内容正文:
2025 — 2026 学年度第二学期期末学业质量测试
高中英语试题
注意事项:
1.本试卷分听力和笔试两部分。考生先作答听力部分(1-20 小题),然后作答笔试部分(21小题开始)。答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名和考生号填写清楚,将条形码准确粘贴在相应位置。本试卷满分150 分,考试时间 120 分钟。
2.考生将听力部分答案写在英语听力答题卡上,笔试部分答案写在英语笔试试题卡上。写在试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节(共 5小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 7.5分)
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
例: How much is the shirt?
A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.
答案是 C.
1. What is the woman looking for?
A. A post office. B. A bookstore. C. A coffee shop.
2. When will the project be finished?
A. This Friday. B. Next Monday. C. Next Wednesday.
3. What does the man like about the new apartment?
A. Its design. B. Its location. C. Its yard.
4. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Doctor and patient. B. Coach and athlete. C. Teacher and student.
5. Where are the speakers?
A. In a cinema. B. In a hotel. C. In a restaurant.
第二节(共 15 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料,回答第 6、7 题。
6. What is the man’s original plan for the weekend?
A. To repair his car.
B. To paint the fence.
C. To go on a hike.
7. What does the woman remind the man to do?
A. Buy some tools. B. Check the weather. C. Order some pizza.
听第 7 段材料,回答第 8 至 10 题。
8. What did David do last night?
A. He stayed late working.
B. He watched a football match.
C. He helped the woman with a report.
9. How does David feel about the outcome?
A. Disappointed. B. Surprised. C. Calm.
10. What will the speakers do next?
A. Have lunch. B. Discuss the details. C. Attend a meeting.
听第 8 段材料,回答第 11 至 13 题。
11. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. Travel experiences. B. Language learning. C. Career planning.
12. What did the man do in Spain last summer?
A. He attended a summer school.
B. He worked as a translator.
C. He visited his relative.
13. What is the man’s suggestion for the woman?
A. Listening to some talk shows. B. Watching Spanish movies. C. Joining a local club.
听第 9 段材料,回答第 14 至 16 题。
14. What does the woman come for?
A. Modern photography. B. Oil paintings. C. Ancient sculptures.
15. How can students enter for free?
A. By reserving online.
B. By showing the student ID.
C. By booking in advance.
16. What does the man say about the gift shop?
A. It offers discounts today.
B. It mainly sells postcards.
C. It is currently closed.
听第 10 段材料,回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. Why is the speaker giving the talk?
A. To introduce her job.
B. To announce a competition.
C. To give a warm welcome.
18. What was the speaker’s first job at the center?
A. Cleaning the cages.
B. Feeding the animals.
C. Answering the phones.
19. How many hours are volunteers expected to work a week?
A. At least 4 hours. B. At least 6 hours. C. At least 8 hours.
20. What does the speaker think of the work?
A. It’s tiring but rewarding.
B. It’s simple but flexible.
C. It’s easy and interesting.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分 50 分)
第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 37.5 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
The Adroit Journal Annual Poetry Prize: Celebrating Poetic Creativity
The Adroit Journal is excited to announce the start of our annual poetry prize, an opportunity to support both emerging and established poets. With a long history of championing literary talent, we are eager to discover new voices and share them with our readers.
Prizes and Recognition:
First-Place Winner: The top poet will receive a $1,000 prize and the honor of having his / her work published in The Adroit Journal.
Honorable Mentions: Up to three honorable mentions will each receive $200 and publication chance.
Additional Publication Opportunities: All entries will be considered for publication in the journal. Published poets will receive a standard writer’s reward of $40.
Submission Guidelines:
Submission Period: The Adroit Journal will accept contest submissions from January 1 through May 12, 2026. Finalists will be contacted in June 2026. Winners will be announced publicly and published by July 2026.
Requirements: Submit up to 5 poems per entry, combined into a single document of no more than 10 pages. Poems must contain only the poem title(s) and poem(s) without the author’s name or contact information. Poems with special layout may not be published.
Multiple Submissions: Writers may submit multiple groups of poems, but each entry requires a $15 submission fee.
Judging Criteria:
Our respectable judges will evaluate submissions based on creativity, originality, and the emotional impact of the work. We seek to publish the single best poem or set of 2-3 poems that resonate (引起共鸣) deeply with readers. AI-generated work will not be considered for any prize.
How to Enter:
To participate, visit our website to submit your best poems. Ensure your submission meets the guidelines. We look forward to celebrating poetry with you.
21. How much does a poet earn with an honorable mention and a published poem?
A. $40.
B. $200.
C. $240.
D. $1,000.
22. Which of the following could be a qualified entry?
A. Six poems with more than ten pages.
B. Special laid-out poems hard to publish.
C. Works with the writer’s real name and address.
D. Standard poems submitted on time.
23. According to Judging Criteria, what kind of works will NOT be considered for any prize?
A. Poems composed by AI. B. Sets of 2-3 poems.
C. Single creative poems. D. Works with deep emotional impact.
B
Now an occupational college teacher, 20-year-old Shao Rupeng won China’s first joinery gold at the 2022 WorldSkills Competition and was honored as a “Shanghai Craftsman” in 2025.
Shao’s fascination with woodworking began in his childhood. In 2018, Shao began studying construction engineering at Shanghai City Science and Technology School. He joined the school’s woodworking club. The initial training was basic and repetitive, involving day after day of cutting straight lines and carving mortises (榫眼). His effort paid off. After six months of basic training, Shao stood out among 35 students and was selected for the school’s elite team for the WorldSkills competitions.
In the competition team, Shao gradually got familiar with dozens of tools and practiced new high-standard techniques every day.
One of the biggest challenges Shao faced was perfecting the precision of traditional Chinese sunmao joints. This technique requires that the gap between two wooden pieces be less than 0.2 millimeters. “If even the measurement of one part is off, it affects the entire piece,” he explained.
Shao also paid much attention to the internal structure of his work, striving to make it as perfect as the 3D models created in software.
His pursuit of perfection won him top marks and the competition’s woodworking gold medal at the WorldSkills Competition 2022 Special Edition.
At the end of 2022, Shao transitioned from being a student to a coach at his school. “It’s difficult to teach the ‘feel’ of woodworking,” Shao said. “I can only instruct them on the methods — the rest they must learn through practice.”
While Shao encourages his students to make good use of modern technology to handle repetitive tasks, he stresses that it is human creativity that “transforms a piece of wood into something truly unique”.
“Craftsmanship can be described with many positive words, but for me, it’s all about creating with your hands,” he said.
24. What does the underlined word “elite” in paragraph 2 mean?
A. common. B. united. C. outstanding. D. amateur.
25. What major obstacle did Shao encounter for the world competitions in the team?
A. Learning to use hundreds of different tools.
B. Keeping the accuracy of wooden joints.
C. Creating lifelike 3D models with software.
D. Teaching students the sense of woodworking.
26. What can we conclude from Shao’s words on teaching woodworking?
A. Technology outweighs creative thinking in woodwork.
B. Precise skills help create unique wooden works.
C. Practical experience matters to grasp woodworking sense.
D. Coaches can pass on all woodworking skills in class.
27. What can be the best title for the passage?
A. Carving His Way to Gold B. Mastering Ancient Wooden Joints
C. Making Good Use of Modern Tools D. Passing Down Woodworking Skills
C
As the 2026 FIFA World Cup kicked off across the United States, Canada and Mexico, another competition has been quietly emerging — off the field. Several Chinese large language models including Qwen, DeepSeek and Kimi have stepped up to predict match results, turning the world’s largest sporting event into an unexpected testing ground for AI-powered reasoning and data analysis.
Several AI platforms have come up with creative campaigns. For instance, Moonshot AI’s Kimi has launched a 1-trillion-token reward for correctly predict match winners and the final champion.
However, the World Cup has also exposed the limitations of current AI models when it comes to analyzing and predicting the results of sporting events. For example, before the Group C match between Brazil and Morocco, major-large language models confidently predicted a Brazilian victory, based on historical records and data. The match ended in a 1-1 draw.
“As one of the most-watched sporting events across the globe, the World Cup offers AI companies a rare opportunity to showcase the computing power and analytical skills to a wider audience, but soccer matches are influenced by many factors in the physical world, and such variables (变量) are highly uncertain and difficult to quantify using fixed AI models, making precise predictions challenging.” said Guo Tao, a member of the Chinese Association for Artificial Intelligence and a senior expert in AI.
Asked why tech companies are rolling out AI prediction features for sports when the accuracy rate is relatively low, experts said the trend partly reflects the growing pressure of competition across the industry.
While artificial intelligence has grown extremely powerful in the digital world, the physical world — with all its unpredictability — remains largely beyond its reach. As the AI technology matures, simply competing on the size parameter (参数) is not enough, so the market should pay less attention to how large a model is and more attention to whether it can deliver valuable services in real-world situations and solve practical problems for users.
28. Why is the 2026 FIFA World Cup seen as “an unexpected testing ground” for AI?
A. It lets AI platforms test match prediction.
B. It is a big sports event hosted by three nations.
C. It provides big rewards for new AI models.
D. It helps AI correct sports data errors.
29. What can be learned from the Brazil-Morocco match result?
A. Most football games end in draws unexpectedly.
B. AI fails to collect enough sports statistics.
C. Statistical data mean nothing to match analysis.
D. Historical data cannot guarantee accurate predictions.
30. What is Guo Tao’s attitude toward AI’s ability to predict sports events?
A. optimistic B. skeptical C. disapproving D. objective
31. What can we infer from the last paragraph?
A. AI can predict all real-world events accurately.
B. Big AI models are useless in modern market.
C. Practical service ability for AI matters more.
D. Model size still decides an AI model’s value.
D
New research has found that scientists studying sea-level rise have been using methods that underestimate how high the water already is. One result is that hundreds of millions more people worldwide are already living dangerously close to the rising ocean than previously estimated.
The study, published in Nature, shows that coastal sea levels are on average eight inches to a foot higher than many global maps and models suggest. The differences are especially large in Southeast Asia and Pacific nations. Scientists have often been working from the wrong starting point when calculating what land and populations might be affected in the future.
That matters as policymakers turn to science to understand how much land and how many people may be affected as the world warms and oceans rise. The new study has identified far-reaching problems in the method that researchers often use to understand coastlines and how they might change in a warming climate. It checked 385 other papers and found that less than 1 percent had correctly assessed where sea levels are today.
For decades, scientists have used a satellite-based gravitational-field model. However, other instruments can measure real sea level and reveal local differences from factors like currents, winds and tides, which can also influence sea levels but are not included in the gravitational-field model. Scientists can most accurately estimate sea level when both pieces of the puzzle are combined correctly.
But the study found that hasn’t been the case. Some 90 percent of the studies relied only on the gravitational-field method. Another 9 percent used both kinds of data but failed to combine them properly.
It was 10 years ago, on the shores of the Mekong delta in Southern Vietnam, where Dr. Minderhoud, the senior author of the paper, first realized there may be a difference. He said the study shows that methods of studying sea level rise that seemed to work relatively well for coastlines in Europe or the United States led to bigger gaps in other parts of the world.
Torbjorn Tornqvist, a professor at Tulane University who was not involved with the study, said the findings were a real “wake up call” with wide implications.
32. Why is the research finding of great importance?
A. It helps improve technologies of measuring sea levels.
B. It has persuaded scientists to change research methods.
C. It explains why sea levels keep rising around the world.
D. It offers policymakers more reliable scientific evidence.
33. What is the big problem with the commonly used method?
A. It relies on invalid data.
B. It leaves out real local factors.
C. It overestimates the risks.
D. It ignores the effect of global warming.
34. What can be inferred from Dr. Minderhoud’s experience in Vietnam?
A. Local observations are less reliable than satellite data.
B. Methods used in Europe may not apply well globally.
C. The Mekong delta is the most threatened coastal area.
D. Scientists need longer time to detect sea-level changes.
35. What’s the purpose of the passage?
A. To present a new research finding
B. To warn of climate change dangers
C. To explain sea-level rising reasons
D. To praise satellite research models
第二节(共 5小题;每小题 2.5分,满分 12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How To Kick The Habit of Eating Processed Foods For Good?
Basically, we all need a total sweetness reset in everything that we consume. “What I advocate is making small changes to your behaviors and reducing the amount of sugar in your diet systematically,” says Avena. “ 36 People who go cold turkey (突然戒除) may experience headaches, anxiety, sleeplessness and intense cravings”.
Follow these expert-approved tips to get you on the right track:
• DO avoid processed foods. “Avoiding processed foods greatly reduce risk for obesity and other diseases,” says Van Horn. Processed foods tend to be items that include ten or more ingredients, often with some you can’t find in your kitchen. 37
• DO read food labels. It’s important to read ingredient lists carefully and watch for different names of sugar. “There are 50-plus names for sugar,” says McBurnett. “It can get very confusing.” 38 And when you’re scanning the nutrition facts panel, a daily value (DV) of added sugar is acceptable between 5 percent and 20 percent.
• 39 Naturally occurring sugars found in milk, fruits and vegetables, are nutritious. All this isn’t to say that you will never again enjoy another slice of birthday cake or an ice-cold drink at the cinema. Your goal doesn’t have to be going completely sugar-free.
“Maybe you just want to get to a point where you feel you are at a comfortable level of consumption — as if you’re in control,” says Avena. 40
A. DON’T avoid everything sweet.
B. DO refuse all the processed foods.
C. As a general rule, if it’s an ingredient that ends in ose, it’s sugar.
D. Some research has linked processed foods to negative health outcomes.
E. Instead, healthy foods are usually the whole foods you can prepare at home.
F. But over time, consuming less added sugar is bound to actually make your life sweeter.
G. Doing this slowly, over time, is the best approach to avoiding withdrawal symptoms.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Bunny Shaw collects all the old football boots her Manchester City teammates don’t want. As Jamaica’s top goal scorer, she can easily 41 any boots she wants, but she knows that many young Jamaicans don’t have money, so whenever she goes back, she 42 those top-quality secondhand boots as 43 in local female football competitions.
Born in 1997 in Spanish Town, Khadija Shaw was the youngest of 13 children. One of her older brothers used “Bunny” as her 44 . She loved watching him play football on the street. “A lot of people would gather and 45 on who was going to win,” Shaw 46 . “I thought I wanted to be a part of that!” So she 47 them.
Her parents weren’t 48 , who valued their kids’ education very much. Her mother in particular thought football was a 49 of time. In Jamaica there were no women’s teams. “But I wanted to play football.” said Shaw, who dreamed of competing in the sport’s greatest 50 . So she’d play while her mother was out until she was 51 at age 14 for Jamaica under 15s Team. Her father 52 Bunny’s mother that it would be an invaluable experience for their daughter.
Bunny Shaw was on her way. She made the national team in 2015. When the Jamaican national team is 53 for the 2019 Women’s World Cup after beating Panama, Shaw’s 54 was realized. “When I 55 where I was then and where I am now, I’m proud of myself.” says Jamaica’s top goal scorer.
41. A. share B. afford C. exchange D. command
42. A. sells B. buys C. requires D. presents
43. A. medals B. prizes C. punishments D. challenges
44. A. nickname B. title C. honor D. gift
45. A. decided B. called C. bet D. insisted
46. A. remembers B. confirms C. admits D. declares
47. A. rejected B. praised C. joined D. admired
48. A. disappointed B. annoyed C. concerned D. delighted
49. A. waste B. matter C. lack D. sign
50. A. ceremony B. tournament C. gym D. practice
51. A. removed B. adopted C. selected D. appreciated
52. A. convinced B. ordered C. inquired D. forced
53. A. trapped B. qualified C. prepared D. trained
54. A. belief B. game C. success D. dream
55. A. look up to B. look forward to C. look back on D. look out for
第二节(共 10小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In 1987, the Mogao Caves became a UNESCO World Heritage site. That same year, Neil Schmid, then 56 undergraduate studying Chinese at Georgetown University, first visited the desert city of Dunhuang. He owes his lasting bond with the caves 57 “yuanfen” — a special fondness.
Over thirty years later, in 2018, Schmid made history as the first full-time foreign researcher at the Dunhuang Academy. Since then, he has spent thousands of hours 58 (examine) the caves’ murals (壁画) and sculptures. Each visit, he says, 59 (reveal) something new, deepening his appreciation of how these sacred spaces 60 (design) to engage body, senses, and mind in acts of devotion and storytelling.
Schmid’s current research highlights Dunhuang as a test of cultural integration. In Cave 25, he identified a hand gesture 61 (striking) similar to that in one of Leonardo da Vinci’s works, which was painted over five centuries 62 (early). These discoveries show 63 cultural exchange generates: new visual languages and devotional forms, making Dunhuang not just a crossroad but a site of innovation.
64 (regard) as a storyteller and a cross-cultural guide, Schmid commits himself to sharing Dunhuang with global audiences through lectures and exhibitions. For him, the ancient caves remain a steady source of inspiration — proof that lasting achievements come from 65 (open).
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分 40 分)
第一节(满分 15 分)
你校英文俱乐部正在举办以 “Live Life to the Full”为主题的征文活动,请你投稿,内容包括:
1.充实生活的重要性;
2.结合自身经历谈让生活更充实的建议。
注意:
1.写作词数应为 80 词左右;
2.开头已给出,不计入总词数。
It is widely acknowledged that everyone desires a full and meaningful life.
第二节(满分 25 分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Last month, the biology teacher asked each pair of students to take care of a small animal for two weeks. Leo and Sam were partners. They chose a little hamster (仓鼠) with soft brown fur and shiny black eyes. Its tiny paws (爪子) and a little pink nose made it even more lovely. They named it Peanut.
They took turns feeding Peanut, cleaning its cage, and making sure it had fresh water. Leo liked to let Peanut run inside a plastic ball in the classroom. Sam liked to hold Peanut gently in his hands. The little hamster became the star of the class. Everyone stopped by their desk to say hello. Some classmates even brought small vegetable pieces to feed it, and Peanut would eat gently.
Last Friday, it was Leo’s turn to clean the cage. He took Peanut out and put it on the desk while he washed the plastic bottom. But Peanut got scared and jumped off the desk. By the time Leo turned around, Peanut was gone. Leo’s hands shook as he searched eagerly, his eyes filled with panic and regret.
“Sam! Peanut ran away!” Leo shouted. Sam rushed over. His face turned red. “You left Peanut on the desk? Are you crazy?” Leo felt bad, but he also got angry. “You left the cage door unlocked yesterday! It’s your fault too!” Sam shook his head. “I did not! You are just trying to blame me!” They searched under desks, behind bookshelves, and inside backpacks. No Peanut. The bell rang for the next class. Sam said, “This is your mess. You find him.” He walked away. Leo stood alone, his heart heavy. For the rest of the day, they didn’t speak. Sam sat in the front, Leo sat in the back. The empty cage sat between them like a wall.
After school, they both stayed behind and Leo looked under every desk again. Nothing. He was about to give up when he heard a tiny scratching sound. It came from the corner near the bookshelf.
注意:
1.续写词数应为 150 左右;
2.请按如下格式在相应位置作答。
Leo immediately ran to the bookshelf. __________________________________________________________
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Picking Peanut up, Leo and Sam looked at each other, both with a guilty look.
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