四川达州市2025-2026学年高二下学期教学质量监测英语试题

达州市2026年春季学期高中二年级教学质量监测（选用卷） 英语 （本试卷四部分，共10页，满分150分，考试时间120分钟） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的班级、姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并检查条形码粘贴是否正确。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将答题卡交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. How does the woman feel in the end? A. Curious. B. Relaxed. C. Anxious. 2. What did the woman prepare for herself? A. An old T-shirt. B. A sun hat. C. Gloves. 3. Who does the woman think will win the game? A. Brian. B. George. C. Jeremy. 4. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. At a supermarket. B. At a coffee shop. C. At the man’s home. 5. What does the woman like most about the design? A. Its shape. B. Its bamboo image. C. Its Chinese characters. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What does the man think of the “One-Touch Rule” ? A. Important. B. Helpful. C. Necessary. 7. What will the woman try to do? A. Tidy up the desk in time. B. Pack up clothes immediately. C. Put books away after reading. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What is the theme of Owen’s speech? A. Terrible Effects of War. B. Building Peace Together. C. International Youth Growth. 9. What is the man’s advice? A. Talking to the elderly. B. Spreading harmony online. C. Exchange cultural information. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What is Amy’s trouble? A. Losing her timetable. B. Missing course selection. C. Struggling to pick courses. 11. Which subject does Dr. Lee teach? A. Advanced Math. B. Chemistry. C. Engineering. 12. When will Amy have Advanced Math classes? A. On Tuesdays and Fridays. B. On Tuesdays and Thursdays. C. On Mondays and Wednesdays. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. What was the woman dissatisfied with? A. The bread. B. The cookies. C. The cupcakes. 14. What did Mr. Higgins talk about with the woman? A. A classic movie. B. A funny picture. C. His new pet dog. 15. Why did the woman laugh loudly in the afternoon? A. Her brother drew her funny. B. Her new pet dog acted amusingly. C. She watched an interesting TV show. 16. What did the woman do right before going to sleep? A. She wrote a diary. B. She watched a movie. C. She played with her phone. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What volunteer service is mentioned? A. Doing the cleaning. B. Cooking meals. C. Caring for animals. 18. What benefits can volunteers get? A. Valuable travel gifts. B. High pay from charities. C. Cheap supplies and activities. 19. When did volunteer travel first appear? A. In the 1960s. B. In the 1970s. C. In the 1980s. 20. Why do urban visitors choose rural volunteer projects? A. To work for local companies. B. To study the traditional culture. C. To escape the stressful urban life. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Science fiction has long been one of the most popular film genres, and each of the following movies has its own strengths. Here are the sci-fi movies everyone should see. They are typical examples of what the genre can offer, and each film makes brilliant use of modern visual effects to tell an amazing story that everyone should experience at least once. Interstellar (November 12, 2014) Runtime: 2h 49m Christopher Nolan’s Interstellar follows Cooper, a former pilot turned farmer, who leaves his family to lead a mission beyond our galaxy (星系). As Earth faces destruction, he and a team of pioneers search for a new home for humans among the stars. Ready Player One (March 29, 2018) Runtime: 2h 20m In 2045, Wade Watts escapes into the OASIS, a vast virtual world. When he solves the first clue in James Hallway’s three-part contest, Wade and his friends are drawn into a dangerous adventure to protect both the OASIS and the real world. Avatar: The Way of Water (December 16, 2022) Runtime: 3h 12m Set over a decade after the first film, Avatar: The Way of Water follows the Sully family as they face danger, struggle to protect one another, and fight to survive on Pandora. The film also explores new Na’vi cultures and Pandora’s stunning sea creatures. Project Hail Mary (March 20, 2026) Runtime: 2h 36m Science teacher Ryland Grace wakes up alone on a spaceship with no memory of who he is or how he got there. As his memory returns, he must solve the mystery behind the Sun’s fading light and use his science to save Earth, with help from an unexpected friend. 21. Which film has the shortest runtime? A. Interstellar. B. Ready Player One. C. Avatar: The Way of Water. D. Project Hail Mary. 22. What happens to Wade and his friends after he solves the first clue? A. They join a real-world competition. B. They leave the virtual world forever. C. They create the virtual world OASIS. D. They are pulled into a risky adventure. 23. What do the main characters in Interstellar and Project Hail Mary have in common? A. Both lose their memories. B. Both work as teachers. C. Both leave home for a mission. D. Both create virtual worlds. B One of the most famous voices on the planet has had a truly brilliant career. Sir David Attenborough has been creating and narrating (解说) wildlife films and documentaries for longer than most people have been alive. His first programme on the BBC’s Zoo Quest aired in the early 1950s. Attenborough is now 100 years old and still going strong. Over his long career, he has won multiple Emmys and two top honours from the Queen. He has earned dozens of honorary degrees from British universities, has several wildlife species named after him, and even holds a Guinness World Record. Simply put, he has very little left to achieve and nothing left to prove. And yet, he shows no signs of slowing down. The BBC recently announced that the legendary narrator and conservationist will return to narrate the upcoming special Blue Planet III. Centenarians (百岁老人) like Attenborough are rare, and it is even rarer to find someone who still works regularly, which requires incredible passion, dedication, and true craftsmanship. To Attenborough, it would be unthinkable for him to step away while his mind and body are still able to work. “The natural world is the greatest source of excitement, visual beauty and intellectual interest. It is the greatest source of so much in life that makes life worth living, ” he said. But it’s not just the joy and deep love of the planet Earth that keeps him going. His persistence also comes from his strong sense of social responsibility. The “Attenborough effect” tracks real changes in human behavior and environmental policies. His Blue Planet series has greatly reduced ocean plastic pollution. A UK and US survey found 53% of people use less single-use plastic, a change largely thanks to his moving narrations. He continues working because he can, and because he must. “The fact is that no species has ever had such complete control over everything on Earth, living or dead, as we now have,” he once said. “That lays upon us, whether we like it or not, an awesome responsibility. ” 24. What do the first two paragraphs mainly discuss about Attenborough? A. His brilliant programme. B. His research on new species. C. His remarkable achievements. D. His early career development. 25. Why is Attenborough unwilling to retire even now? A. He has a healthy mind and a strong body. B. He loves nature and takes social duties seriously. C. He wants to solve the problem of ocean pollution. D. He hopes to enjoy more visual beauty by working. 26. What can be learned about the “Attenborough effect” ? A. It wins him much public praise. B. It brings big changes to wildlife. C. It raises people’s health awareness. D. It affects people’s behavior and policies. 27. Which saying best conveys the main theme of the text? A. Health is the best wealth. B. Power brings responsibility. C. Passion and duty take one far. D. One is never too old to work. C When people imagine going on vacation, they often picture themselves on a beach somewhere, enjoying the sunshine as the waves roll over their feet. They long to relax passively without feeling forced to deal with anything stressful, simply spending undisturbed quality time with loved ones. It’s not a bad thing to fantasize about such leisure. However, a landmark scientific study in the 1980s by Hungarian-American psychologist Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi found that people aren’t happiest while relaxing, whether lying on a beach, watching TV or sitting in their yard with a cup of coffee. In fact, we reach peak happiness only when deeply focused on a meaningful task that takes us out of our familiar comfort zone. “The best moments in our lives are not the passive or relaxing times. The best moments usually occur when a person’s body or mind is pushed to its limits in voluntary efforts to achieve something difficult and worthwhile, ” Csikszentmihalyi wrote in his 1990 classic Flow (心流): The Psychology of Optimal Experience. To find out people’s real happy moments, he gave beepers (传呼机) to thousands of participants from totally different backgrounds, including Chicago factory workers, American teenagers, Korean women and farmers in the Italian Alps. When randomly beeped, participants wrote down their exact activities and inner feelings immediately. The unexpected finding was that casual relaxation rarely brought joy, while full devotion of mental energy brought steady happiness. Csikszentmihalyi expanded these findings into his book, explaining that “flow” means complete mental absorption. It happens when an activity fully occupies your focus, leaving no room for disturbing thoughts or worries. The findings urge us to rethink popular ideas of happiness. Most people pursue constant relaxation, yet true satisfaction lies in proper self-challenge. To enter “flow”, people need tasks that are challenging enough and full concentration. Though such tasks may cause stress at first, they bring true happiness. So, if you’re looking to feel great, resist the urge to seek comfort and, instead, look for ways to do the opposite and get out of your comfort zone. 28. What is people’s misunderstanding about happiness? A. It comes from relaxation. B. It needs full concentration. C. It grows through self-challenge. D. It appears in focused tasks. 29. How did Csikszentmihalyi carry out his research? A. By comparing various occupations. B. By tracking long-term mood changes. C. By recording random acts and thoughts. D. By studying different living backgrounds. 30. Which of the following states is closest to “flow” ? A. Reading a light story without pause. B. Enjoying a movie with great interest. C. Doing sports while listening to music. D. Fixing a model with full concentration. 31. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. The Secret to True Happiness B. Flow: Path to Focused Work C. A New Look at Mental Absorption D. Focus: Key to Mental Peace D Responsible hikers follow a simple rule — “leave no trace”. That means not leaving any litter, not taking anything away, and leaving wildlife alone. Feeding animals can change their natural behavior, making them easier to be harmed by predators and other dangers. Bothering the wrong animal can also result in people being attacked! However, people don’t have to interact with animals to affect their behavior, a study published in Science has found. It found that humans just moving through an area can have a significant effect on where animals go, how far they travel and how they use their habitats. The study used GPS to track 4, 500 animals from 37 species across the US. These included birds like eagles and ravens, as well as mammals (哺乳动物) like wolves, coyotes and deer. The researchers then used mobile phone and satellite data to track human activity — like hikers — in the animals’ habitats. They directly compared data from 2019 and 2020, because COVID-19 lockdowns (封锁) in 2020 resulted in human presence dropping in many areas. This also helped the researchers isolate the effects of short-term human presence from longer-term environmental changes caused by things like urban development and agriculture. The results showed that a significant majority of species changed their behavior when humans were simply present in their habitat. These changes were seen among 67% of mammal species, and 68% of bird species. For example, wolves were observed expanding their living range, possibly trying to stay farther away from humans. Ravens were also seen covering more ground. However, they did so not to avoid humans, but to make use of food sources linked to human activities. Coyotes, even though they often search for human leftovers near human settlements, actually restricted their movements when humans were active in their habitat — perhaps to avoid conflict with people. According to the researchers, the findings suggest that along with preserving natural habitats, better managing human activity in these habitats — like limiting hikers and other visitors at certain times — may help people and wildlife coexist more safely. 32. What is the main finding of the study? A. Human visits may endanger wild animals. B. Animal-human interaction may cause injuries. C. Wild animals avoid human-active areas by nature. D. Human presence can affect wild animals’ behaviors. 33. What does the underlined word “isolate” in paragraph 3 probably mean? A. Separate. B. Simplify. C. Witness. D. Compare. 34. What can be learned from paragraph 4? A. Birds react slower than mammals. B. Ravens expand their ranges for food. C. Wolves respond little to human activity. D. Coyotes move less to get human leftovers. 35. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text? A. To record animal behavioral changes. B. To promote human-wildlife coexistence. C. To criticize irresponsible hiking behavior. D. To introduce a scientific research method. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How to Survive in the Wild Whether you get lost in a forest or face an unexpected outdoor emergency, basic wilderness survival skills can help you stay calm and safe. 36 . What you need are merely a few practical skills. Mastering these skills greatly increases your chances of holding on until rescue arrives. ● Find clean water Clean water matters most for wilderness survival. 37 . Search for streams, valleys, or green plants that may signal water nearby. Never drink untreated water and always purify it first. Boiling water for several minutes is the safest way to do this. ● Build a proper shelter Building a proper shelter is essential. A good shelter protects you from wind, rain and wild animals while helping your body preserve heat. Fallen branches, dry leaves and pine needles can form a small enclosed shelter. 38 . Such spots may attract dangerous wildlife. ● 39 Fire can provide warmth, cook food, purify water and keep wild animals at bay. Gather dry leaves and small branches as kindling (引火物) , and prepare thicker wood to sustain the fire. Fire safety should never be ignored in survival. Always keep fire away from dry vegetation and shelter, and never leave it unattended. ● Eat proper food Bodies create heat as they break down food, so you should use this to your advantage. Eat high-fat foods like nuts, insects, and small animals just before you go to sleep. 40 . A. Start a safe fire B. Make a warm fire C. You do not need complicated tricks to survive D. This can help your body produce warmth at night E. Remember not to build it too close to water sources F. Here are a few basic survival skills to keep you safe G. The human body can only survive for a few days without it 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 BOOM! “Joey! Disconnect that TV right now! ” When I was a boy, I was 41 a replay of Gilligan’s Island, a famous TV show. at home in the 1970s. It was a warm summer afternoon when a 42 rolled in. With that first flash of lightning and thunder, my Mom 43 me to disconnect the outside antenna (天线) from the TV. I had no choice but to obey. I had never seen lightening 44 an antenna and destroy a TV before, but Mom wasn’t taking any risks. With nothing else to do, I walked over to my old bookshelf and started to 45 one book for the tenth time. My little dog Dukey saw me in my chair and lay on my lap. Soon I was lost in the book but 46 someone watching me. I looked up and saw my Mom 47 at me from the dining room as she set the table. And at that moment I didn’t mind the storm or the 48 of television. I could feel Mom’s love and I felt 49 and happy while I 50 my sleeping dog and the rain beat on the roof. That 51 came rushing back when our power went out recently. Suddenly the phone, Internet and TV stopped working. The house grew 52 , and I didn’t mind at all. Nowadays we are so busy with TV, social media, and smartphones. It was a 53 to enjoy the quiet again. Even after the power 54 , I kept the TV off, put my phone away and picked up an old book. I gently touched my dogs as they passed by and read peacefully. Deep in my heart, I could still 55 feel Mom’s warm smile. 41. A. expecting B. watching C. overlooking D. seeing 42. A. shower B. wind C. flood D. storm 43. A. persuaded B. encouraged C. ordered D. allowed 44. A. touch B. strike C. break D. cover 45. A. reread B. borrow C. publish D. recite 46. A. recalled B. felt C. caught D. spotted 47. A. pointing B. waving C. smiling D. staring 48. A. noise B. control C. distraction D. lack 49. A. peaceful B. proud C. sincere D. natural 50. A. washed B. fed C. walked D. petted 51. A. memory B. thought C. motive D. image 52. A. cool B. empty C. quiet D. dark 53. A. wonder B. comfort C. virtue D. habit 54. A. changed B. failed C. returned D. appeared 55. A. barely B. finally C. suddenly D. truly 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Some stories do not touch audiences with events, but with what remains after those events: a letter that never arrived in full, a name that carries weight, a promise left open. Dear You begins in these remnants (遗留情愫), and slowly turns them 56 something larger than memory. Over the past weeks, the Chinese film Dear You 57 (become) one of the country’s biggest word-of-mouth surprises. Made on a relatively modest budget and 58 (feature) mostly unknown actors, the film still became popular online just through audience recommendations. It currently holds a 59 (remarkable) high rating on Douban, China’s leading film-review platform. Set in China’s Chaoshan region, from the 1940s to the present day, Dear You tells 60 emotional story of family, migration, love and separation across generations. Instead of dramatic scenes, it creates feelings through letters, 61 act like keepers of emotions that might otherwise be lost. The film’s 62 (explore) of Chaoshan culture, migration history and traditional family values has also struck a chord (共鸣) with younger viewers searching for cultural roots in an age 63 (dominate) by fast-paced digital communication. In a world of instant messaging and short videos, the slow emotional rhythm of handwritten letters suddenly feels 64 (power) again. That may ultimately explain 65 Dear You has connected so strongly with audiences: it reveals something universal — the fear of losing connection, the pain of unspoken love and the hope that some emotions outlast time. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 暑假将至，针对学生借助AI完成假期作业的现象，你班将在英语课上围绕话题 Should students use AI to help with holiday homework? 展开讨论，请你写一篇发言稿，内容包括： （1）分析利弊； （2）发出倡议。 注意： （1）写作词数应为80个左右； （2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Hello, everyone! Thank you! 第二节（满分25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Chloe had lived happily in her second-floor apartment for eight months. It was a quiet building where most people lived peacefully, and she really loved the calm atmosphere there. However, a new neighbor moved downstairs, and things began to change. He was a man who loved music, and though they occasionally met in the apartment hall, they had rarely spoken to each other. One morning, while carrying a bunch of her favorite sunflowers from the supermarket, Chloe came across her neighbor in the hall. The bright yellow flowers showed how happy she felt at that moment. Hoping to be friendly, she offered him a warm smile and a nod. Unexpectedly, the man seemed not to notice her greeting and walked past in silence. Chloe stood there, surprised, wondering if he had simply not seen her. This brief encounter left her with a disappointing first impression, and she began to think he might be unfriendly. Soon after, a problem emerged. Every night, the neighbor played music late into the night. The sound wasn’t extremely loud, but it still came through the floor. What’s worse, it usually went on until around 11 p. m. , making her feel upset. Chloe was a nice girl and she hated the idea of being “that neighbor” who complains about everything. She tried hard to ignore the noise and be patient. However, one night, exhausted and with work waiting for her just a few hours away, Chloe was kept awake by the continuous noise. After hours of staring at the ceiling in frustration, she finally decided to communicate with her neighbor politely through a note. She wrote it with great care, trying her best to make it sound polite. She gently told her neighbor that the late-night music affected her rest, hoping they could solve the problem peacefully. With a little nervousness, she slipped the note under his door, wondering whether her neighbor would understand and make a change. 注意： 1．续写词数应为150左右； 2．请按如下格式在相应位置作答。 The next morning, Chloe found a note and some flowers at her door. _________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ Learning of his hearing problem, Chloe felt deeply sorry. __________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 达州市2026年春季学期高中二年级教学质量监测（选用卷） 英语试题参考答案及评分标准 第一部分：听力（共二节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 1 — 5 BACAB 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 6—10 BCBBC 11—15 BBCCA 16—20 ABCAC 第二部分：阅读理解（共二节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 21—23 BDC; 24—27 CBDC; 28—31 ACDA; 32—35 DABB 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 36—40 CGEAD 第三部分 英语知识运用（共二节，满分45分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 41—45 BDCBA; 46—50 BCDAD; 51—55 ACBCD 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 56. into 57. has become 58. featuring 59. remarkably 60. an 61. which 62. exploration 63. dominated 64. powerful 65. why 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） Possible version 1: Hello, everyone! It’s my great honor to share my ideas on using AI for holiday homework. AI can be very helpful if used properly. It offers creative ideas and explains difficult points when we are doing homework, saving us time and improving our efficiency. However, over-reliance on it will weaken our independent thinking and prevent us from developing critical thinking skills. So I strongly appeal that we take holiday homework as a chance to practice ourselves. Only after trying to solve the problems by ourselves should we turn to AI for help. It should be a helper in our learning, rather than a shortcut to avoid effort. Thank you! Possible version 2: Hello, everyone! I’m glad to talk about whether students should use AI to finish holiday homework. AI is a double-edged sword. It can save us time and offer useful ideas, especially when we have trouble with our homework. However, if we depend on it too much, we may lose the chance to develop critical thinking, which is very important in learning. So I strongly call on everyone to take holiday homework as a chance to practice ourselves. We ought to use AI wisely instead of leaning on it blindly. Only by pairing AI with thinking on our own and efforts can we gain the most from it. Thank you! 第二节（满分25分） P1 The next morning, Chloe found a note and some flowers at her door. The flowers were soft and their pleasant fragrance made her feel calm for a moment. Then she unfolded the note with curiosity. It was from the man downstairs, who explained that he had a hearing problem and did not realize his music was too loud at night. He said he was truly sorry and hoped the flowers could make up for the trouble. Chloe was stunned for a second. Then guilt washed over her. “How could I have judged him so quickly? ” she thought. Holding the flowers, she stood there quietly, wishing she had been more patient. P2 Learning of his hearing problem, Chloe felt deeply sorry. She realized she had judged him too quickly just by his cold looks. That afternoon, she baked some cookies and went downstairs to knock on his door. They talked face to face for the first time. Chloe smiled and said, “I hope we can be good neighbors.” From that day on, the building was quiet again, but it was filled with more kindness. This small experience taught Chloe a valuable lesson: we should never judge others easily. True understanding and kindness can always break down walls and bring people closer together. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $