河南唐河县第一高级中学2026年春高一期末考前错题练英语试题

2026年春高一期末考前错题练 英语试题 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 考试时间为120分钟，满分150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Changing a schedule. B. Catching a train. C. Booking a ticket. 2. What does the woman invite the man to do tomorrow? A. Visit a park. B. Fix up a garden. C. Come to her grandma's house. 3. What's the most possible relationship between the speakers? A. Neighbors. B. Classmates. C. Workmates. 4. What makes the woman feel more prepared for a possible flood? A. Experiencing a flood before. B. Taking a lesson from her teacher. C. Watching the news about a flood. 5. How can Johnson improve his story? A. By adding more key points. B. By correcting spelling mistakes. C. By cutting out the repetitive content. 第二节(共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. How does David find Amy? A. She is always strict. B. She is a slow learner. C. She is good at teamwork. 7. Who will the woman talk to next? A. Amy. B. Lily. C. Jack. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What is Mary's main problem? A. She doesn't like science class. B. She does poorly in Mr. Li's class. C. She has difficulty in taking notes. 9. How does Mary usually prepare for a test? A. She studies with a partner. B. She visits the teacher's web page. C. She reads her notes the night before. 10. How does Mary feel at the end of the conversation? A. Confident. B. Proud. C. Stressed. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. What does the man say about the Color Fun Run? A. It's a long race. B. It's a community activity. C. It's challenging. 12. How much does it cost to run? A. $3. B. $6. C. $15. 13. What will Elizabeth do on Saturday? A. Throw colored water. B. Make water bags. C. Run with her brother. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What did people enjoy seeing this morning? A. Paintings from France. B. Calligraphy from China. C. Pottery (陶器) from Brazil. 15. What are the speakers trying to do? A. To present worldwide art styles. B. To protect traditional art skills. C. To select and train young artists. 16. When time will the visiting group meet in the showroom tomorrow? A. At 8:00. B. At 8:30. C. At 9:00. 17. What will the group do tomorrow? A. Create artworks. B. Meet skilled artists. C. Share some thoughts. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. When did Elon Musk create his first video game? A. In 1981. B. In 1983. C. In 1985. 19. What is SpaceX known for achieving in 2020? A. Building high-speed tunnels. B. Carrying out a Mars mission. C. Sending astronauts to the space station. 20. Why does the speaker give this talk? A. To introduce an influential figure. B. To share a piece of business news. C. To show a potential industry in future. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Summer Sound Waves: Music Festival Guide The following music festivals will make you want to pack your bags and join the fun. Electric Paradise (天堂): Coachella, California Enjoy the desert magic of Coachella, where music, art, and fashion come together under the California sun. You can see famous singers on different stages, find new artists in the Sahara Tent, and look at beautiful artworks across the grounds. The festival started in 1999 and has become very popular. You can also camp with friends and watch the sunrise over the desert. Tickets: £500 for adults; £400 for teens. Classical Meets Contemporary (现代): BBC Proms, London The BBC Proms has made classical music fans very happy, with great music and new teams working on stage. The event runs all summer. You can go to the famous Last Night or enjoy daily shows at the Royal Albert Hall. Tickets are on sale now through September 12, 2026. Tickets: £60 for adults; £30 for teens. The Ultimate Rock Experience: Download Festival, Derbyshire This is the best rock music event: a three-day camping festival with famous bands and new stars on four big stages. The exciting weekend starts with loud guitars at Donington Park. You can also camp with music fans and relax in the park. Day Two has more great music and ends with firework shows. Tickets: £200 for adults; £150 for teens. Jazz Under the Stars: Montreux Jazz Festival, Switzerland Music lovers must not miss the beautiful lake setting of Montreux. The Stravinski Hall is the best place to enjoy it. You can also take part in a variety of free programs, such as Yoga classes, reading, workshops and Latin dance classes, etc., and see why stars like Miles Davis came here since 1967. Tickets: £80 for adults; £40 for teens. 1. How much should a couple with their 15-year-old twins pay to go to BBC Proms? A. £90. B. £120. C. £150. D. £180. 2. What do Coachella and Download Festival have in common? A. They take place in the desert. B. They offer camping experiences. C. They end with firework shows. D. They show artworks across the grounds. 3. What makes the last festival special compared to the others? A. It runs through the whole summer. B. It has a music hall to enjoy shows. C. It invites the most famous musicians. D. It organizes many free activities for visitors. B A 16-year-old Granite Bay High School student is spreading holiday cheer by helping make sure kids in the community don’t go without a present this Christmas. Livy Hickey, a responsible youth ambassador for Marine (海军) Toys for Tots (a charity program), is on a mission to make this holiday season brighter for children in need. Her journey with the nonprofit started when she was in eighth grade after she saw an activity for the organization, which has been providing holiday joy to families since 1947. “I love Christmas, it’s my favorite time of year, and I just value it so much,” said Livy, reflecting on her passion for the holiday season. Livy’s efforts didn’t go unnoticed. Matt Vidosh, the local organizer for Marine Toys for Tots, quickly recognized her potential. “She was so well-spoken, warm and friendly. I honestly thought she was already a junior or senior in high school. She acted older than she actually was,” Vidosh said. For Livy, the desire to give back has deep roots. “My grandpa was a Marine, so I wanted to honor his legacy (遗产). That’s really what inspired me to take part in the program,” she explained. She threw herself into the mission by buying toys, sorting them in the warehouse, and personally handing them out to families in need. Her hard work paid off when she was selected as one of just 35 student ambassadors nationwide for the program. In 2024, the local Toys for Tots collected over 28,000 toys, reaching more than 12,000 kids. The program depends on the generosity of people like Livy, and they’re always looking for donations of new, unwrapped toys. “We’re always accepting new, unwrapped toys, and if you’re someone who loves to make toys at home, we’ll take those too. Every little bit helps,” Vidosh added. For Livy, the true reward comes when the kids open their gifts. “Seeing the smiles on the kids’ faces is priceless. It lights up their entire face. Honestly, it brightens my day and my whole year,” she said. 4. What impressed Matt Vidosh most about Livy Hickey at first? A. Her academic achievements. B. Her skills in making gifts. C. Her extraordinary qualities. D. Her passion for collecting toys. 5. Why did Livy Hickey join Marine Toys for Tots? A. She wanted to get volunteer experience. B. Her grandfather’s background touched her. C. The local organizer personally invited her. D. She desired to share her favorite holiday joy. 6. What can we know from Livy's words in the last paragraph? A. The joy of helping others is lasting. B. The program helps kids build confidence. C. She hopes to receive valuable rewards. D. She expects more teens to join the program. 7. What is the best title for the text? A. Marine Toys for Tots: A Care Program B. How to Give Away Toys to Children C. Spreading Holiday Joy: A Teen's Mission D. A Teenage Volunteer’s Holiday Journey C For the first time since the Apollo days, humans are preparing not just to visit the Moon, but to live and work there for weeks, months, and even years. The US Artemis program aims to set up a base on the Moon’s surface. Rather than just leaving “flags and footprints” as the Apollo mission did, NASA wants to establish a long-term human presence on the Moon, beginning at the lunar South Pole. The program is carried out in stages. In 2022, Artemis I mission successfully tested the Space Launch System (SLS) rocket and Orion spacecraft on an unmanned mission around the Moon. On April 1, 2026, NASA launched Artemis II, a ten-day mission carrying four astronauts around the Moon. As NASA's first manned flight of Orion and SLS, Artemis II is an important mission designed to test that life-support systems function safely with humans onboard. Before astronauts can live on the Moon, the journey there must be proven reliable. NASA plans to spend $20 billion on a lunar surface base to support longer and longer stays. This is designed to teach us how to operate sustainably beyond Earth — knowledge that will finally feed forward to future Mars missions. Living on the Moon will challenge every organ (器官) system in the human body. Unlike astronauts in low-Earth orbit, astronauts on the Moon work largely outside Earth’s protection. This means more space radiation (辐射), which can harm DNA, weaken the body’s defense system, and affect the brain and the heart. Currently, there are some measures to reduce radiation, such as using lunar soil as cover and early warning systems for solar storms. Personalized eating strategies and exercise are also important during long lunar missions. Spending longer time on the Moon will be amazing. But it will also be demanding and uncomfortable. If we can learn how to keep humans healthy and productive on the lunar surface, we take a decisive step toward becoming a truly spaceflight species. Artemis shows that exploration is no longer about brief heroes. It is about adaptability and understanding ourselves as deeply as the worlds we seek to explore. In learning how to live on the Moon, we may learn as much about life on Earth as we do about our future beyond it. 8. What’s the main idea of the first paragraph? A. Humans will return to the Moon soon. B. The Apollo program was very successful. C. NASA plans to build a long-term Moon base. D. Astronauts will work at the Moon’s South Pole. 9. What does the underlined word “sustainably” in paragraph 3 probably mean? A. Sharply. B. Lastingly. C. Immediately. D. Originally. 10. Why does the author mention low-Earth orbit in paragraph 4? A. To prove the low-Earth orbit mission is more dangerous. B. To stress the value of exercising during space missions. C. To present the various methods of protecting astronauts. D. To show the radiation harm to astronauts on the Moon. 11. What is the author’s attitude toward living on the Moon? A. Hopeful. B. Doubtful. C. Worried. D. Unclear. D Labor shortages in agriculture are driving growing interest in robotic systems that can automatically harvest. Yet some crops remain especially challenging for machines. Tomatoes, for example, grow in clusters (群), meaning robots must recognize and remove only the ripe (成熟的) fruit while leaving unripe tomatoes untouched. Doing this requires careful judgment and accurate control. To address this problem, Osaka Metropolitan University Assistant Professor Takuya Fujinaga from Japan developed a method that allows robots to judge how easy each tomato is to harvest before attempting to pick it. Fujinaga’s approach mixes image recognition with data analysis to determine the best direction from which to harvest each tomato. The system studies visual information about the fruit itself, the shape and position of its stems (茎), and whether the tomato is partially hidden by leaves or other parts of the plant. By weighing these factors, the robot can make more informed control decisions and select the approach that offers the highest chance of a successful harvest. In testing, Fujinaga’s system achieved a successful harvest rate of 81%, greatly outperforming expectations. Around one quarter of those successful picks came from tomatoes collected from the right or left side after earlier attempts from the front had failed, indicating that the robot changed its strategy when it met difficulty. The findings show how complex robotic fruit harvesting can be, with factors such as clustered growth, stem shape, surrounding leaves, and visual blockage all playing important roles. Fujinaga said, “This research establishes ‘ease of harvesting’ as a measurable standard, bringing us one step closer to the realization of agricultural robots that can make informed decisions and act intelligently.” Fujinaga expects a future where robots will be able to independently determine whether crops are ready for harvest. “This is expected to start a new form of agriculture where robots and humans work together,” he explained. “Robots will automatically harvest tomatoes that are easy to pick, while humans will deal with the more challenging fruits.” 12. Why is tomato harvesting difficult for robots according to the text? A. Most tomatoes are hidden by leaves. B. Tomato stems are too thin to deal with. C. The robots lack flexible hand movements. D. The clustered fruits need selective picking. 13. What is special about Fujinaga’s robotic system? A. It judges picking possibility first. B. It requires a human helper to operate. C. It only uses image recognition technology. D. It monitors the growth environment of tomatoes. 14. What do the testing results imply about the robotic system? A. It works better from the front. B. It can learn from its mistakes. C. It’s far from the expectation. D. It picks fruits faster than farmers. 15. What does the text mainly talk about? A. Labor shortages in modern agriculture. B. The future of agricultural robotic systems. C. The breakthrough in tomato-harvesting robots. D. Ways to increase tomato harvest production. 第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Organic farming has attracted much attention as people grow more concerned about food safety and environmental protection. Unlike conventional farming, which depends heavily on fertilizers and pesticides, organic farming follows strict guidelines and approaches to keep soil healthy, protect biodiversity, and avoid harmful chemicals. ____16____ Furthermore, they also help keep the environment in good condition in the long run. One important rule of organic farming is taking care of soil. Organic farmers use natural methods like growing different crops in the same area over time to stop pests from building up and enrich the soil. ____17____ The materials, made from rotted (腐烂的) plant and animal waste, add important nutrients (养分) to soil and help good tiny organisms grow. ____18____ For example, organic farms are homes to wild animals such as birds, insects and small mammals. Not using man-made pesticides protects pollinators like bees, which is very important for plants to produce seeds (种子). In addition, organic methods reduce water pollution. No harmful chemicals flow into rivers, lakes or underground water. Despite its benefits, organic farming has problems too. A major issue is the lower production than conventional farming. Without fertilizers to promote growth, crops produce less, which makes organic food more expensive. Moreover, organic certification (认证) costs a lot and takes time, making it hard for small-scale farmers to accept. ____19____ However, organic farming's future looks promising. ____20____ Besides, consumer awareness and demand for organic products grow fast. Governments also support it by increasing research money and eco-friendly agriculture policies. As more recognize its benefits, organic farming will play a bigger role in global food production. A. These methods make sure food is healthy. B. Organic farming works with nature to produce food. C. Organic farming also benefits biodiversity and the environment. D. These challenges limit its development, even as the demand rises. E. Many consumers pay more for organic products for health benefits. F. Another natural thing to improve soil in organic farming is farm wastes. G. Advances in techniques, like better soil management, increase crop production. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 On my way to meet an old friend I hadn’t seen for years, I drove into the restaurants car park (停车场). I ____21____ him standing by the entrance. After parking, I walked towards him but saw a beggar sitting near the far end of the ____22____. I stopped for a moment and handed him some spare ____23____ before continuing. When I ____24____ my friend, I noticed him gently shaking his head from side to side. “You’ve always been too ____25____,” he said. “How do you know he really needs help? What if he ____26____ your money on bad habits?” We spent an hour eating and ____27____ what had happened in our lives over the years. Then we split (分摊) the bill ____28____. My friend shook his head again when he saw me leave a large tip for the waitress. “You never change!” he said. I laughed. As he drove off, I thought about his ____29____. His wallet was ____30____ more filled than mine, but I knew my heart felt much lighter than his. In the world’s view, he was richer, but in my own heart, I felt ____31____. I have long held the ____32____ that we should treat everyone with love. We are taught to see every person as a friend, no matter their background. It really makes no ____33____ whether they are rich or poor, healthy or sick, homeless or disabled. Don’t be afraid to have a soft ____34____. Every little bit of love we give helps make the world a better place. That is a truth I will always ____35____. 21. A. reached out B. looked forward to C. called on D. took notice of 22. A. park B. district C. building D. sidewalk 23. A. labels B. food C. change D. envelopes 24. A. complained B. approached C. sought D. rejected 25. A. generous B. frank C. shallow D. intelligent 26. A. earns B. occupies C. wastes D. claims 27. A. arguing B. comparing C. integrating D. sharing 28. A. equally B. eagerly C. briefly D. neatly 29. A. warnings B. comments C. items D. options 30. A. barely B. mysteriously C. occasionally D. definitely 31. A. sharper B. intenser C. wealthier D. tougher 32. A. mission B. preference C. pattern D. belief 33. A. difference B. sense C. fortune D. reaction 34. A. character B. heart C. standard D. voice 35. A. ignore B. question C. treasure D. clarify 第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Wu Yize is a professional snooker (斯诺克) player from Lanzhou, Gansu, China. Born on 14 October, 2003, he has quickly become one of the most exciting young ____36____ (talent) in the sport. In May 2026, Wu made history by winning the World Snooker Championship, ____37____ (defeat) Shaun Murphy in a dramatic final. At just 22 years old, he became the first post-2000 player and only the second Chinese ____38____ (claim) snooker's most famous title. His rise has been rapid. Wu turned professional in 2021 and ____39____ (name) Rookie (新人) of the Year in 2022. He won his first ranking title at the 2025 International Championship, where he produced four century breaks (四杆破百) and beat John Higgins 10-6. That victory served ____40____ a sign that he was now among the top players. Wu is a player ____41____ extraordinary long potting (击球入袋) sets him apart from others — many experts consider him the best long-range potter in the game today. When under pressure, he can ____42____ (instant) turn defence into attack with impossible pots. What's more, Wu is not just ____43____ fearless attacker; his safety play and smart decision-making have also improved a lot. During his 2026 world title run, he defeated Mark Selby, in which he showed great ____44____ (brave) and all-round skill. Off the table, Wu is known for his constant practice — often training over six hours a day. Since winning the world championship, he ____45____ (set) his sights on more titles and aimed to inspire a new generation of Chinese snooker players. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 46. 假定你是李华，下周有英国学生访问团到你校参观，并参加“校园科技展”（Campus Science Fair），你将作为学生代表致欢迎辞。请为此写一篇发言稿，内容包括： 1．表示欢迎； 2．介绍活动安排（至少两项）。 注意： 1．写作词数应为80左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Good morning, dear friends! ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ I hope you enjoy the fair and thank you for coming! 第二节(满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 In late February, the Van Heerden family’s dog Coco disappeared from their home, leaving the family, especially the young brothers sad. The two brothers had grown inseparable from Coco. They spent nights searching their neighborhood, posting “Lost Dog” posters on every street. They even left a bowl of food and a blanket (毯子) by the door each night, refusing to let hope fade entirely. At the same time, they reported their dog’s missing to the police station. As time passed week by week, the family gradually lost their original optimism (乐观), yet their daily practice of holding onto hope remained unshaken. “We knew Coco might be gone,” Helen Van Heerden recalled, “but those small acts kept us connected to the possibility of her return. “The brothers’ dedication (奉献) — staying up late to check parks and small streets, asking neighbors for clues — proved that love can last a long time. The good news came on a Saturday morning in mid-March. As the family packed for a weekend trip, Helen’s phone rang. Adicia Thomas, an officer from the police station, spoke in a rush, “We’ve found Coco! A woman named Joy Matodzi rescued her — she’s safe.” Alicia Thomas told them the whole story. Weeks earlier, Joy Matodzi, an animal lover who ran a small vegetable stand, was walking home when she saw a man mistreating a trembling dog on a dirt road. When she saw its silver collar (颈圈) and its tearful eyes, she immediately knew that she must help that dog. She was sure that no pet should be treated like trash. When the man demanded $15 to free the dog, Joy paid without hesitation, and then she rushed to the police station to report it. After Alicia Thomas detailed the story, he asked the Van Heerden family to come to the police station to bring the dog home. 注意： 1.续写词数应为150个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 The family gave up their trip and drove to the police station in high spirits. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Inspired by what Joy did, the two brothers decided to help animals in need. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2026年春高一期末考前错题练 英语试题 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 考试时间为120分钟，满分150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Changing a schedule. B. Catching a train. C. Booking a ticket. 2. What does the woman invite the man to do tomorrow? A. Visit a park. B. Fix up a garden. C. Come to her grandma's house. 3. What's the most possible relationship between the speakers? A. Neighbors. B. Classmates. C. Workmates. 4. What makes the woman feel more prepared for a possible flood? A. Experiencing a flood before. B. Taking a lesson from her teacher. C. Watching the news about a flood. 5. How can Johnson improve his story? A. By adding more key points. B. By correcting spelling mistakes. C. By cutting out the repetitive content. 第二节(共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. How does David find Amy? A. She is always strict. B. She is a slow learner. C. She is good at teamwork. 7. Who will the woman talk to next? A. Amy. B. Lily. C. Jack. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What is Mary's main problem? A. She doesn't like science class. B. She does poorly in Mr. Li's class. C. She has difficulty in taking notes. 9. How does Mary usually prepare for a test? A. She studies with a partner. B. She visits the teacher's web page. C. She reads her notes the night before. 10. How does Mary feel at the end of the conversation? A. Confident. B. Proud. C. Stressed. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. What does the man say about the Color Fun Run? A. It's a long race. B. It's a community activity. C. It's challenging. 12. How much does it cost to run? A. $3. B. $6. C. $15. 13. What will Elizabeth do on Saturday? A. Throw colored water. B. Make water bags. C. Run with her brother. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What did people enjoy seeing this morning? A. Paintings from France. B. Calligraphy from China. C. Pottery (陶器) from Brazil. 15. What are the speakers trying to do? A. To present worldwide art styles. B. To protect traditional art skills. C. To select and train young artists. 16. When time will the visiting group meet in the showroom tomorrow? A. At 8:00. B. At 8:30. C. At 9:00. 17. What will the group do tomorrow? A. Create artworks. B. Meet skilled artists. C. Share some thoughts. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. When did Elon Musk create his first video game? A. In 1981. B. In 1983. C. In 1985. 19. What is SpaceX known for achieving in 2020? A. Building high-speed tunnels. B. Carrying out a Mars mission. C. Sending astronauts to the space station. 20. Why does the speaker give this talk? A. To introduce an influential figure. B. To share a piece of business news. C. To show a potential industry in future. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. D 2. B 3. D B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. C 5. B 6. A 7. C C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. B 10. D 11. A D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. D 13. A 14. B 15. C 第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. A 17. F 18. C 19. D 20. G 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. D 31. C 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. C 第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. talents 37. defeating 38. to claim 39. was named 40. as 41. whose 42. instantly 43. a 44. bravery 45. has set 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 【46题答案】 【答案】Good morning, dear friends! Welcome to our school! I’m Li Hua. I’m happy to have you here for our Campus Science Fair. Let me tell you about today’s activities. First, you can visit the Student Invention Show. Our students will show their cool projects. Next, you can try the Robot Play Zone. You can control robots and have fun. You can also ask our students how the robots work. Finally, we have some fun games for you to play together. I’m sure you will have a great time here. I hope you enjoy the fair and thank you for coming! 第二节(满分25分) 【47题答案】 【答案】 The family gave up their trip and drove to the police station in high spirits. As soon as they entered the room, Coco let out an excited bark and dashed toward the brothers, who knelt down to hug her tightly. Tears of joy rolled down their cheeks as they stroked her shaggy fur, checking if she was hurt. Helen held Coco in her arms, murmuring, “We thought we’d lost you forever.” When they met Joy, the family thanked her repeatedly, offering money as a reward, but Joy refused with a smile, saying, “Anyone who loves animals would do the same.” Inspired by what Joy did, the two brothers decided to help animals in need. They used their pocket money to buy food and water bowls, placing them in parks for stray animals. With their parents’ help, they set up a small “animal rescue corner” in their yard, where they took care of injured cats and dogs they found. They also made posters to call on neighbors to treat animals kindly. Whenever someone asked why they did this, the brothers would say proudly, “Joy saved Coco, and we want to pass on her kindness.” 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $