊疑问句，选择礼物，应用特殊疑问词what。 3．句意：妈妈喜欢草莓。 空格处缺少谓语动词，且前文我询问妈妈送给妈妈比较适合的礼物，可知妈妈喜欢草莓。Mom为主语，句中时态为一般现在时，空格处需用第三人称单数。 4．句意：早上我们吃早餐。 in the morning“在早上”，固定搭配。 5．句意：我还用它们做了一束花。 空格前后为递进关系，需用连词and连接。 6．句意：然后我把草莓花束和一张卡片放进一个白色盒子里。 空格后“card”为以辅音音素开头的可数名词单数，前需用不定冠词a，泛指一张卡片。 7．句意：妈妈回家时就可以看到它了。 前文“I put the box on the dinner table.”说明我把盒子放在餐桌上，想给妈妈一个惊喜，即想让妈妈回家时看到我为她准备的生日礼物。表示“看”的结果需用see。 B When I first walked into my new middle school, my heart was beating (跳动) fast. Everything was so 8 . I missed (想念) my teachers and classmates in my old school very much. I didn’t know anyone. I was 9 and I didn’t know how to start talking to others first. Between classes, I only sat quietly. It was a long day for me. In the last lesson, Miss Chen, our class teacher, asked us to 10 . We needed to do two things. First, we told our 11 to others in a funny way. 12 , we shook (握) hands with our classmates one by one and called their names. 13 the game, some of my new classmates told some interesting things about their names, some made strange sounds, some moved (移动) their arms and legs to show the words. And I told a funny story about my name. We all tried hard to get them right. It was great fun! We 14 very happily. 15 , I got 12 names right! Can you believe it? I won the game and made more than 12 friends that day! 8．A．big B．old C．different D．interesting 9．A．shy B．clever C．kind D．friendly 10．A．do our homework B．write our names C．play a game D．take exercise 11．A．sizes B．names C．places D．numbers 12．A．Second B．Third C．Fourth D．Last 13．A．Before B．After C．When D．During 14．A．laughed B．sang C．danced D．learnt 15．A．Usually B．Quickly C．Finally D．Suddenly 【答案】8．C 9．A 10．C 11．B 12．A 13．D 14．A 15．C 【导语】本文讲述了一名害羞的中学生通过一次有趣的课堂游戏成功融入新环境、克服社交恐惧并结交朋友的故事。 【详解】8．句意：一切都变得如此不同。 big大的；old老的；different不同的；interesting有趣的。根据“When I first walked into my new middle school,”可知，作者第一次走进新学校，所以一切都变得如此不同。故选C。 9．句意：我很害羞，我不知道如何先开始与别人交谈。 shy害羞的；clever聪明的；kind体贴的；friendly友好的。根据“I didn’t know how to start talking to others first.”可知，作者是害羞的。故选A。 10．句意：在最后一节课上，我们的班主任陈老师要求我们玩一个游戏。 do our homework做我们的家庭作业；write our names写我们的名字；play a game玩一个游戏；take exercise做运动。根据“the game”可知，此处指玩一个游戏。故选C。 11．句意：首先，我们以一种有趣的方式告诉别人我们的名字。 sizes尺码；names名字；places地方；numbers数字。根据“we shook (握) hands with our classmates one by one and called their names.”可知，此处指把自己的名字告诉别人。故选B。 12．句意：其次，我们和同学们一一握手，并叫他们的名字。 Second其次，第二；Third第三；Fourth第四；Last最后。根据“First,”可知，“和同学们一一握手，并叫他们的名字”是第二件事。故选A。 13．句意：在游戏期间，我的一些新同学讲述了一些关于他们名字的有趣的事情，一些人发出奇怪的声音，一些人移动他们的胳膊和腿来展示单词。 Before在……之前；After在……之后；When当……时；During在……期间。根据“some of my new classmates told some interesting things about their names, some made strange sounds, some moved (移动) their arms and legs to show the words.”可知，同学们讲名字趣事、发出奇怪声音、移动他们的胳膊和腿来展示单词，这都是在游戏期间发生的。故选D。 14．句意：我们笑得很开心。 laughed笑；sang唱歌；danced跳舞；learnt学习。根据“It was great fun!”可知，游戏很有趣，所以同学们应该是笑了。故选A。 15．句意：最后，我答对了12个名字！ Usually通常；Quickly快速地；Finally最后；Suddenly突然。根据“I got 12 names right!”和上文可知，上文描述了游戏过程，所以“答对12个名字”是游戏结束后的结果，应填Finally。故选C。 二、完形填空（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） I’m Li Mei. I’m a middle school student. I have a good friend. Her name is Wang Lin. She is 13 years old. We are in the 16 class. She is good at English. She often 17 me with my English. I am good at math. I help her with math. We help each other. Wang Lin has many 18 . She can sing, dance and play the guitar. She wants to join the music club. I can play chess, 19 I want to join the chess club. Sometimes we go to the 20 club together. There we can play chess and listen to music. We also like to 21 stories. Wang Lin can tell stories very well. On weekends, we usually get up 22 8:00. Then we have breakfast. After breakfast, we do our homework. At 11:00, we go to the park. We often 23 there for an hour. In the afternoon, we go to the library. We like reading books. Reading is 24 for us. It helps us to know about the world. At 6:00 in the evening, we go home. We have a good time together. I am happy to have such a good 25 . 16．A．same B．different C．big D．small 17．A．asks B．helps C．teaches D．tells 18．A．hobbies B．lessons C．classes D．clubs 19．A．but B．because C．so D．or 20．A．art B．English C．chess D．music 21．A．write B．tell C．read D．listen 22．A．on B．in C．at D．for 23．A．walk B．run C．play D．stay 24．A．boring B．interesting C．good D．bad 25．A．sister B．teacher C．friend D．classmate 【答案】 16．A 17．B 18．A 19．C 20．C 21．B 22．C 23．D 24．C 25．C 【导语】本文主要讲述了作者李梅与好朋友王琳在学习上互相帮助、在兴趣爱好上各有所长，并一起度过愉快周末的故事。 【详解】16．句意：我们在同一个班级。 根据上下文，作者和王琳是好朋友，互相帮助学习，且空格后的class是单数名词，由此推断她们在同一个班级，same意为“相同的”，常与定冠词the连用，符合语境。 17．句意：她经常帮助我学习英语。 后文提到作者和王琳互相帮助，help sb. with sth.意为“在某方面帮助某人”，符合语境，应填helps。 18．句意：王琳有很多爱好。 后文提到王琳会唱歌、跳舞、弹吉他，这些都是爱好，hobbies“爱好”符合语境。 19．句意：我会下国际象棋，所以我想加入国际象棋俱乐部。 前句“I can play chess”和后句“I want to join the chess club”是因果关系，前因后果，应用so“所以”连接。 20．句意：有时我们一起去国际象棋俱乐部。 后文提到作者和王琳在俱乐部里下国际象棋，所以她们一起去的是国际象棋俱乐部，chess“国际象棋”符合语境。 21．句意：我们也喜欢讲故事。 后文提到王琳讲故事讲得很好，因此此处指“喜欢讲故事”，常用tell stories表示“讲故事”。 22．句意：在周末，我们通常在8点起床。 8:00是具体时间点，应用at。on后接具体日期或星期，in后接年、月、季节等，for后接一段时间，均不符合。 23．句意：我们经常在那里待一个小时。 前文已说明“go to the park”，接下来应是描述在公园里的活动。walk there和run there强调“去的方式/过程”，与上下文语义不衔接。play虽可表示“玩耍”，但通常需搭配具体活动或宾语（如 play games）。stay there for an hour意为“在那里待一个小时”，强调时间的度过，不限定具体活动，与前后文时间线衔接顺畅，符合叙述日常安排的表达习惯。 24．句意：阅读对我们有好处。 下文提到阅读帮助我们了解世界，说明阅读是有益的，be good for意为“对……有好处”，符合语境。 25．句意：我很开心拥有这样一位好朋友。 文章开篇已说明王琳是作者的好朋友，首尾呼应，应用friend“朋友”。 三、阅读理解（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） A Read this travel plan and answer the questions. CAMERON HIGHLANDS TOUR Day One 10:00 pm   Report (报到) at the entrance of Allan Tour Agency 10:30 pm   Leave Singapore for Cameron Highlands (金马伦高地) 12:30 am   Stop for a break at Yong Peng, Malaysia 9:30 am   Reach Cameron Highlands Hotel (free and easy for the rest of the day) Day Two 7:30 am   Breakfast 8:30 am   Gather (集合) at the entrance of Cameron Highlands Hotel 9:00 am   1st Stop—Strawberry farm (Buy freshly picked strawberries or pay a fee (付费) and pick them yourself.) 10:30 am   2nd Stop—Bee farm (Buy freshly gathered honey in bottles.) 12:00 noon   Lunch at mid-mountain village 1:00 pm   3rd Stop—Boh tea farm (Try different kinds of tea. Learn to make tea and buy your favourite tea.) 3:30 pm   Visit a local product shop 4:30 pm   Return to Cameron Highlands Hotel 26．How long does it take to travel from Allan Tour Agency to Cameron Highlands Hotel? A．10 hours. B．10.5 hours. C．11 hours. D．11.5 hours. 27．How many places do the tourists (游客) visit on the second day? A．3. B．4. C．5. D．6. 28．According to the travel plan, the tourists can ________. A．pick fresh strawberries for free B．buy some bottles and play with bees C．have some tea at Boh tea farm D．have lunch at a local product shop 【答案】26．C 27．C 28．C 【导语】本文是一篇应用文。详细介绍了金马伦高地两日游的安排，包括出发时间、景点参观和活动内容。 【详解】26．细节理解题。根据“10:30 pm”、“Leave Singapore for Cameron Highlands (金马伦高地)”、“9:30 am”和“Reach Cameron Highlands Hotel (free and easy for the rest of the day)”可知，从晚上10:30到次日早上9:30，是11个小时，即从阿兰旅行社到金马伦高地酒店共耗时11小时。故选C。 27．细节理解题。根据“1st Stop—Strawberry farm”、“2nd Stop—Bee farm”、“Lunch at mid-mountain village”、“3rd Stop—Boh tea farm”和“Visit a local product shop”可知，游客们在第二天参观了5个地点。故选C。 28．细节理解题。根据“3rd Stop—Boh tea farm (Try different kinds of tea. Learn to make tea and buy your favourite tea.)”可知，游客可以在Boh茶园品尝茶。故选C。 B Festivals Dates Activities April Fool’s Day 1st April Young people play tricks on others. Mother’s Day 2nd Sunday in May People give presents and show their love to their mothers. Halloween 31st October Children wear special costumes and masks and play tricks on others. Thanksgiving Day 4th Thursday of November People say thanks to others and have a good meal with their families. Christmas 25th December It’s the biggest festival of the year. People eat dinner together and give presents to each other. 29．Young people or children play tricks on others on ________. A．April Fool’s Day and Christmas Day B．April Fool’s Day and Halloween C．Halloween and Thanksgiving Day D．Halloween and Christmas 30．In America, people ________ on 25th December. A．wear special costumes B．play tricks on others C．say thanks to others D．get presents 31．American people have Mother’s Day because they want to ________. A．have a dinner together B．show their love to their mothers C．say thanks to each other D．play tricks on others 【答案】29．B 30．D 31．B 【导语】本文主要介绍了愚人节、母亲节、万圣节、感恩节和圣诞节这几个节日的日期及相关活动。 【详解】29．根据表格中April Fool’s Day的活动“Young people play tricks on others.”和Halloween的活动“Children... play tricks on others.”可知，愚人节和万圣节都有捉弄别人的活动。 30．根据表格中Christmas的日期“25th December”和活动“give presents to each other”可知，在12月25日人们会互送礼物，即收到礼物。 31．根据表格中Mother’s Day的活动“show their love to their mothers”可知，美国人过母亲节是为了向母亲表达爱意。 C Rat helps Toad into his home. Toad is very happy to be in his friend’s house. “Oh Rat!” he cries, “I want to tell you about my adventures (冒险经历). I am a clever Toad! Prison (监狱), then run away on a train then a horse…” “Toad! You look terrible. Stop boasting (自吹自擂)! And why are you in a dress? Put on some dry clothes. Go!” Toad is angry. But he takes off his dress and puts on dry clothes. He washes his face and he looks in the mirror (镜子) and smiles. “I am a handsome Toad,” he says. Later, Toad and Rat have lunch. Toad eats and tells Rat about his adventures. He talks and talks. But Rat doesn’t say a word. At last Rat says, “Toad, you are an idiot (傻瓜). You steal (偷) cars; you go to the prison; a woman throws you in a river. All because you want to drive a car! That is not fun! Think about your friends, your friends are very sad.” Toad tries to look sad. 32．How does Toad feel when he comes into his friend’s house just after the adventures? A．Happy B．Terrible C．Sad D．Angry 33．Toad wants to tell Rat about his adventures ________. A．to make Rat know more about him B．to show he is happy in Rat’s house C．to thank Rat for his help D．to show he is clever 34．Why does Toad feel angry? A．Because Rat wants him to put on some clothes. B．Because Rat asks him why he is in a dry shirt. C．Because Rat doesn’t want to listen to him. D．Because Rat doesn’t like his nice dress. 35．Why doesn’t Rat say a word at lunchtime? A．Because Rat has nothing to say. B．Because Rat is a quiet animal. C．Because Rat is angry with Toad. D．Because Rat is proud of (为……而自豪) Toad. 【答案】32．A 33．D 34．C 35．C 【导语】本文是一篇寓言故事，节选自《柳林风声》，讲述了一只蟾蜍和河鼠的对话。 【详解】32．细节理解题。根据“Rat helps Toad into his home. Toad is very happy to be in his friend’s house.”可知，蟾蜍很高兴。故选A。 33． 推理判断题。根据“I want to tell you about my adventures (冒险经历). I am a clever Toad! Prison (监狱), then run away on a train then a horse… ”可知，蟾蜍讲述自己的冒险经历，主要是为了向河鼠显摆自己很聪明。故选D。 34．推理判断题。根据“Toad! You look terrible. Stop boasting (自吹自擂)!”可知，蟾蜍对着河鼠夸夸其谈，但是河鼠却没有关注他说的话，所以蟾蜍很生气。故选C。 35． 推理判断题。根据“Toad, you are an idiot (傻瓜). You steal (偷) cars…Think about your friends, your friends are very sad.”可知，蟾蜍洋洋得意地说着自己的冒险经历，但是他的做法让河鼠很担心，河鼠感到生气，所以一言不发。故选C。 D ①Friends are very important to us. Do you have many friends? If you have many, you’re lucky. If you have a few good friends, you’re lucky. Our best friends can make our lives richer. They can teach us things. They can also challenge us to be better people. ②Good friends can help us stay healthy, too. When we are sick, they often take care of us. Without friends, we feel lonely. Loneliness (孤独) can be as harmful as smoking 15 cigarettes (香烟) a day. So, build up your circle of friends and keep them close. ③Good friends make us more confident (自信). Sometimes we feel bad and have doubts about ourselves. When you feel this way, go to your friends. They’ll be there to make you happy. They will let you know how amazing you are. ④Good friends make us be better people. They challenge us to do better and be better. What’s more, a friend’s good qualities can influence us. For example, if they are friendly and hard-working, you are more likely to be friendly and hard-working, too. 36．You are lucky to have a few good friends because a good friend ________. A．can teach you everything B．can bring better luck to you C．makes you have a lot of money D．helps you become a better person 37．What does “Loneliness can be as harmful as smoking 15 cigarettes a day” mean? A．Having no good friends is bad for our health. B．Having no good friends can feel as bad as smoking. C．Having no good friends may make us want to smoke. D．Having no good friends may cause problems to our lungs (肺). 38．Which of the following is true? A．You can stay healthy without friends. B．You can go to your friends when you feel bad. C．A friend’s good qualities cannot influence us. D．It’s important to make friends with rich people. 39．What is the structure (结构) of this passage? A． B． C． D． 40．Which can be the title (标题) of the text? A．Friends are very important to us. B．How to make many good friends. C．Good friends make us more confident. D．Loneliness can be as harmful as smoking. 【答案】36．D 37．A 38．B 39．A 40．A 【导语】本文开篇直接点明朋友对我们十分重要的中心论点，随后分四个段落分层论述好朋友带来的四大益处：丰富生活、有益身心健康、提升自信、督促我们成为更好的人，全文采用总分结构展开论证。 【详解】36．根据第一段“Our best friends can make our lives richer...They can also challenge us to be better people.”可知，拥有挚友能督促我们成为更优秀的人。 37．画线句子的句意：孤独和一天抽15支香烟一样有害。意在说明缺少挚友、长期孤独会损害身体健康，等同于抽烟带来的伤害。B曲解句子含义；C、D文中未提及抽烟欲望与肺部问题，A项符合语境。 38．根据第三段“Sometimes we feel bad and have doubts about ourselves. When you feel this way, go to your friends.”可知，心情低落时可以去找朋友倾诉。 39．通读文章，第①段总起提出核心观点，②③④段分别从健康、自信、自我成长三个角度分述好处，是总分结构。 40．全文围绕“朋友对我们很重要”展开分层论述，B侧重交友方法、C、D只是段落局部细节，不能概括全文主旨，因此A最适合做文章标题。 第Ⅱ卷 非选择题（满分50分） 四、词汇填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） 根据括号中所给的汉语写出单词，使短文意思完整正确。 I have many new 41 (同学) at my school. These days, I have made a new friend at school. Her name is Lily, and she just moved to our city. She is very 42 (有礼貌的) and she can make everyone happy. We both like many things. We like reading books. Our favourite books are about animals. We want to have our own pets one day. We also like listening to music and playing 43 (网球运动). We 44 (闲聊) with each other at lunchtime every day. She always brings her favourite fruit and shares it with me. After school, we sometimes walk home side by side. When I have problems, she 45 (通常地) listens to me and helps me. I’m happy to have a good friend like her. 【答案】41．classmates 42．polite 43．tennis 44．chat 45．usually 【导语】本文主要介绍了作者在学校结识了刚搬到本市的新朋友莉莉，两人有着共同爱好，每天午餐时会互相闲聊，莉莉不仅有礼貌、乐于分享，还会在作者遇到困难时倾听并提供帮助，作者为能拥有这样一位好朋友而感到开心。 【详解】41．句意：我在学校有很多新同学。根据所给汉语提示可知，“同学”classmate，根据“many”可知，此处应用复数形式。故填classmates。 42．句意：她非常有礼貌，还能让每个人都开心。根据所给汉语提示可知，“有礼貌的”polite，形容词作表语。故填polite。 43．句意：我们还喜欢听音乐和打网球。根据所给汉语提示可知，“网球运动”tennis，play tennis“打网球”。故填tennis。 44．句意：我们每天午餐时间都会互相闲聊。根据所给汉语提示可知，“闲聊”chat，根据时间状语“every day”可知，本句为一般现在时，且主语We表示复数，动词使用原形。故填chat。 45．句意：当我有问题时，她通常会倾听我的诉说并帮助我。根据所给汉语提示可知，“通常地”usually，频度副词。故填usually。 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Different people have different hobbies. Hobbies help people 46 (have) fun. Some people love collecting (收藏). They like to collect some interesting things. Some people love writing. They like to tell stories. Some people love dancing. They like to move their bodies. My best friend Lucy enjoys 47 (draw). She would like to become an artist one day. Every Sunday morning, she sits by the window with her coloured pencils. She draws many things like cute rabbits, beautiful flowers and even our classroom. My dad’s hobby is fishing. He often 48 (go) to the lake near our home at weekends. My mother loves gardening. It is full of vegetable plants in the garden. She waters 49 (they) every morning. My hobby is reading and I am 50 (interest) in reading storybooks. I read before bed every night. I can learn a lot from it and it makes me happy. Maybe some people have other hobbies. What are your hobbies? 【答案】46．have/to have 47．drawing 48．goes 49．them 50．interested 【导语】本文介绍了作者和家人、朋友的不同爱好。 【详解】46．句意：爱好帮助人们获得乐趣。根据“help”可知用“help sb. (to) do sth.”的结构，“have”用动词原形或者“to have”。故填have/to have。 47．句意：我最好的朋友露西喜爱画画。根据“enjoys”可知后面用动名词形式，“draw”的动名词形式是“drawing”。故填drawing。 48．句意：他经常周末去我们家附近的湖边。根据“often”可知句子是一般现在时态，主语“He”是第三人称单数，动词“go”用三单形式“goes”。故填goes。 49．句意：她每天早上给它们浇水。根据动词“waters”可知后面用人称代词宾格，“they”的宾格是“them”。故填them。 50．句意：我爱好阅读，我对读故事感兴趣。根据“My hobby is reading”可知后面需表达“对什么感兴趣”，固定搭配“be interested in...”符合题意。故填interested。 根据短文内容，从下面方框中选择适当的单词或短语填空，使短文内容完整正确，其中有一项是多余选项。 each other, in the future, brings, greets, at the weekend, matches Every month, Grandma’s family members visit her 51 . When they get there, she 52 them with a big smile, and then cooks dinner and sets the table with care. During the meal, everyone talks happily about the exciting basketball 53 on TV. After dinner, Uncle 54 a cake to share as dessert (甜点). While Grandma and Uncle chat, the cousins play games together—they laugh and run after 55 in the living room. Grandma loves the noise and joy in her house, and the whole family feels warm and happy whenever they are together. each other in the future brings greets at the weekend matches. 【答案】51．at the weekend 52．greets 53．matches 54．brings 55．each other 【导语】本文是一篇记叙文，描写了奶奶一家每月团聚的温馨场景：周末齐聚、笑脸相迎、边吃边看球赛、分享蛋糕、孩子们追逐嬉戏，其乐融融。 51．句意：每个月，奶奶的家人都在周末去看望她。根据“Every month”及常识可知，每个月的周末会去看望奶奶，“在周末”是at the weekend。故填at the weekend。 52．句意：当他们到达那里时，她微笑着迎接他们，然后精心准备晚餐并摆好桌子。根据“them with a big smile”可知，是微笑着迎接他们，greet“迎接”，句子是一般现在时，主语是第三人称单数，动词用三单形式。故填greets。 53．句意：用餐时，每个人都愉快地谈论着电视上精彩的篮球比赛。根据“the exciting basketball...on TV”可知，此处指电视上的篮球比赛，match“比赛”，结合“everyone”可知，此处名词用复数形式。故填matches。 54．句意：晚饭后，叔叔带了一个蛋糕作为甜点分享。根据“a cake to share as dessert”可知，是带来了一个蛋糕，bring“带来”，句子是一般现在时，主语是第三人称单数，动词用三单形式。故填brings。 55．句意：当奶奶和叔叔聊天时，表兄妹们一起玩游戏——他们在客厅里笑着互相追逐。根据“they laugh and run after...”可知，此处指互相追逐，each other“互相”。故填each other。 五、任务型阅读（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） Alice is a doctor. She lives in London with her husband and her dog. Every day, she wakes up at 7:00, takes a shower, and then makes breakfast. She eats bread and drinks juice with her meal. Then she drives to work. Alice starts work at 9:00. At 11:00, she stops and drinks a black coffee. She stays in her office at lunchtime and eats a sandwich. After she finishes work at 5:00, Alice goes to the gym. She gets home at 6:30. Then she walks her dog in the nearby park. After that, she starts cooking. Dinner is usually pasta and sometimes she has ice-cream for desert. At 10:00, she usually reads for ten minutes, then goes to sleep. Pedro is a student. He lives in Madrid with his mother and his sister. During the week, he gets up at 7:30. At 8:10, he catches a bus to school because his lessons start at 8:45. He has a break at 10:30 and usually eats a biscuit. At lunchtime, he eats soup in the school cafeteria with his friends. Pedro finishes school at 4:00. After school, he plays football and gets home around 5:30. His mother cooks dinner at 7:00. After dinner, Pedro does his homework. After finishing it, he relaxes（放松）himself. He plays video games, has a shower, then gets into bed and watches TV. He goes to sleep at 10:30. Sven is a postman in Stockholm. Sven starts work at 5:30, so he wakes up at 4:45. He doesn’t have time to sit down and eat breakfast, so he usually eats a sandwich on the way to work. He spends the whole morning posting letters. He stops for lunch at 12:00. For lunch, he always eats a salad or a sandwich in the park. Sven finishes work at 3:30. He cooks dinner at 6:00, and he likes eating fish or meat with potatoes best. After dinner, he spends about an hour playing the piano every day. At 8:30, he has a shower. He goes to bed at 9:00. A day in the life Name & Job Everyday 56 Alice—a 57 from London After breakfast Alice goes to work by 58 She works from 9:00 a. m. to 5:00 p. m. . She does sports after 59 in the gym. After she gets home, she takes her dog for a 60 Pedro—a student from Madrid On weekdays, Pedro gets up at 7:30. It takes him 61 half an hour to get to school by bus. After school, he often plays football. After doing his homework, he has a 62 Sven—a postman from Stockholm Sven starts work very 63 He eats breakfast on the way to work and eats lunch in a park. For dinner his 64 food is fish or meat with potatoes. After dinner, he often 65 playing the piano. 【答案】 56．activities 57．doctor 58．car 59．work 60．walk 61．about 62．rest 63．early 64．favourite/favorite 65．practises 【导语】本文主要介绍了Alice，Pedro和Sven的日常生活。 【详解】56．通读全文可知，介绍三个人的日常活动，故填activities。 57．根据“Alice is a doctor.”可知，Alice是一名医生，故填doctor。 58．根据“Then she drives to work.”可知，她开车去上班，by car“开车”，故填car。 59．根据“After she finishes work at 5:00, Alice goes to the gym.”可知，下班后在去健身房，work“工作”，是不可数名词，故填work。 60．根据“Then she walks her dog in the nearby park.”可知，带狗去散步，take her dog for a walk“带着她的狗去散步”，故填walk。 61．根据“At 8:10, he catches a bus to school because his lessons start at 8:45.”可知，8:10坐车去学校，课程是8:45开始，由此可推断坐公交车去学校要花费大约半个小时，故填about。 62．根据“After dinner, Pedro does his homework. After finishing it, he relaxes（放松）himself.”可知，完成作业后，他休息一会，放松一下，have a rest“休息一下”，故填rest。 63．根据“Sven starts work at 5:30, so he wakes up at 4:45.”可知，5:30就要开始工作，所以工作很早，early“早”，故填early。 64．根据“He cooks dinner at 6:00, and he likes eating fish or meat with potatoes best.”可知，最喜欢吃鱼或肉配土豆，favourite/favorite“最喜欢的”，故填favourite/favorite。 65．根据“After dinner, he spends about an hour playing the piano every day.”可知，晚饭后，他练习弹钢琴，practise doing sth“练习做某事”，此句是一般现在时，he是第三人称单数形式，动词用三单，故填practises。 六、首字母填空（共 10小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） Tanghulu is a p 66 traditional winter snack in North China. Traditionally, people only use haws to m 67 tanghulu. Haws are put on a thin bamboo stick. Then they are covered w 68 melted sugar. But today, besides haws, fruits such as o 69 , bananas and grapes are used to make it. Tanghulu is so delicious that it is enjoyed by both c 70 and adults! It is regarded by Chinese people as a symbol of happiness and family reunions. Besides, research shows that e 71 tanghulu made of haws can help with digestive (消化) problems. It is said that tanghulu saved the life of an emperor’s wife in the Southern Song Dynasty. She was ill b 72 . A doctor boiled haws with sugar and water for h 73 . She ate them before meals. Several days l 74 , she got well. The news spread to (传播) the public q 75 . Then people started to put the candied haws on a stick. 【答案】 66．(p)opular 67．(m)ake 68．(w)ith 69．(o)ranges 70．(c)hildren 71．(e)ating 72．(b)adly 73．(h)er 74．(l)ater 75．(q)uickly 【导语】本文介绍了北方的传统小吃糖葫芦。 【详解】66．句意：糖葫芦是中国北方流行的传统冬季小吃。根据“traditional winter snack in North China”以及首字母提示，此处应该说是中国北方流行的传统冬季小吃，popular“流行的”，作定语。故填(p)opular。 67．句意：传统上，人们只用山楂制作糖葫芦。根据“use haws to…tanghulu”及首字母提示，此处需填表示“制作”的动词，make“制作”，设空处前是不定式符号to，接动词原形。故填(m)ake。 68．句意：然后它们被裹上融化的糖。根据“covered…melted sugar”及首字母提示，考查固定搭配“be covered with”，意为“被覆盖”，故填(w)ith。 69．句意：但如今，除山楂外，橙子、香蕉和葡萄等水果也被用来制作它。根据“fruits such as…”及首字母提示，此处需填一种水果的复数形式，oranges“橙子”符合题意。故填(o)ranges。 70．句意：糖葫芦如此美味，深受儿童和成人喜爱！根据“both…and adults”及首字母提示，此处需填与“adults”对应的群体，children“孩子们”符合题意。故填(c)hildren。 71．句意：此外，研究表明食用山楂制成的糖葫芦有助于消化问题。根据“research shows that…tanghulu”及首字母提示，此处需填动名词作主语，表示“食用”，eating“吃”符合语境。故填(e)ating。 72．句意：她病得很重。根据“She was ill…”及首字母提示，此处需填副词修饰“ill”，badly表示“严重地”。故填(b)adly。 73．句意：医生用糖和水煮山楂给她吃。根据“boiled haws…for…”及首字母提示，此处指给“她”，“for”为介词，人称代词宾格her“她”符合语境。故填(h)er。 74．句意：几天后，她康复了。根据“Several days…”及首字母提示，考查固定搭配“several days later”，意为“几天后”。故填(l)ater。 75．句意：消息很快传开了。根据“spread to the public…”及首字母提示，此处需填副词quickly，表示“迅速地”，修饰动词“spread”。故填(q)uickly。 七、书面表达（满分 15 分） 76．假如你是张贝，英文名叫Mya，请根据表格所提示的要点，用英话一篇自我介绍。 张贝Mya 基本情况 十三岁，阳光中学七年十班 大眼长发，未带眼镜，高而苗条…… 性格特点 对人友善，乐于助人 兴趣爱好 擅长排球，酷爱慢跑，因为…… 科技迷，常参观科学博物馆，闲暇阅读科技类书籍 榜样…… 未来梦想 …… 注意： 1. 表达中必须包含所给的要点，省略号部分可以适当发挥，不要简单翻译。 2. 词数80左右。开头已经给出，不计入总词数。 3. 表达中请勿提及真实姓名。 4. 要秀出你漂亮的英语书写呀！ Hello, everyone! _________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】例文 Hello, everyone! I am Zhang Bei. My English name is Mya. I’m 13 and study in Class 10, Grade 7, at Sunshine Middle School. I have big eyes and long hair. I don’t wear glasses, and I’m tall and slim. I’m friendly and always ready to help others. I enjoy playing volleyball and jogging because they help me stay healthy. I also enjoy technology. I often visit science museums and like reading science books in my free time. My role model is my science teacher. In the future, I want to be a scientist. 【详解】［总体分析］ ①题材：本文是一篇材料作文； ②时态：时态为“一般现在时”； ③提示：写作要点已给出，考生应注意不要遗漏题目要求中每一项内容，适当添加细节，并突出写作重点。 ［写作步骤］ 第一步，表明写作意图。以问候语开篇，介绍自己的中文名、英文名、年龄、就读学校及班级，同时描述外貌特征； 第二步，具体阐述个人特质。先说明自己的性格，再介绍兴趣爱好，并提及自己的榜样； 第三步，书写结语。介绍自己未来的梦想。 ［亮点词汇］ ①be ready to help others 乐于助人 ②stay healthy保持健康 ③science museums 科学博物馆 ④role model 榜样 ［高分句型］ I enjoy playing volleyball and jogging because they help me stay healthy.（because引导的原因状语从句） 试卷第1页，共3页 2 / 10 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $■■■■ 2026年秋季七年级开学分班·学情自测卷01 英语·答题卡 姓 名： 缺考 条码粘贴处 准考证号： 标记 注意事项 1.答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚，并认真检查监考员所粘贴的条形码。 2. 选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂；非选择题必须用0.5m黑色字迹的签字笔填写，字体工整。 3.请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答，超出答题区域范围的答案无效，在草纸、试卷上作答无效。 4.保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。 5.正确填涂■ 选择题（请用2B铅笔填涂） 一、 小完型填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 1.[A][B][C][D] 6.[AJ[B][C][D] 11.[AJ[B][C][D] 2.JA][BIICIID] 7.[A][B][C][D] 12.[A][BJ[C][D] 3.[A][B][C][D] 8.[A][B][C][D] 13.[A][B][C][D] 4.A][B][C][D] 9.[A][B][C][D] 14.[A][B][C1[D] 5.[A][B][C]ID] 10.A][B][C][D] 15.[A][B][C][D] 二、完形填空（共10小题：每小题1分，满分10分） 16.[A][B][C][D] 21.A][B][C][D] 17.[A][B][C][D] 22.[A][B][CJ[D] 18.[A][B][C][D] 23.[A][B][C][D] 19.[A][B][C][D] 24.[A][B][C][D] 20.[AJ[B][CJ[D] 25.[A][B][CJ[D] 三、 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 26.[A][B][C][D] 31.[A][B][C][D] 36.[A][B][C][D] 27.[A][B][C][D] 32.[AJ[B][CJ[D] 37.[A][B][cJ[D] 28.[A][B][C][D] 33.[A][B][C][D] 38.[A][B][C][D] 29.[A][B][C][D] 34.[A][B][C][D] 39.[A][B][C][D] 30.[A][B][C][D] 35.[A][B][C][D] 40.[A][B][C][D] 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 英语第1页（共2页） 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 非选择题（请在各试题的答题区内作答） 四、词汇填空（共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分） 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 五、任务型填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 56. 57 58. 59 60. 61. 62 63. 64. 65. 六、首字母型填空（共10小题：每小题1分，满分10分） 66. 67. 68. 69 70. 71 72 73 74. 75 六、书面表达（满分15分） 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 英语第2页（共2页）2026年秋季七年级开学分班·学情自测卷01 英语·答题卡 姓 名： 缺考 条 码粘贴 处 准 考 注意事项 1.答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚，并认真检查监考员所粘贴的条形码 2. 选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂；非选择题必须用0.5黑色字迹的签字笔填写，字体工整。 3. 请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答，超出答题区域范围的答案无效，在草纸、试卷上作答无效。 4. 保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。 5. 正确填涂■ 选择题（请用2B铅笔填涂） 一、 小完型填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 6.A1[B1[C1[D 11.JA1[B1[C1[D1 2.[A][B][C D > TA1「B1「C1 [D 12.A][B][C][D] 3.IA1B1「C 8 [B1[C1[D 13.[A1[B1「C1[D1 4.A1[B1「C1 9.JA1[B1「C1「D 14.[A1「B1「C1「D1 5.IAl[B][C][D 10.A1「B1[C1「D 15.[A][B][C][D] 二、 完形填空（共10小题：每小题1分，满分10分) 16.[A1「B1「C1[D 21.A1[B1[C1「D 17.A]IB]IC]ID 22.[A][B][C][D 18 23.[A][B][C][D 19.[A][B1 24.[A][B][C][D 20.[A1「B1「C1D 25.[A][B][C]ID 三、阅读理解（共15小题； 每小题1分，满分15分) 26.[A1[B D 36.[A]IB]ICIID] 27 D 32. A 「B D 37.A1「B1「C1[D 28. D 33. A] [B c 38.[A][B][C][D 29. A B C D 34. [B 39.[A1「B1「C1「D1 30.[A] D 35.iA1[B [D 40.[A][B][C][Dj 请在各题目的答题区域爽售第1贽出墨赁形边框限定区域的答案无效： 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 非选择题（请在各试题的答题区内作答） 四、词汇填空（共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分） 41. 42 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55 五、任务型填空（共10小题：每小题1分，满分10分） 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64 65 六、首字母型填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 11. 72. 73. 74. 75. 六、书面表达（满分15分） 请在各题日的答题匹城内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效 英语第2页（共2页)