四川泸州市2025-2026学年高二下学期期末考试英语试题

高2024级高二下质量监测试题 英 语 本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 注意事项： 1．考生领到答题卡后，须在规定区域填写本人的姓名、准考证号和座位号，并在答题卡背面用2B铅笔填涂座位号。 2．考生回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，须用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。考生回答非选择题时，须用0.5mm黑色字迹签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。选择题和非选择题的答案写在试卷或草稿纸上无效。 3．考生不得将试卷、答题卡和草稿纸带离考场，考试结束后由监考员统一回收。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段录音。每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。 1. How does the man feel now? A. Less hungry. B. More energetic. C. Much lighter. 2. Which language will the man probably learn? A. Spanish. B. French. C. German. 3. What will the man probably do for the woman next? A. Provide a local map. B. Find a better hotel. C. Suggest nice restaurants. 4. What might the woman have just bought? A. A car. B. A television. C. A fridge. 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. Future job options. B. Life after retirement. C. Medical care for animals. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题都有5秒钟的作答时间。每段录音播放两遍。 听第6段录音，回答第6、7题。 6. What time is it now? A. 10:10 a.m. B. 10:30 a.m. C. 10:50 a.m. 7. Where are the speakers? A. In a hospital. B. In a classroom. C. In the playground. 听第7段录音，回答第8、9题。 8. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Tour guide and tourist. B. Hotel staff and guest. C. Driver and passenger. 9. What will the woman probably do tomorrow? A. Visit some universities. B. Watch sports. C. Connect with locals. 听第8段录音，回答第10至12题。 10. What is the theme of the presentation? A. Personal growth. B. Exciting events. C. Countryside life. 11. Where did the man spend most of this summer? A. At a vacation house. B. At his workplace. C. At home. 12. When will the man give the presentation? A. In two days. B. In four days. C. In seven days. 听第9段录音，回答第13至16题。 13. Who joined the book clubs with the woman? A. Relatives. B. Strangers. C. Friends. 14. What type of reading does the man prefer? A. Science fiction. B. History books. C. Fantasy stories. 15. Why did the woman enjoy reading novels when she was young? A. It helped improve her grades. B. It helped her understand others. C. It helped her escape real-world problems. 16. How often does the online club meet? A. Four times a month. B. Twice a month. C. Once a month. 听第10段录音，回答第17至20题。 17. Why did the speaker mainly set up the center? A. To give physical care. B. To supply cheaper housing. C. To offer interesting activities. 18. What will the listeners do to help the residents? A. Chat with them. B. Serve them meals. C. Handle their outings. 19. Who mainly volunteer at the center? A. School teachers. B. High school students. C. The residents’ families. 20. What will the speaker talk about next? A. The timetable. B. The center’s history. C. Her personal experiences. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Visitor Guide to Accessible Features in Yellowstone National Park Welcome to Yellowstone National Park, the first and greatest national park in the world. We hope you will enjoy visiting the world’s highest concentration of geysers (间歇喷泉) and other hydrothermal features, enjoy viewing the world-class scenery, and enjoy watching the abundant wildlife. Many park facilities are more than a century old and accessibility is not always ideal. However, the park service is improving the facilities as quickly as possible within funding limitations. This guide describes most facilities judged to be accessible by wheelchair users without assistance. It also indicates those facilities that may require assistance for some wheelchair users. Please note that facilities described as accessible do not necessarily fully reach federal standards, and some accessible facilities are not marked with the international symbol. Your comments on this guide and the park’s accessibility are appreciated and should be directed to: Accessibility Coordinator P.O. Box 168 Yellowstone National Park, Wyoming 82190-0168 Phone: 307-344-2017 Visitor Information Available Through TDD — People who are hearing impaired may obtain visitor information through TDD 307-344-2386. Index 1 Yellowstone National Park Accessibility Information Access Pass Programs Accommodations Restrooms Backcountry Camping Service Animals Camping Showers Fishing Wheelchairs Index 2 Yellowstone National Park Facility Accessibility Information Bridge Bay Madison Canyon Mammoth Fishing Bridge Norris Grant Village Old Faithful Lake Roosevelt / Tower 21. What can we learn about many facilities in the park? A. They are available for a fee. B. They meet international standards. C. They carry time limits on usage. D. They are in need of improvement. 22. Where can visitors find information on service animals? A. P.O. Box 168. B. TDD hotline. C. Index 1. D. Index 2. 23. What is the main purpose of the text? A. To present accessibility guidance. B. To seek public comments. C. To recommend proper equipment. D. To advertise tourism resources. B What does “home” mean? It means different things to different people. It can be a place of love, a difficult environment, or simply a state of mind. The American Folk Art Museum’s exhibition Somewhere to Roost presents 60 works of art to explore different ideas of home. Folk art here refers to works created by ordinary self-taught artists rather than well-trained professional painters, carrying authentic personal feelings from daily life. The exhibition’s name originates from Thornton Dial Sr.’s work Birds Gotta Have Somewhere to Roost. It uses everyday waste materials to show how birds build nests, just as people create homes. Many works in the show use simple objects to express deep feelings about home. Some works show warm and peaceful home life. For example, a 19th-century drawing carries the words “Home Sweet Home,” and a lovely birdcage represents safety and warmth. A classic portrait shows a happy middle-class child, reflecting ordinary people’s hope for a peaceful home full of care. However, other works describe the pain of losing home or living in a terrible place. A photograph records a homeless man’s simple shelter that was later burned down. These works remind us that home can be brittle and unable to stand harsh external changes. Some artists tell their own life stories through their works. Clementine Hunter painted daily life on a plantation, recording her memories of home. Artist Kapo once lost his house unexpectedly and received help from singer Roberta Flack to rebuild his home and keep creating art. The exhibition shows that home is more than a building. It is a feeling, a memory, and a basic human need. No matter how hard life is, people always try to build a place to belong. 24. Where does the exhibition’s title come from? A. Life-focused folk art. B. Common waste materials. C. An artist’s specific work. D. Various ideas about habitats. 25. What message does the birdcage artwork convey? A. Sorrow of losing shelters. B. Simple home-making tools. C. Kids’ joyful growth at home. D. Comfortable family-centered life. 26. What does the underlined word “brittle” in paragraph 4 probably mean? A. Unable to preserve. B. Easy to damage. C. Difficult to design. D. Likely to disappear. 27. What mainly contributed to Kapo’s further art creation? A. His personal life experiences. B. The memories of home. C. His former artistic collections. D. The recovery of his belongings. C A year after Val Kilmer’s death, a generative AI version of the late actor is set to co-star in the independent film As Deep as the Grave, a groundbreaking application of AI in movie-making. First Line Films confirmed the news, revealing Kilmer had signed on for the role before his passing but was unable to film due to declining health. His family approved the digital replication (复制) of his likeness and is receiving proper compensation (补偿) for the use of his AI image. Mercedes Kilmer, the actor’s daughter, noted the role deeply attracted her father, who was always optimistic about emerging technologies as a means to enrich storytelling. Kilmer died at 65 last April from pneumonia, after throat cancer affected his voice years earlier. He once used AI to digitally recreate his voice for his final screen appearance in 2022. AI’s role in film-making has long been a debated topic in Hollywood. While some companies have created AI-generated virtual actors, the actors’ union SAG-AFTRA has criticized such practice and issued strict regulations. The union’s rules demand prior permission from performers for the use of their digital replicas, and post-death usage require approval from a performer’s representative. As Deep as the Grave was filmed years ago but paused in post-production. It is based on a true story about archaeologists uncovering Native American history in Arizona. Kilmer, who had part Native American heritage, was drawn to the project five years ago. The film’s creators stated they strictly followed SAG-AFTRA’s guidelines, calling their work a model for moral AI use with late actors. They worked with Mercedes Kilmer to keep the character true to the original design. Producers are seeking ways to release the movie in the near future. 28. What do we know about Val Kilmer in paragraph 1? A. He accepted the role earlier. B. He finished filming the movie. C. He created his AI movie image. D. He left his family a large fortune. 29. What can we learn about Val Kilmer’s role according to his daughter? A. It enriched people’s life. B. It appealed to Val Kilmer. C. It made Val Kilmer more optimistic. D. It showcased the progress in movie-making. 30. What does SAG-AFTRA think of using AI-generated virtual actors? A. It should be banned. B. It serves to promote storytelling. C. It is acceptable with permission. D. It is beneficial for digital production. 31. What is the main focus of the last paragraph? A. New plans for the launch of the film. B. Strict requirements for using AI in films. C. Efforts to recreate Kilmer’s character well. D. Producers’ expectation to make another film. D Experts say that “mental workout” can help prevent Alzheimer’s disease, a type of dementia (痴呆). However, repeatedly doing simple tasks like daily crossword puzzles is not effective. Instead, various cognitively (认知) stimulating hobbies act as a real mental exercise, building knowledge and skills that strengthen the brain as we age. A recent study found that lifelong learning can reduce the risk of Alzheimer’s disease and slow cognitive decline. Lifelong learning includes many meaningful activities, such as reading, writing, learning a new language, playing chess, solving puzzles, and visiting museums from childhood to old age. These activities fully stretch our brain and activate different cognitive systems. Andrea Zammit, the neuropsychologist (神经心理学家) who led the study, says it is never too late to start. Middle age is an important period for protecting brain health. The key is to choose activities we like and keep doing them instead of trying them only for a short time. Zammit’s eight-year study followed nearly 2,000 healthy older adults. Results showed that people with rich lifelong learning developed Alzheimer’s about five years later than those without. Findings also showed that mentally active people still had better memory and thinking skills, even when their brains had signs of Alzheimer’s. This is called “cognitive reserve”. Learning strengthens neural connections, making the brain more resistant to damage from aging or disease. Playing a musical instrument and brain speed training help improve attention and reaction time, and joining a book club can combine reading, discussion and social communication. In short, keeping the brain active through meaningful learning is a crucial way to protect our brain, stay sharp, and lower the risk of dementia as we grow older. 32. What do experts think fails to strengthen the brain against aging? A. Redoing ordinary puzzles. B. Updating knowledge regularly. C. Studying new games timely. D. Taking different mental workouts. 33. What is Zammit’s suggestion about brain protection? A. Trying new hobbies. B. Sticking with favorite activities. C. Starting learning early. D. Exercising with the middle aged. 34. What is the function of “cognitive reserve”? A. Repair damaged neural systems. B. Diagnose Alzheimer’s disease. C. Measure the level of mental health. D. Slow aging-related brain harm. 35. What can be the best title for the passage? A. Useful Tips Help Keep off Illnesses. B. Effective Brain Exercise Fights Dementia. C. Constant Self-improvement Boosts Wellness. D. New Findings Advance Alzheimer’s Treatment. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Studying efficiently means learning more in less time. 36 Instead, you need good habits before, during, and after class. This essay will show you simple ways to study smarter and remember better. • Be ready. Before class, spend just 5-10 minutes looking at the new lesson. Read the titles, headings, and bold words. This helps your brain know what to expect. You don’t need to understand everything. Just get a quick idea. When you go to class, you will follow the teacher more easily. 37 • Listen and write. In class, try to listen carefully. Write down only the most important points. 38 If the teacher says something twice, that is important. If you don’t understand something, ask right away. Don’t wait. Good notes help you later. If you just sit and listen without writing, you will forget half of it after class. • 39 After class, take five minutes to look at your notes again. Fix any mistakes or unclear parts. Write down one sentence that sums up the main idea. This simple step moves new information into your long-term memory. If you wait until tomorrow, you will forget a lot. • Practice little by little. Don’t wait until the night before the test. Instead, review a little bit every few days. Close your book and try to say the key ideas out loud. 40 This is called “Active Recall”. It works much better than just reading your notes again. Study for 15 minutes today, then again in three days. A. Check your notes in time. B. Test yourself with questions. C. Use short words, not long sentences. D. Add some new information to your notes. E. You don’t need to study for hours and hours. F. Regular reviews are the best way to remember. G. Many students skip this step, but it really helps. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A rescue took place on Feb 22 at the Baisha-Moshui River mouth. Huang Qiang, 44, a volunteer with the Chengyang Wildlife Protection Society 41 to the site after receiving a report. About 100 meters ahead, a black-headed gull 42 , trapped helplessly in the mud by a balloon string wrapped around its body and wings. He first 43 to rescue it with a drone (无人机), but strong winds forced him to 44 the plan. With the tide rising and seawater threatening to 45 the gull, Huang decided to walk toward the bird. But the mud was so soft that his feet 46 with every step. “I had no choice but to lie flat against the mud and inch forward with 47 on my hands and knees, with a safety rope 48 around my waist,” he said. After nearly half an hour of careful and tough 49 , Huang finally reached the bird and freed it from the 50 . Holding the 51 gull with one hand and supporting himself with the other, Huang returned slowly. The bird was taken to a rescue station for 52 . It had no injuries but was too weak to fly. After recovery, it was 53 into the wild. A truck driver by profession, Huang started to 54 in 2016 and has kept it up ever since. Thus, he was honored as a Model Citizen for his dedication in 2025. “It’s our 55 to lend a helping hand,” he said. 41. A. wandered B. rushed C. returned D. referred 42. A. survived B. escaped C. struggled D. appeared 43. A. attempted B. managed C. hesitated D. pretended 44. A. put off B. turn to C. figure out D. give up 45. A. prevent B. bother C. drown D. challenge 46. A. slipped B. stretched C. shook D. sank 47. A. ease B. effort C. help D. delight 48. A. tied B. laid C. pulled D. thrown 49. A. practice B. movement C. performance D. preparation 50. A. wind B. rope C. string D. tide 51. A. injured B. weakened C. puzzled D. endangered 52. A. observation B. shelter C. food D. operation 53. A. permitted B. ordered C. released D. forced 54. A. volunteer B. tour C. drive D. deliver 55. A. project B. career C. routine D. responsibility 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 In Shanghai’s winding alleys, the pleasant smells of fresh bamboo 56 (shoot) signal the arrival of spring. These seasonal delicacies (佳肴) are now taking center stage not just in high-end restaurants, but in community canteens across the city. At a community canteen, Vincent Vesvres, a Frenchman 57 (work) in Shanghai, enjoys the tasty food. He has been drawn to the warm, family-like atmosphere, feeling 58 (true) part of the community. “I’m experiencing life as a local in China,” he said. Community canteens, 59 (support) by the local government, offer good food at reasonable prices for residents. Once considered only for 60 elderly, they now serve as a bridge connecting locals and international visitors eager 61 an authentic Shanghai experience. This spring, many canteens have been widely popular for 62 they come up with in the spring menus, such as stir-fried malantou and Chinese toon. Chefs try to preserve the original flavor of the seasonal ingredients. The dishes are gaining likes for being fresh, 63 (health) and affordable. In recent years, these canteens, more than just dining places, 64 (become) community hubs, integrating services and cultural activities. They fit perfectly into China’s strategy of building 15-minute communities, bringing 65 (convenient) and warmth to people’s lives. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 下周，你校英语社团将开展以“Sports Fuel My Growth”为主题的手抄报征集活动，假定你是社团负责人，请用英语写一则通知，内容包括： （1）作品要求； （2）截止日期及提交方式。 注意： （1）写作词数应为80个左右； （2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 NOTICE English Club 第二节（满分25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Leo Miller was a thin, slight boy. By the time he reached primary school, he’d come to terms with a small but noticeable difference — while his classmates had ten fingers, he was missing one from his right hand. His once-bright enthusiasm faded little by little after a classmate made fun of his incomplete hand. He grew self-conscious and avoided playing with other kids, shutting himself off more and more each day. Alone most of the time, Leo couldn’t shake a lingering (挥之不去的) question: Why was he the only one with a missing finger? He poured out his troubles to his parents, saying he disliked being different from other normal children. His mother felt helpless, knowing the blow to his confidence was deep, yet she didn’t know how to ease his pain or help him embrace his difference. One evening, after finishing work, Leo’s mother turned on the TV and came across a documentary. The film focused on Dylan, a teen from Iowa who’d become something of an Internet influencer. Dylan was a passionate basketball player, showing incredible skill on the court — and just like Leo, he was missing one finger. A rare condition from birth had left him with the same physical weakness, yet he’d turned it into no barrier to pursuing what he loved. Leo’s eyes lit up as he watched Dylan play; for the first time, he saw someone who shared his “weakness” thriving. Even so, doubt lingered — he thought Dylan was just a special case, that someone like him could never achieve the same. He couldn’t imagine himself stepping out of his shell, let alone shining like Dylan. What Leo didn’t know was that his family had already reached out to the local social media, hoping to arrange a meeting with Dylan. They wanted him to see firsthand that a missing finger didn’t limit what he could do. 注意： （1）续写词数应为150个左右； （2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Fortunately, Dylan agreed to meet Leo three days later. Leo was completely infected by Dylan’s optimism and self-confidence. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $高2024激励高二年级下学期教学质量监测试基地。第一节听下面五段录音，每段录音后有一个脚印，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读。每段录音播放两遍，现在你有5秒钟的时间阅读第一小题的有关内容。听下面的录音，回答第一小题。I've started to clean up my diet. I still get hungry between meals, but I do feel like I have a bit more energy now. Read, stick with IT. It's hard at first, but months you are through and you'll feel so much later. I've started to clean up my diet. I still get hungry between meals, but I do feel like I have a bit more energy now. great. Stick with IT. It's hard at first, but once you are through and you will feel so much later. 听下面的录音，回答第二小题。I have to pick a language, but i'm not sure if I should choose spanish or journey. I thought you take french and that's where your grandmother is from. You're right, i'll go for that. I have to pick a language, but i'm not sure if I should choose spanish or journey. I thought you take french, since that's where your grandmothers from you are. right? I will go for that. 听下面的录音，回答第三小题。How do you like the local restaurants around here? Honestly, I can't find anywhere good online. And just walking into place, this mari hotel hasn't work either. That's why I really need advice from a local like you. I thought you'd never ask, how do you like the local restaurants around here? Honestly, I can't find anywhere good on mind and just walking into place this man hotel. Han, that's why I really need advice from a . lot to like you. I thought you never asked. 听下面的录音，回答第四小题。What should I do with this old fridge? I haven't got a car. They'll probably . take them away when they delivered. The new fridge is how I got rid of my old TV. What should I do with this old friend? Ge, I haven't got a car. They'll probably . take you away when they delivered. The new fridge is how I get rid of my old T. P. 听下面的录音，回答第五小题。i don't know what I want to be. What, i'm older, I hate offices, but I like working with animals. So perhaps I should be an animal doctor. But you hit the side of lud. You need something with animals, but not mEdison. I don't know what I want to be what I owner. I hate offices, but i'd like working with animals. So perhaps I should be an animal doctor. But you hate the side of blood. You need something with animals, but not never seen. 第一节到此结束，第二节听下面5段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完后，每小题都有5秒钟的作答时间，每段录音播放两遍。听下面的录音，回答第六和第七小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Alright, everyone, listen up. We are about to follow the procedure with practice where we began attend thirty AM. Can anyone tell me what we need to do when we hear the? Yes, then we leave . everything, go to the door and mind up without question. correct? And how do we move? We walked quickly, but in an importantly way to the playground and wait there, if possible, use a wet floor ck over our mouth. That knows. good. Now we're starting in twenty minutes. So put away your books and be ready. Alright, everyone, listen enough. We are about to follow the procedure. We practice where, remember, we began at ten thirty am. Can anyone tell me what we need to do when we hear the r yes. So we need . everything, go to the door and line up without pushing. correct. And how do we move? We walk quickly, but in an orderly, wait to the playground and wait there, if possible, use a wet flop over our month and nose. But now we're starting in twenty minutes. So put away your books and be ready. 听下面的录音，回答第八和第九小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。I will tell you about the area after you check in, but for detailed information, I recommended to our guide service. No words. My driver told me, boston is one of the most interesting cities in the united states. Yes, boston is one of the oldest american cities. Most visitors come for the history or the world famous universities. Well, i'm just a simple tourist. I shows that to explore output. That's a great choice to is that why you're leaving right after dropping your bag? actually? No, I will spend the day of the baseball stadium, but tomorrow i'll walk around the city and try to make friends with locals. I ll tell you about the area after you check in, but for detailed information, I recommended that to our guide instance. No worries. My driver told me boston is one of the most interesting cities in the united states. Yes, boston is one of the oldest american cities. Most visitors come for the history or the world famous universities. Well, i'm just a simple tourist. I chose IT to explore on put. That's a great choice too. Is that why you're leaving right after . dropping your bands the day at the baseball stadium? But tomorrow i'll log around the city and try to make friends with locals. 听下面的录音，回答第十至第十二小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Miss Jones, what did you mean when you ask us to write about our biggest lessons learned over the summer? Good question. In twenty years, students often wrote about exciting than or hobby. But now i've like you to focus instead on your boss. And what we learned I . see before, we spent vacations at a house in the countryside. And maybe if I were already eighteen, i'd have worked somewhere over the summer. But this year I hardly left my parents house, so I don't have many stories. That's okay. Even doing life at home can teach something. Think about let those nice talk . here that makes sense. When will I be presenting this now? Take the full weekends to reflect. Then starting next monday, you'll have an additional four days to prepare. Presentation begin . next friday. Okay, i'll stop preparing . right now. Miss jone, what did you mean when you ask us to write about our biggest lessons learned over the summer? Good question. In past years, students often wrote about exciting events or hobbies. But now i'd like you to focus instead on your thought and what you . learned I see before we spent vacations at a house in the countryside. And maybe if I were already eighteen, I have worked somewhere over the summer. But this year I hardly left my parents house, so I don't have many stories. That's okay. Even daily life at home can teach you something. Think about what those months taught you. That makes sense. When will I be presenting this now? Take the all weekends to reflect. Then starting next monday, you'll have an additional four days to prepare. Presentation begin . next friday. okay. I'll stop preparing right now. 听下面的录音，回答第十三至第十六小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。I thought my on my reading love in twenty years. like the four clubs you did with your . relative similar, except nobody in this works with friends or even knew each other before joining. That's what makes this international blood fun. You should join some time, but science fiction and vanity aren't really my thing. You could join when that reads true accounts from the history. Yes, that would be perfect for me. Still. I recommend trying models even before my teachers require than a school. And loved novels because they gave me a break from my own issues. As a teenager, I lose myself. invention world, is that how you still feel now? I also value how stories helping understand other people's socks and . feelings that how often does your club meet before . when I love with my sisters, we could only need once or twice a month. However, because of our mind, we need all times among, i've got my online reading love in twenty minutes. like the book club you did with your relatives. similar, except nobody in this word with friends or even knew each other before joining. That's what makes this international **** fund. We should join some time. But science fiction advances aren't really my thing. You could join them that reads true accounts from the stream. Yes, that would be perfect for me. Still, ID recommend end trying novel even before my teachers require them at school. I loved novels because they gave me a break from my own issues. As a teenager, I lose myself infection words. Is that how you still feel now? I also value how stories helping understand other people's stuff, feelings. That's lovely. How often does your plus . meet before? When I get my sisters, we can only meet once or twice a month. However, because of mine, we meet four times A. 听下面的录音，回答第十七至第二十小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。Before you start volunteering, I will give you some information. Also thank you for helping. The city's senior hour center is different from those focus on medical invisible care. Before hour center opened, there were many affordable housing options. However, no centers focus on fun activities and community connections. That's why I started this center. I was heard the love and care we get to the elderly is the measure of our humanity. I realized that although older citizens were cared for the unity now our staff already handle audience trans and meal services will be most helpful. During visiting hours, we ll need you to talk with the residence and keeps anyone company doesn't come visitors. We are happy that your teachers encourage you to volunteer. And for these programs, this is why the majority of our volunteers are seen to be graduates preparing for university, yelling repentance for your applications, but more important, animal, animal experience them. Now, before we visit the center and need some resident and like to explain the schedule you'll be expected to all before you start volunteering, I will give you some information. Also thank you for helping the city's senior. Our center is different from those focused on medical invisible care. Before our center opened, there were many affordable housing options. However, no centers focus on fun activities and community connections. That's why I started this center. I once heard the love and care we get to the elderly is the measure of our humanity. I realized, ed, that all the older citizens were careful. They liked living community. Now our staff already handle auditing, transport, mail services. It'll be most helpful during visiting hours. We'll need you to talk with the residence and keep anyone company doesn't have visitors. We are happy that your teachers encourage you to volunteer and support these programs. This is why the majority of our volunteers are seem to be graduates preparing for university. You ll game recommendations for your applications, but more importantly, meaningful experience with now before we visit the center and need for resident, i'd like to explain the schedule you'll be expected to follow. 第二节到此结束，现在你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。听力部分到此结束。 高2024级高二下质量监测英语试题答案与评分标准 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分，每题1.5分） 第一节（7.5分） 1.A 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.B 第二节（22.5分） 6.A 7.C 8.B 9.A 10.C 11.A 12.B 13.C 14.B 15.C 16.B 17.A 18.A 19.B 20.A 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（15小题，每题2.5分，共37.5分） 21.D 22.C 23.A 24.C 25.D 26.B 27.A 28.A 29.B 30.C 31.C 32.A 33.B 34.D 35.B 第二节 七选五（5小题，每题2.5分，共12.5分） 36.E 37.G 38.C 39.A 40.B 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（15小题，每题1分，共15分） 41.B 42.C 43.A 44.D 45.C 46.D 47.B 48.A 49.B 50.C 51.B 52.A 53.C 54.A 55.D 第二节 语法填空 56. shoots （bamboo shoots 竹笋，复数表一类事物） 57. working （现在分词作后置定语，主动关系） 58. truly （副词修饰动词feeling） 59. supported （过去分词表被动，被政府扶持） 60. the （the + 形容词表一类人 the elderly 老年人） 61. for （固定搭配 eager for 渴望） 62. what （宾语从句引导词，作come up with宾语） 63. healthy （并列形容词 fresh, healthy, affordable） 64. have become （in recent years 现在完成时标志） 65. convenience （bring后接名词作宾语，convenient名词形式） 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 应用文·通知 参考范文 NOTICE To enrich our after-school life, the English Club will hold a handwritten newspaper activity themed "Sports Fuel My Growth". Here are relevant details. First of all, your works should combine sports stories and personal growth feelings, with neat handwriting and creative layouts. Besides, articles, drawings and English quotes about sports are recommended. All entries must be handed in to the English Club office before next Friday afternoon. Late submissions will not be accepted. We look forward to your wonderful works! English Club 应用文15分档评分标准 档次划分 1. 13–15分（优秀档） -覆盖全部要点：作品要求、截止日期、提交方式； 词汇丰富，句式多样，语法零错误；衔接自然；词数70–90；格式规范（NOTICE、落款齐全）； 2. 10–12分（良好档） 要点齐全，少量语法/拼写错误，不影响理解；句式有变化；词数达标；格式完整； 3. 7–9分（及格档） 要点基本覆盖，部分语句生硬，少量严重语法错误；词数60左右；格式无明显缺失； 4. 4–6分（较差档） 缺失一个核心要点；语法错误较多，理解困难；词数不足50；格式残缺； 5. 0–3分（极差档） 仅抄写题干、完全偏离主题、词数不足30、无法辨认。 扣分细则 1. 词数：低于60词扣2分；超110词扣1分； 2. 格式：缺少NOTICE标题/落款，各扣1分； 3. 拼写、时态、主谓一致等错误每3处扣1分，最多扣5分； 4. 未说明截止日期/提交方式直接降一档。 第二节 读后续写（满分25分，两段合计150词左右） 参考范文 Fortunately, Dylan agreed to meet Leo three days later. When Leo saw Dylan walking towards him, he stared at Dylan’s right hand in surprise—the missing finger looked exactly like his own. Dylan smiled warmly and shared his tough experience: he once avoided basketball because of his finger, but later realized the finger never stopped him from loving the sport. He showed Leo some simple basketball moves and told Leo difference was just a unique mark of himself. Leo was completely infected by Dylan's optimism and self-confidence. All his self-doubt faded away at once. On arriving home, Leo took out his old basketball and asked his parents to take him to the playground every weekend. Gradually, he dared to play with classmates and even talked about his missing finger without embarrassment. He finally understood that true strength lies in brave self-acceptance rather than perfect bodies. 读后续写25分评分标准（全国卷通用标准） 一、评分维度 1. 内容完整（10分）：两段均紧扣开头提示，衔接原文情节，逻辑连贯； 2. 语言表达（10分）：词汇、句式、语法准确性； 3. 篇章连贯（5分）：过渡词、情节自然，两段呼应。 五档分值细则 1. 21–25分（第五档） - 情节完整，完全贴合原文人物情感；两段衔接流畅； - 词汇高级，长短句结合，几乎无语法错误；过渡自然；词数130–170； 2. 16–20分（第四档） -情节合理，覆盖续写开头线索；少量语法/拼写错误，不影响阅读；句式有变化；词数达标；3. 11–15分（第三档） 情节基本完整，但部分细节单薄；错误较多，个别句子难懂；词数100–130； 4. 6–10分（第二档） 偏离人物主线，情节断裂；大量语法错误，阅读困难；词数不足100； 5. 0–5分（第一档） 完全脱离原文、抄写题干、字数少于50、无法读懂。 硬性扣分规则 1. 未分两段写作，直接扣5分； 2. 未使用给定段首句，每段扣3分； 3. 总词数＜100词扣4分，＞200词扣2分； 4. 严重时态混乱、人称错乱、大量单词拼写错误，每处扣1分，累计上限8分； 5. 情节与原文人物性格冲突（如Leo依旧自卑无转变）降一档。 1 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $