河北沧州市盐山县韩集中学2025-2026学年度七年级第二学期期末学业水平监测英语(冀教版)

2025～2026学年度 七年级第二学期期末学业水平监测 英语（冀教版） （考试时间：120分钟，满分：120分） 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 1.A.I have art on Tuesday. B.It’s interesting. C.Me, too, 2.A.Yes, I am. B.I like reading. C.To go on a trip. 3.A.OK, I won’t. B.Not bad. C.It’s healthy. 4.A.Yes, I am. B.Yes, I’d like to. C.Sorry, I can’t. 5.A.Twice a month. B.10 yuan. C.Yes, please. 第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共13小题；每小题1分，满分13分） 6.What club does Peter go to every Sunday? A. B. C. 7.Where is Jack now? A. B. C. 8.What does Lily think of the farm? A.Big. B.Beautiful. C.Interesting. 9.What plants can Lily see on the farm? A.Potato plants. B.Tomato plants. C.Carrot plants. 10.What are they going to do on Saturday? A.To visit their friends. B.To watch a movie. C.To see animals. 11.What instrument is Emma learning? A.The piano. B.The violin. C.The guitar. 12.When will they play chess? A.This afternoon. B.On Tuesday. C.On Thursday. 13.When does Jane have the first class? A.At 1:00. B.At 1:30. C.At 2:00. 14.What’s Jane’s favourite subject? A.English. B.Science. C.PE. 15.Why does Mike like history best? A.Because it’s interesting. B.Because it’s relaxing. C.Because it’s easy. 16.Where will Lucy go this weekend? A.To Tianjin. B.To Shanghai. C.To Beijing. 17.Who will Lucy visit there? A.Her friend. B.Her cousin. C.Her teacher. 18.When will Mike have a geography test? A.Next Monday. B.Next Tuesday. C.Next Wednesday. 第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分） 19.When was the Sports Day held? A.On October 19. B.On October 20. C.On October 21. 20.What event did Class Five win? A.The high jump. B.The long jump. C.The 400-metre running. 21.Which class won the basketball game? A.Class Four. B.Class Seven. C.Class Ten. 22.Where does Amily come from? A.England. B.America. C.China. 23.Who is good at singing? A.Amily. B.Lucy. C.Emma. 24.How do they usually go to school? A.By bike. B.By bus. C.On foot. 25.What’s the weather like today? A.It’s sunny. B.It’s cloudy. C.It’s rainy. 第四节 听短文填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） Junk Food Parents’ attitude don’t ________ their children to eat too much Frequency (频度) every day, once or twice a ________ Paul have the ________ habit Paul’s parents tell him to eat ________ food Doctor’s advice have a good eating habit and do more ________ 第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 Last Friday was our school trip day. I woke up early and looked out of the window. The weather was ____1____ for a trip—it was a sunny day. The sun was shining ____2____, and there was a gentle (温和的) wind. We were all very ____3____ because we were going to the beach. We ____4____ at the school library at 8:00 a. m. and took the school bus. On the bus, we sang our favourite songs happily and played fun games. Everyone was ____5____ a great time. After about an hour’s drive, we finally arrived at the beach. We saw the blue sea and the clean sand. The beautiful sights were like a ____6____. Our teacher said, “You can play volleyball, swim, or just ____7____ on the beach.” I enjoyed swimming with my best friend, Lucy. The water was cool and comfortable. We also picked many ____8____ shells (贝壳) on the beach: they were white, pink, green, brown… When the sun went down, our teacher asked us to ____9____ and get on the bus. We felt a little sad. We took all the ____10____ with us. We wanted to keep the beach clean and beautiful. The trip was too short! I really hope we can have another school trip soon. 1. A. soft B. awful C. enough D. perfect 2. A. slowly B. heavily C. brightly D. hopefully 3. A. glad B. afraid C. thirsty D. unhappy 4. A. met up B. got out C. went away D. dropped off 5. A. doing B. making C. having D. playing 6. A. book B. cloud C. smile D. painting 7. A. ride B. rush C. relax D. skate 8. A. ugly B. grey C. real D. colourful 9. A. kick B. leave C. shout D. explore 10. A. sand B. litter C. tents D. jackets 第二节 短文填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或填入括号内单词的正确形式。 In our class, some students have bad eating habits. David ate six ____11____ (hamburger) yesterday evening. He ____12____ (feel) awful this morning. He almost couldn’t get ____13____ (him) out of bed. His mother took him to see the doctor ____14____ (quick). The doctor said eating too much food is ____15____ (danger). His mother said eating fast food is bad for health. David agreed ____16____ them. He wanted ____17____ (eat) more vegetables and fruit. Nancy also ____18____ (have) a bad habit. She likes eating ice cream ____19____ chocolate. At _____20_____ start of this year, she was healthy. But now she has a weight problem. She often feels _____21_____ (sleep) in class. To keep healthy, she says she _____22_____ (jog) next week. _____23_____ can we learn from David and Nancy? We should take care _____24_____ our health. Let’s start from today. Eating healthy food is a smart _____25_____ (choose). I think we all can do it. 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Barry is a student from London. His family decides to go on a trip to Beijing next week. They will take a plane on Wednesday evening and arrive in Beijing on Thursday morning. Now the family is preparing for the trip. Barry is looking at the weather in Beijing on his phone. Friday Saturday Sunday Monday Tuesday He makes the following travel plan (计划). Friday Visit the Great Wall and learn about the history. Saturday Take photos and taste some Chinese food. Sunday Watch Beijing Opera (京剧) in the theatre. Monday ________ Tuesday Visit the Palace Museum. 26. When will the family start off their trip? A. On Tuesday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Thursday. D. On Friday. 27. What should Barry wear on Sunday? A. B. C. D. 28. Which of the following is the best plan in “________”? A. Fly a kite. B. Climb mountains. C. Play in the snow. D. Have a boat race. B Little Mouse hoped to build a big and strong house in the forest. One day, there was no water in Poor Frog’s pond (池塘). He had no place to live in. Frog was lucky to meet Little Mouse, and Little Mouse asked him to join the house-building plan. When they collected things to build their house, other animals came one by one. First came the rabbits. Black Eagle ran after them, so they needed to find a safe place. “Everyone is welcome. Come and help us build a house. You will be safe inside,” said Little Mouse. After that, they all worked as a team. Then came Big Bear. “I am alone (孤独的) because others think I am scary,” cried Bear. “Come along and join us. There is so much work you can do,” said Little Mouse. At the same time, some birds flew down from the dying tree. “Someone cut down our tree. How can we live without (没有) it?” “If we work together, no work is too hard,” said Little Mouse. Soon, everyone in the forest knew about Little Mouse’s kindness. They all came to help build the house. It became an animal house for all. 29. Which is the main character (角色) of the story? A. Big Bear. B. Poor Frog. C. Little Mouse. D. Black Eagle. 30. Why did the rabbits join the house-building plan? A. They were alone. B. They had no water. C. They lost their family. D. They needed a safe place. 31. What does the story try to tell us? A. Having a house is lucky. B. Animals need to help each other. C. Kindness can bring everyone together. D. Working together makes everything easy. C What time do you get up? Your answers may be similar because you all live in the same place and have similar routines. But how do daily routines change in different cities? Let’s see the three cities. In Shijiazhuang, the sun rises at about 5 o’clock in summer. People get up at about 6 o’clock. After breakfast, people start their work or study. At noon, they have lunch and take a rest. What time do they finish work? Some people finish work at about 5 p.m. Then they may do some fun activities. But the sun rises at about 7 o’clock in Urumqi (乌鲁木齐). In summer, people there start work at about 10 a.m. They have lunch around 2 p. m. In the afternoon, people work from 4 p.m. to 8 p.m. This is because days are very long in Urumqi’s summer. Rovaniemi (罗瓦涅米) is a city in Finland (芬兰). Every year, people there see something amazing: polar day (极昼). The polar day happens from June to July when the sun doesn’t go down at all. To sleep during the bright nights, they have to use eye masks (眼罩). Sometimes, they wake up early because of the long daylight. 32. How does the writer start the text? A. By telling a story. B. By telling the truth. C. By asking a question. D. By listing numbers. 33. In summer what time does the sun rise in Shijiazhuang? A. At about 4 o’clock. B. At about 5 o’clock. C. At about 6 o’clock. D. At about 7 o’clock. 34. Why do people in Urumqi start work at about 10 a. m. in summer? A. It is hot in the morning. B. The days are very long. C. They want to work in the evening. D. They need to have a long breakfast. 35. What can we know from the text? A. People work more time in Urumqi. B. It’s very cold during the polar days. C. The sun goes down at the same time in all cities. D. Some people in Rovaniemi can’t sleep well in summer. D Giraffes are very tall animals in the world. A baby giraffe is about 180 cm tall and its weight is around 68 kg when it comes into the world. Amazingly, it can stand up and even run in two hours. When they grow up, they can stand 6 meters tall. Here’s something really cool: every giraffe’s spots (斑点) are special—no two are the same. A giraffe’s tongue (舌头) is usually black, blue, or purple, and it can be about 50 cm long. This long tongue helps the animal reach leaves high up in trees. Giraffes like to eat leaves, but they also eat flowers and fruits. An adult (成年的) giraffe can eat about 45 kg of leaves in a day. Giraffes often live in groups of 10 to 20. These groups can change every day. The group you see today might not be the same one you see tomorrow. Living in groups benefits giraffes a lot. It keeps them safe and helps them share information about food and water. Giraffes are important to nature. But now they are in danger. People kill them for their meat, coats and tails. Habitat loss (栖息地丢失) is also a big problem. When people cut down trees or build farms, giraffes lose their homes. By learning more about these amazing animals, we can help save them and keep their homes safe for the future. 36. What can a baby giraffe do two hours after it comes into the world? A. Eat leaves. B. Stand up and run. C. Play with other giraffes. D. Drink water from a river. 37. How long can a giraffe’s tongue be? A. 50 cm. B. 68 cm. C. 90 cm. D. 180 cm. 38. What does the underlined word “benefits” in paragraph 3 mean? A. Serves. B. Teaches. C. Changes. D. Removes. 39. Why are giraffes in danger today? ①Because people kill giraffes. ②Because people cut down trees. ③Because the group changes every day. ④Because giraffes can’t find enough leaves. ⑤Because people build farms in their habitats. A. ①②③ B. ②③⑤ C. ②④⑤ D. ①②⑤ 40. What is the best title (标题) for the text? A. Giraffes’ Group Life B. The Amazing Giraffes C. Giraffes’ Special Spots D. Save the Forest for Giraffes 第二节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，简略回答问题。 Do you know pickleball (匹克球)? Much like tennis and ping-pong, it’s a popular sport. Pickleball is easy and fun to play. There are two or four players in a game. Players hit a ball over a net with paddles (拍). The paddles are large. The rule of the game is that if a player (or a team) first gets 11 points (分) and also leads (领先) by 2 points or more, then that player or the team wins the game. For example, if it’s 10 to 10, one player has to make it 12 to 10 to win the game. People started to play the game in the 1960s. Some parents were on holiday. They hoped to find a fun activity for the whole family. So they came up with the sport. No one is sure how the sport got its name. Most people believe it got its name from a dog. The dog’s name was Pickles. When people first played the game, Pickles ran after the ball. So everyone called it “Pickles’ ball.” Later, it became “pickleball.” Kara Foster tried the game this year. Like many others, she loved the sport and now plays it every day. “It helps me keep healthy,” she says. “Best of all, it’s easy for me to talk with my friends when playing the sport.” 41. How many players are there in a pickleball game? ___________________________________________________________________________________________ 42. When did people start to play pickleball? ___________________________________________________________________________________________ 43. What did everyone call pickleball at first? ___________________________________________________________________________________________ 44. How often does Kara Foster play pickleball now? ___________________________________________________________________________________________ 45. Do you want to play pickleball? Why or why not? ___________________________________________________________________________________________ 第四部分 情景交际（满分10分） 补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。 A: Hello! I’m a reporter of School Life. Can I ask you some questions? B:_______________46_______________. A: You look very healthy. How do you keep healthy? B: I eat many vegetables and fruit, and drink milk every day. I also exercise. A:_______________47_______________? B: Yes, I like it very much. But I eat junk food only once a month, because it’s bad for us. A:_______________48_______________? B: Every day. I either take a walk or play sports after dinner with my parents. A:_______________49_______________? B: No. I hardly ever stay up late. I always have enough sleep every night. A:_______________50_______________? B: About eight hours. A: You have a good lifestyle. Thank you very much. 第五部分 写作（满分15分） 书面表达 51. 大家都知道植物对我们人类、动物以及周围的环境都非常重要。假如你叫李华，请你根据以下提示，以“Why Are Plants Important?”为题，从三个方面谈论一下植物的重要性，并呼吁大家爱护花草树木。 Why Are Plants Important? For people: give us basic needs (基本需求), get food, medicine … For animals: live in the forest, eat the fruit For the environment: clean the air, stop the water from washing the soil away … 要求： 1.短文应包括提示中所有的写作要点； 2.条理清晰，行文连贯，可适当发挥； 3.文中不能出现真实的人名、校名等信息； 4.词数：80左右，文章标题和开头已给出（不计入总词数）。 Why Are Plants Important? Plants are very important for people, animals and the environment. Now let me introduce the importance of plants to you. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025～2026学年度 七年级第二学期期末学业水平监测 英语（冀教版） （考试时间：120分钟，满分：120分） 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 1.A.I have art on Tuesday. B.It’s interesting. C.Me, too, 2.A.Yes, I am. B.I like reading. C.To go on a trip. 3.A.OK, I won’t. B.Not bad. C.It’s healthy. 4.A.Yes, I am. B.Yes, I’d like to. C.Sorry, I can’t. 5.A.Twice a month. B.10 yuan. C.Yes, please. 第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共13小题；每小题1分，满分13分） 6.What club does Peter go to every Sunday? A. B. C. 7.Where is Jack now? A. B. C. 8.What does Lily think of the farm? A.Big. B.Beautiful. C.Interesting. 9.What plants can Lily see on the farm? A.Potato plants. B.Tomato plants. C.Carrot plants. 10.What are they going to do on Saturday? A.To visit their friends. B.To watch a movie. C.To see animals. 11.What instrument is Emma learning? A.The piano. B.The violin. C.The guitar. 12.When will they play chess? A.This afternoon. B.On Tuesday. C.On Thursday. 13.When does Jane have the first class? A.At 1:00. B.At 1:30. C.At 2:00. 14.What’s Jane’s favourite subject? A.English. B.Science. C.PE. 15.Why does Mike like history best? A.Because it’s interesting. B.Because it’s relaxing. C.Because it’s easy. 16.Where will Lucy go this weekend? A.To Tianjin. B.To Shanghai. C.To Beijing. 17.Who will Lucy visit there? A.Her friend. B.Her cousin. C.Her teacher. 18.When will Mike have a geography test? A.Next Monday. B.Next Tuesday. C.Next Wednesday. 第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分） 19.When was the Sports Day held? A.On October 19. B.On October 20. C.On October 21. 20.What event did Class Five win? A.The high jump. B.The long jump. C.The 400-metre running. 21.Which class won the basketball game? A.Class Four. B.Class Seven. C.Class Ten. 22.Where does Amily come from? A.England. B.America. C.China. 23.Who is good at singing? A.Amily. B.Lucy. C.Emma. 24.How do they usually go to school? A.By bike. B.By bus. C.On foot. 25.What’s the weather like today? A.It’s sunny. B.It’s cloudy. C.It’s rainy. 第四节 听短文填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） Junk Food Parents’ attitude don’t ________ their children to eat too much Frequency (频度) every day, once or twice a ________ Paul have the ________ habit Paul’s parents tell him to eat ________ food Doctor’s advice have a good eating habit and do more ________ 第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 【1~10题答案】 【答案】1. D 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. B 第二节 短文填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 【11~25题答案】 【答案】11. hamburgers 12. felt 13. himself 14. quickly 15. dangerous 16. with 17. to eat 18. has 19. and 20. the 21. sleepy 22. will jog 23. What 24. of 25. choice 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【26~28题答案】 【答案】26. B 27. A 28. C B 【29~31题答案】 【答案】29. C 30. D 31. C C 【32~35题答案】 【答案】32. C 33. B 34. B 35. D D 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. B 37. A 38. A 39. D 40. B 第二节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 【41~45题答案】 【答案】41. Two or four. 42. In the 1960s. 43. Pickles’ ball. 44. Every day. 45. Yes, I do. Because it is fun and healthy. 第四部分 情景交际（满分10分） 补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 【46~50题答案】 【答案】46. Sure 47. Do you like junk food 48. How often do you exercise 49. Do you often stay up late 50. How long do you sleep every night 第五部分 写作（满分15分） 书面表达 【51题答案】 【答案】One possible version: Why Are Plants Important? Plants are very important for people, animals and the environment. Now let me introduce the importance of plants to you. Plants are important for humans. They meet our basic needs. We get food like rice and vegetables from plants. Many medicines also come from plants. Plants are important for animals. Without plants, they will have no home or food. Besides, plants are important for the environment. They help clean the air. They stop the water from washing the soil away. This helps protect our land. In a word, plants are so important to us. We should protect them and try our best to plant more trees. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $