精品解析:河北省沧州市盐山县2024-2025学年七年级下学期7月期末考试英语试题

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2025-07-31
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学段 初中
学科 英语
教材版本 -
年级 七年级
章节 -
类型 试卷
知识点 -
使用场景 同步教学-期末
学年 2025-2026
地区(省份) 河北省
地区(市) 沧州市
地区(区县) 盐山县
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发布时间 2025-07-31
更新时间 2025-07-31
作者 学科网试题平台
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审核时间 2025-07-31
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盐山县2024-2025学年度第二学期期末教学质量评估 七年级英语试题 注意事项:1.本试卷共8页,总分120分,考试时间120分钟。 2. 答题前,考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。 3. 所有答案均在答题卡上作答,在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前,请仔细阅 读答题卡上的“注意事项”,按照“注意事项”的规定答题。 4. 答选择题时,用2B 铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;答非选择题时, 请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。 5. 考试结束时,请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第 一 部分听力(共四节,满分30分) 第一节听句子,选择最佳答语( 共 5 题 ; 每 题 1 分,满分5分) 1. A.It's fun. B.Yes,please. C.Yes,I do. 2.A.That's all right. B.Thanks a lot. C.Don't mention it 3.A.Great idea. B.Me too. C.It's boring. 4.A.Yes,please. B.Of course not. C.Have a good time. 5.A.Beef soup. B.Sounds good. C.A large bowl. 第二节 听对话和问题,选择正确答案(共13题;每题1分,满分13分) 6. What’s the man’s favorite animal? A. B. C. 7. What did the boy's class do last week? A. B. C. 8.Who is Mike talking to? A.Tina. B.Bob. C.Peter. 9.What's Mike doing? A.He is having lunch. B.He is washing his clothes. C.He is running. 10.Where do the students do morning exercises? A.On the sports field. B.In the gym. C.On the playground. 11.What do the parents do after they see the students'works of art? A.Do different kinds of sports.B.Watch one of the lessons. C.Have a parents'meeting. 12.When does Mary do the cooking? A.From Monday to Friday. B.On Saturdays. C.On Sundays. 13.What is Mary good at cooking? A.Mcat. B.Fish and potatocs. C.Eggs. 14.Who docs thc cooking on wcckcnds? A.Mary. B.Mary's mothcr. C.Mary's father 15.What timc docs the show start cvery Saturday? A.At 9:15 a.m. B.At9:45 p.m. C.At 9:15 p.m. 16.Why does Amy want to go to thc supermarkct? A.To buy some fruit. B.To take a walk. C.To gct somcthing frce. 17.Where is the supcrmarket? A.In City Park. B.Next to City Park. C.In front of City Park. 18.How far is the supermarket? A.It's a ten-minute walk. B.It's ten kilometcrs away. C.It's a ten-minutc ride. 听短文和问题,选择正确答案 19.What color doesn't David like? A.Brown. B.Blue. C.White. 20.What doesn't David like to eat? A.Bread. B.Chicken. C.Icc-cream. 21.What fruit does David eat in the afternoon? A.An apple. B.A banana. C.An orange. 22.What's in the speaker's hometown? A.Many clubs. B.Many schools. C.Many parks. 23.What is the homework club like? A.Boring. B.Popular. C.Interesting. 24.What do the teachers do in the homework club? A.Teach students to sing.B.Teach students to learn.C.Help the students with their homework. 25.What do the students do after they finish their homework? A.Leave and go home. B.Play sports. C.Play computer games. 听短文填空 My Friend's Weekend 1.help his mom ________ apples in the garden 2.meet his ________ Lily,at the park 3.walk ________the river and talk happily 4.use_ _______ to draw a bird on the ground 5.An old man gave them ________ on drawing. 第二部分语言运用(共两节,满分25分) 第一节完形填空( 共 1 0 题:每题1分,满分10分) 阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。 Some people like pandas because they’re cute. Some people like dogs because they can ____1____ people do many things. I only like ____2____ because they are big and strong. But many people think tigers are ____3____, because they like to take other animals as food. Tigers can run ____4____, so they are good at catching other animals. Usually they ____5____ in the daytime. But when night comes, they look for food and water. A tiger lives all by itself during most of its life, but baby tigers live with their family before they are 2 or 3 years old. When they grow up, the mother tigers will ____6____ them. Now, lots of tigers are in ____7____. Many bad people kill tigers ____8____ their fur and meat. They use their fur to make clothes and bags. They sell their meat to people for meals. We must stop this. And we should do something to ____9____ tigers, because animals are also our friends. If we do ____10____, soon there will be no tigers in the world! 1. A. teach B. help C. show D. listen 2 A. pandas B. lions C. tigers D. elephants 3. A. lazy B. cute C. beautiful D. dangerous 4. A. early B. quick C. fast D. slowly 5. A. sleep B. run C. practice D. watch 6. A. protect B. leave C. fight D. follow 7. A. event B. happiness C. danger D. luck 8. A. on B. in C. about D. for 9. A. hunt B. save C. connect D. donate 10. A. everything B. anything C. nothing D. something 【答案】1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. C 【解析】 【导语】本文主要介绍了人们对不同动物的喜爱原因,重点阐述了老虎的特点、生活习性等。 【1题详解】 句意:有些人喜欢狗,因为它们能帮助人们做很多事情。 teach教;help帮助;show展示;listen听。根据“Some people like dogs because they can...people do many things.”和常识可知,狗能“帮助”人们做很多事,此处选help。故选B。 【2题详解】 句意:我只喜欢老虎,因为它们又大又强壮。 pandas熊猫;lions狮子;tigers老虎;elephants大象。根据“I only like...because they are big and strong.”后文多次提及老虎相关内容可知,这里作者喜欢的是“老虎”。故选C。 【3题详解】 句意:但很多人认为老虎很危险,因为它们喜欢把其他动物当作食物。 lazy懒惰的;cute可爱的;beautiful美丽的;dangerous危险的。根据“because they like to take other animals as food”可知,很多人觉得老虎“危险”。故选D。 【4题详解】 句意:老虎能跑得很快,所以它们擅长捕捉其他动物。 early早早地;quick快的,形容词;fast快地,副词;slowly慢地。根据“Tigers can run..., so they are good at catching other animals.”可知,是指老虎跑得快,这里需要一个副词修饰动词“run”,表示“跑得快”用“fast”。故选C。 【5题详解】 句意:通常它们白天睡觉。 sleep睡觉;run跑;practice练习;watch观看根据后文“But when night comes, they look for food and water.”可知,白天老虎“睡觉”。故选A。 【6题详解】 句意:当它们长大后,母老虎会离开它们。 protect保护;leave离开;fight打架;follow跟随。根据“When they grow up, the mother tigers will...them.”可知,前文说幼虎和家人生活,长大后自然是母老虎“离开”它们。故选B。 【7题详解】 句意:现在,很多老虎处于危险之中。 event事件;happiness幸福;danger危险;luck运气。根据“Now, lots of tigers are in...”可知,“in danger”意为“处于危险中”,是固定短语。故选C。 【8题详解】 句意:很多坏人捕杀老虎是为了它们的皮毛和肉。 on在……上;in在……里;about关于;for为了。根据“Many bad people kill tigers...their fur and meat.”可知,这里表示捕杀老虎的目的,用“for”。故选D。 【9题详解】 句意:而且我们应该采取措施拯救老虎,因为动物也是我们的朋友。 hunt打猎;save拯救;connect连接;donate捐赠。根据“And we should do something to...tigers, because animals are also our friends.”和前文指出老虎面临危险以及后文强调动物是朋友可知,这里表示要“拯救”老虎。故选B。 【10题详解】 句意:如果我们什么都不做,很快世界上就不会有老虎了! everything每件事;anything任何事;nothing没有什么;something某事。根据“soon there will be no tigers in the world”可知,这是如果“什么都不做”的后果。故选C。 第二节短文填空(共15题;每题1分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。 Last weekend, I visited a small town with my family. This was my ____11____ (one) time to visit the small town. In ____12____ morning, we walked along the main street. My father ____13____ (point) to a tall tower and said, “That’s the town’s symbol (象征).” Then we went into a ____14____ (tradition) museum and saw some ancient instruments. ____15____ noon, we had lunch in a restaurant. The delicious ____16____ (dish) were popular, especially the fish. After ____17____ (eat), my sister and I started to look for interesting shops. We found a bakery and ____18____ (buy) some fresh bread. In the afternoon, we climbed a hill near the town. The project was tiring, ____19____ the lively birds and flowers made it fun. It was very hot, but ____20____ (lucky) we brought enough water. When we got ____21____ the top, we took many photos. On the way back, we met a ____22____ (friend) villager. He shared stories about the town’s history and ____23____ (develop). He also told us that there would be a big festival in the town next month. We decided ____24____ (come) back then. Before leaving, we gave ____25____ (he) a bag of candies for his kindness (善良). We all felt we learned a useful lesson that day—visiting new places can be both exciting and educational. 【答案】11. first 12. the 13. pointed 14. traditional 15. At 16. dishes 17. eating 18. bought 19. but 20. luckily 21. to 22. friendly 23. development 24. to come 25. him 【解析】 【导语】本文作者讲述了上周末和家人一起游览一个小镇的经历,并觉得此次游览既令人兴奋又有教育意义。 【11题详解】 句意:这是我第一次参观这个小镇。根据“This was my...time to visit the small town.”可知,此处表示“第一次”,要用one的序数词first,故填first。 【12题详解】 句意:早上,我们沿着主街散步。根据“In...morning”可知,“in the morning”是固定短语,意为“在早上”,故填the。 【13题详解】 句意:我父亲指着一座高塔说:“那是这个小镇的象征。”根据“My father...to a tall tower and said”可知,“said”表明句子时态是一般过去时,point是并列谓语,也要用过去式pointed,故填pointed。 【14题详解】 句意:然后我们走进了一个传统博物馆,看到了一些古代乐器。根据“Then we went into a...museum”可知,此处要用形容词修饰名词museum,tradition的形容词是traditional,故填traditional。 【15题详解】 句意:中午,我们在一家餐馆吃午饭。根据“...noon, we had lunch in a restaurant.”可知,“at noon”是固定短语,意为“在中午”,首字母大写,故填At。 【16题详解】 句意:美味的菜肴很受欢迎,尤其是鱼。根据“The delicious...were popular”可知,“were”表明主语是复数,dish是可数名词,要用复数形式dishes,故填dishes。 【17题详解】 句意:吃完饭后,我和姐姐开始寻找有趣的店铺。根据“After..., my sister and I started to look for interesting shops.”可知,after是介词,后面接动词-ing形式,故填eating。 【18题详解】 句意:我们找到了一家面包店,买了一些新鲜面包。根据“We found a bakery and...some fresh bread.”可知,“found”表明句子时态是一般过去时,buy是并列谓语,要用过去式bought,故填bought。 【19题详解】 句意:这个项目很累人,但活泼的鸟儿和花朵让它变得有趣。根据“The project was tiring,...the lively birds and flowers made it fun.”可知,前后句子是转折关系,所以用连词but,故填but。 【20题详解】 句意:天气很热,但幸运的是我们带了足够的水。根据“It was very hot, but...we brought enough water.”可知,此处要用副词修饰整个句子,lucky的副词是luckily,故填luckily。 【21题详解】 句意:当我们到达山顶时,我们拍了很多照片。根据“When we got...the top”可知,“get to”是固定短语,意为“到达”,故填to。 【22题详解】 句意:在回来的路上,我们遇到了一位友好的村民。根据“On the way back, we met a...villager.”可知,此处要用形容词修饰名词villager,friend的形容词是friendly,故填friendly。 【23题详解】 句意:他分享了关于这个小镇的历史和发展的故事。根据“He shared stories about the town’s history and...”可知,and连接两个并列的名词,develop的名词是development,故填development。 【24题详解】 句意:我们决定那时再来。根据“We decided...back then.”可知,“decide to do sth.”是固定用法,意为“决定做某事”,所以此处要用动词不定式to come,故填to come。 【25题详解】 句意:在离开之前,我们给了他一袋糖果以感谢他的善良。根据“Before leaving, we gave...a bag of candies for his kindness (善良).”可知,gave是动词,后面接人称代词的宾格,he的宾格是him,故填him。 第三部分阅读(共两节,满分40分) 第一节阅读理解(共15题;每题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Here is a sign in front of the ticket office of the Snoopy World. Snoopy World Grown-up (成人): $200, Children: $100 (over 10 persons-20% off) Parking: Car $50, Motorcycle: $20 Opening Hours: 9:00 a.m.-6:00 p.m. (Closed on Tuesday) Rules: Watch your children when you visit the Snoopy World. Don’t touch anything in the Snoopy World. No photos! Don’t throw your rubbish anywhere. 26. How long are the business hours for the Snoopy World? A Six hours. B. Seven hours. C. Eight hours. D. Nine hours. 27. Mr. Wang is a teacher in a primary school. He will take 10 of his students to the Snoopy World. How much should he pay? A. $240. B. $800. C. $960. D. $1,200. 28. Mr. and Mrs. Lin will take their sons, John and Steve, to the Snoopy World. If they want to go by car and park their car there. How much will they pay? A. $450. B. $550. C. $650. D. $750. 【答案】26. D 27. C 28. C 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇应用文,通过展示史努比世界售票处前的指示牌信息,向游客提供了门票价格、营业时间、停车费用、规则等实用信息。 【26题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Opening Hours: 9:00 a.m.-6:00 p.m.”可知,史努比世界的营业时间是从上午9点到下午6点,总共9个小时,故选D。 【27题详解】 推理判断题。根据“Grown-up (成人): $200, Children: $100 (over 10 persons-20% off)”可知,成人票200美元一张,儿童票100美元一张,超过10人打八折,王老师和10个学生一共需支付原价票1200美元,打八折后就是960美元,故选C。 【28题详解】 推理判断题。根据“Grown-up (成人): $200, Children: $100 (over 10 persons-20% off)”和“Parking: Car $50, Motorcycle: $20”可知,成人票200美元一张,儿童票100美元一张,汽车停车费50美元,林先生和太太需支付400美元,两个孩子需支付200美元,再加上50美元的停车费,一共650美元。故选C。 B Miss Chen is our art teacher. We can learn some DIY skills in her class. She often teaches us how to paint, do repairs, tie-dye (扎染) clothes, and even cook. On Wednesday, Miss Green gave us a special lesson—making carrot printings. What you need are carrots, thick paint, a large knife, a small knife and some paper. First, decide what shape you would like to print with your carrot. Simple shapes work best and they are the easiest to make. Try hearts, moons, suns, stars and flowers to start with. Once you’ve had some practice, try more shapes like cars, boats, faces and animals. And then, cut a carrot in half with the large knife. Use the small knife to make an outline (轮廓) of the shape you want to make on one half of the carrot. Next, cut away the unwanted carrot. And then put the carrot printing into the thick paint. At last, press (按) the carrot printing onto any paper to make your printings. All of us were very happy to make our own printings. I made heart, flower and face printings and Millie made some printings about her favorite animals. 29. What is not needed in Miss Chen’s class? A. Scissors. B. Paint. C. Knives. D. Paper. 30. What did the writer make? A. Moon and sun printings. B. Heart and flower printings. C. Flower and boat printings D. Moon and rabbit printings. 31. What does the writer think of Miss Chen’s DIY class? A. Boring and tired. B. Interesting and easy. C. Terrible and hard D. Fun and meaningful. 【答案】29. A 30. B 31. D 【解析】 【导语】本文主要讲述了陈老师的艺术课上学生们学习DIY技能的经历,特别是周三制作胡萝卜印章的过程和感受。 【29题详解】 细节理解题。根据“What you need are carrots, thick paint, a large knife, a small knife and some paper.”可知,在陈老师的课上不需要剪刀,故选A。 【30题详解】 细节理解题。根据“I made heart, flower and face printings”可知,作者制作了心形、花朵和脸形印章,故选B。 【31题详解】 观点态度题。根据“All of us were very happy to make our own printings.”以及文中对制作过程的描述可知,作者认为陈老师的DIY课有趣且有意义,故选D。 C Having a net friend (网友) can be great in our life. You can talk about your ideas and feelings with other people on the Internet. Before you make a net friend, it is good to think about the following things. On the Internet, you cannot easily know the real identity (身份) of people like what they work as, how old they are, or where they live. You must be careful (小心的) and never give your address or phone number to them if you are not sure about their real identities. Also, don’t give them your e-mail address, because some bad people can find you very quickly. Never answer a message that gives you a job, money or an invitation, because it’s always a swindle (诈骗). ________ Real friends don’t ask you for money on the Internet. 32. Why is it not easy to know net friends well? ①Because we don’t know how old they are. ②Because we don’t know what they like. ③Because we don’t know where they live. ④Because we don’t know what they work as. A. ①②③④ B. ②④ C. ①③④ D. ②③④ 33. When you are talking with net friends, what can you do? A. Tell them your real phone number. B. Talk about your ideas and feelings. C. Ask them for money. D. Introduce your family members to them. 34. What does the underlined word “them” in the text refer to? A. Your friends. B. Your classmates. C. Your parents. D. People on the Internet. 35. Which of the following is the best for the blank in the last paragraph? A. Never believe someone you know on the Internet. B. Never send money to someone you know on the Internet. C. You can send money to your net friends if you believe in them. D. Net friends are not real friends. 【答案】32. C 33. B 34. D 35. B 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文,围绕结交网友这一主题,向读者介绍了结交网友前需要考虑的事项以及注意的问题。 【32题详解】 细节理解题。根据“On the Internet, you cannot easily know the real identity (身份) of people like what they work as, how old they are, or where they live.”可知,在网上不容易了解网友是因为我们不知道他们的工作、年龄和住址等信息,故选C。 【33题详解】 细节理解题。根据“You can talk about your ideas and feelings with other people on the Internet.”可知,和网友交谈时可以谈论自己的想法和感受,故选B。 【34题详解】 词句猜测题。根据“On the Internet, you cannot easily know the real identity (身份) of people...You must be careful (小心的) and never give your address or phone number to them if you are not sure about their real identities.”可知,“them”指代的是网上的人,故选D。 【35题详解】 推理判断题。根据“Never answer a message that gives you a job, money or an invitation, because it’s always a swindle (诈骗).”以及“Real friends don’t ask you for money on the Internet.”可知,此处应是说永远不要给网上认识的人寄钱,故选B。 D My mum used to (过去常常) ask me what the most important part of the body is, When I was younger, I thought music and talking were the most important things, so I said, “My ears, Mommy.” She said, “No. Many people are deaf (聋的) and they live a happy life. But my son, keep thinking about my question and I will ask you again soon.” Several years passed before she asked me again. This time I told her, “Mommy, sight is very important to everybody, so it must be our eyes.” She looked at me and told me, “You are learning fast, but the answer is not right because there are many people who are blind (盲人) and who are happy and healthy all the same.” Then, last year, my grandpa died. Everybody was crying. My mom asked me, “Do you know the most important body part now, my dear? The most important body part is your shoulder (肩膀).” “Is it because it holds (支撑) up my head?” I asked. “No, it is because it can hold the head of a friend or a loved one when they cry (哭泣).” she answered. “Everybody needs a shoulder to cry on sometime in life. I only hope that you have enough love and friends, and you will always have a shoulder to cry on when you need it.” 36. When the writer was younger, what did he think was the most important part of the body? A. His eyes. B. His shoulder. C. His ears. D. His mouth. 37. What did the writer’s mother say about deaf people? A. They are not happy. B. They can live a happy life. C. They don’t like talking. D. They need special care. 38. What does the underlined word “sight” probably mean? A. how we talk B. how we feel C. what we hear D. what we see 39. Why did the writer’s mother say “You are learning fast, but the answer is not right”? A. She was surprised at her son’s quick leaning. B. She thought her son’s answer was right. C. She was unhappy with her son’s answer. D. She wanted her son to think more carefully. 40. What does the passage mainly tell us? A. The importance of love and friends. B. The importance of different body parts. C. How to help a crying person. D. What to do with deafness and blindness. 【答案】36. C 37. B 38. D 39. D 40. A 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇记叙文,围绕母亲询问作者身体最重要的部位展开,作者从认为是耳朵、眼睛,到最后母亲给出答案是肩膀。母亲通过这个过程向作者传达了每个人在生活中都需要一个可以依靠哭泣的肩膀,即爱和朋友的重要性,强调了人与人之间情感支持的意义。 【36题详解】 细节理解题。根据“When I was younger, I thought music and talking were the most important things, so I said, ‘My ears, Mommy.’”可知,作者年轻时认为身体最重要的部位是耳朵,故选C。 【37题详解】 细节理解题。根据“She said, ‘No. Many people are deaf (聋的) and they live a happy life.’”可知,作者母亲说很多聋人也能过幸福的生活,故选B。 【38题详解】 词句猜测题。根据“‘Mommy, sight is very important to everybody, so it must be our eyes.’”可知,作者提到眼睛,所以“sight”意思是“视力,我们所看到的”,即“what we see”,故选D。 【39题详解】 细节理解题。根据“She looked at me and told me, ‘You are learning fast, but the answer is not right because there are many people who are blind (盲人) and who are happy and healthy all the same.’”可知,母亲说作者学得快但答案不对,是想让作者更仔细地思考,故选D。 【40题详解】 主旨大意题。根据“‘No, it is because it can hold the head of a friend or a loved one when they cry (哭泣).’ she answered. ‘Everybody needs a shoulder to cry on sometime in life. I only hope that you have enough love and friends, and you will always have a shoulder to cry on when you need it.’”可知,文章主要告诉我们爱和朋友的重要性,故选A。 第二节阅读表达(共5题:每题2分,满分10分) 阅读下面短文,简略回答问题。 What is the best age to learn a second language? It is best to learn a second language as early as possible. Now, a new study says that children can learn a second language well before the age of 17 or 18, Newsweek reported. Scientists from Boston University in the US made an online English quiz (测试). About 670,000 people, speaking 38 languages in all, took the quiz. Scientists found that the period of time between 10 to 18 years of age is best for learning a language. Compared with younger children, children within this age group are better prepared to learn different grammar. They can understand grammar rules better. Compared with the older people, children within this age group are also better at remembering words. All of these things help them pick up new languages more easily. But if you want to speak a second language as well as native speaker, you should start earlier. Scientists believe it’s best to start at the age of 10. Younger children’s brains (大脑) are more open to new sounds. So they are better at remembering new songs and pronunciation (发音) and speaking correctly. The Independent reported. 41. What’s the best age range (范围) to learn a second language according to the new study? ________________________________________________________ 42. How many languages do the people who took the English quiz speak? ________________________________________________________ 43. What helps children aged 10-18 pick up new languages more easily? ________________________________________________________ 44. At what age is it best to start to speak a second language like a native speaker? ________________________________________________________ 45. Why are younger children better at remembering new songs and pronunciation? ________________________________________________________ 【答案】41. Between the ages of 10 and 18. 42. 38. 43. They are better prepared to learn different grammar and are also better at remembering words. 44. At the age of 10/Ten. 45. Because younger children’s brains are more open to new sounds. 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文,主要围绕学习第二语言的最佳年龄展开说明。 【41题详解】 根据“Scientists found that the period of time between 10 to 18 years of age is best for learning a language.”可知,科学家发现最好的语言学习年龄是10-18岁。故填Between the ages of 10 and 18. 【42题详解】 根据“About 670,000 people, speaking 38 languages in all, took the quiz.”可知,参加英语测试的人总共说38种语言。故填38. 【43题详解】 根据“Compared with younger children, children within this age group are better prepared to learn different grammar. They can understand grammar rules better. Compared with the older people, children within this age group are also better at remembering words.”可知,10-18岁的孩子比年幼的孩子更能理解语法规则,比年长的人更擅长记忆单词,这些有助于他们更容易学习新语言。故填They are better prepared to learn different grammar and are also better at remembering words. 【44题详解】 根据“But if you want to speak a second language as well as native speaker, you should start earlier. Scientists believe it’s best to start at the age of 10.”可知,要想把第二语言说得像母语者一样,最好在10岁开始。故填At the age of 10/Ten. 【45题详解】 根据“Younger children’s brains (大脑) are more open to new sounds. So they are better at remembering new songs and pronunciation (发音) and speaking correctly.”可知,年幼孩子的大脑对新声音更开放,所以他们更擅长记忆新歌曲和发音。故填Because younger children’s brains are more open to new sounds. 第四部分 情景交际(满分10分) 补全对话 (共 5 题 ; 每 题 2 分 , 满 分 1 0 分 ) 根据下面的对话情景,在空白处填入一个适当的句子,使对话的意思连贯、完整。 A: Tom, I think I need to go on a diet (节食) now. B: Come on, Judy! ____46____? A: Because I feel tired easily and I think I am overweight (超重). B: But I don’t think it is a good idea. ____47____? A: I have sports once a week. B: ____48____? A: About an hour each time, I think. B: Well, do you ride (骑) a bike to school? A: ____49____. I always go to school in my mother’s car. B: I think you can try riding a bike to school twice a week. And you need to join a sports club. A: OK. ____50____. B: You are welcome! 【答案】46. Why do you think so/Why do you want to go on a diet 47. How often do you do/have/play sports 48. How long do you do sports/exercise each time 49. No I don’t 50. Thanks for your ideas/Thank you 【解析】 【导语】本文围绕A想要节食展开,B询问A节食原因,并进一步了解A的运动情况,如运动频率和时长等,得知A不骑车上学后,B给A提出骑车上学和参加运动俱乐部的建议,A表示感谢。 【46题详解】 根据“Because I feel tired easily and I think I am overweight (超重).”可知,A回答了想要节食的原因,所以B问的是A为什么想要节食。故填Why do you think so/Why do you want to go on a diet。 【47题详解】 根据“I have sports once a week.”可知,A回答了运动的频率,所以B问的是A多久做一次运动。故填How often do you do/have/play sports。 【48题详解】 根据“About an hour each time, I think.”可知,A回答了每次运动的时长,所以B问的是A每次运动多长时间。故填How long do you do sports/exercise each time。 【49题详解】 根据“Well, do you ride (骑) a bike to school?”以及“I always go to school in my mother’s car.”可知,B问A是否骑车上学,A回答总是坐妈妈的车上学,所以A的回答是否定的。故填No, I don’t。 【50题详解】 根据“You are welcome!”可知,B回应不用谢,所以A是对B表示了感谢。故填Thanks for your ideas/Thank you。 第 五 部 分 写 作 ( 满 分 1 5 分 ) 书面表达 51. 李华想要参加学校的音乐明星(music star)评选活动。假如你是李华,请根据以下信息,写一封推荐信介绍自己。 Age 15 Favorite musician Lang Lang Hobby sing and play music well, listen to music, have around 200 CDs Activity (活动) Wednesday: sing in the school music club weekends: play the piano and violin 注意:(1)须包括表格中的所有内容,可适当发挥; (2)文章句子通顺,语意连贯,语法规范; (3)词数60个左右(开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数)。 Dear Sir, My name is Li Hua. Music is my life. I hope I can be a music star in our school. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 【答案】One possible version Dear Sir, My name is Li Hua. Music is my life. I hope I can be a music star in our school. I’m 15 years old. I love music very much, and my favorite musician is Lang Lang. I have many hobbies which are related to music. I can sing and play music well. I also like listening to music and I have around 200 CDs. On Wednesday, I sing in the school music club. At weekends, I play the piano and violin. Music is my life. I believe I’m qualified to be a music star. Yours, Li Hua 【解析】 【详解】[总体分析] ①题材:本文一篇书信作文; ②时态:时态主要为“一般现在时”; ③提示:写作要点已给出,考生应注意不要遗漏提示的信息,并适当添加细节,突出写作重点。 [写作步骤] 第一步:介绍自己的身份,表明目的; 第二步:介绍个人基本信息、最喜欢的音乐家、音乐的相关爱好及参加的音乐活动; 第三步:书写结语,再次表达参选意愿。 [亮点词汇] ①be related to和……相关 ②listen to music听音乐 ③be qualified to有资格做 [高分句型] ①I have many hobbies which are related to music.(which引导的定语从句) ②I believe I’m qualified to be a music star.(省略that的宾语从句) 第1页/共1页 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $$ 盐山县2024-2025学年度第二学期期末教学质量评估 七年级英语试题 注意事项:1.本试卷共8页,总分120分,考试时间120分钟。 2. 答题前,考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。 3. 所有答案均在答题卡上作答,在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前,请仔细阅 读答题卡上的“注意事项”,按照“注意事项”的规定答题。 4. 答选择题时,用2B 铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;答非选择题时, 请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。 5. 考试结束时,请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第 一 部分听力(共四节,满分30分) 第一节听句子,选择最佳答语( 共 5 题 ; 每 题 1 分,满分5分) 1. A.It's fun. B.Yes,please. C.Yes,I do. 2.A.That's all right. B.Thanks a lot. C.Don't mention it 3.A.Great idea. B.Me too. C.It's boring. 4.A.Yes,please. B.Of course not. C.Have a good time. 5.A.Beef soup. B.Sounds good. C.A large bowl. 第二节 听对话和问题,选择正确答案(共13题;每题1分,满分13分) 6. What’s the man’s favorite animal? A. B. C. 7. What did the boy's class do last week? A. B. C. 8.Who is Mike talking to? A.Tina. B.Bob. C.Peter. 9.What's Mike doing? A.He is having lunch. B.He is washing his clothes. C.He is running. 10.Where do the students do morning exercises? A.On the sports field. B.In the gym. C.On the playground. 11.What do the parents do after they see the students'works of art? A.Do different kinds of sports.B.Watch one of the lessons. C.Have a parents'meeting. 12.When does Mary do the cooking? A.From Monday to Friday. B.On Saturdays. C.On Sundays. 13.What is Mary good at cooking? AMcat. B.Fish and potatocs. C.Eggs. 14.Who docs thc cooking on wcckcnds? A.Mary. B.Mary's mothcr. C.Mary's father 15What timc docs the show start cvery Saturday? A.At 9:15 a.m. B.At9:45 p.m. C.At 9:15 p.m. 16.Why does Amy want to go to thc supermarkct? A.To buy some fruit. B.To take a walk. C.To gct somcthing frce. 17.Where is the supcrmarket? A.In City Park. B.Next to City Park. C.In front of City Park. 18.How far is the supermarket? A.It's a ten-minute walk. B.It's ten kilometcrs away. C.It's a ten-minutc ride. 听短文和问题,选择正确答案 19.What color doesn't David like? A.Brown. B.Blue. C.White. 20.What doesn't David like to eat? A.Bread. B.Chicken. C.Icc-cream. 21.What fruit does David eat in the afternoon? A.An apple. B.A banana. C.An orange. 22.What's in the speaker's hometown? A.Many clubs. B.Many schools. C.Many parks. 23.What is the homework club like? A.Boring. B.Popular. C.Interesting. 24.What do the teachers do in the homework club? A.Teach students to sing.B.Teach students to learn.C.Help the students with their homework. 25.What do the students do after they finish their homework? A.Leave and go home. B.Play sports. C.Play computer games. 听短文填空 My Friend's Weekend 1.help his mom ________ apples in the garden 2.meet his ________ Lily,at the park 3.walk ________the river and talk happily 4.use_ _______ to draw a bird on the ground 5.An old man gave them ________ on drawing. 第二部分语言运用(共两节,满分25分) 第一节完形填空( 共 1 0 题:每题1分,满分10分) 阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。 Some people like pandas because they’re cute. Some people like dogs because they can ____1____ people do many things. I only like ____2____ because they are big and strong. But many people think tigers are ____3____, because they like to take other animals as food. Tigers can run ____4____, so they are good at catching other animals. Usually they ____5____ in the daytime. But when night comes, they look for food and water. A tiger lives all by itself during most of its life, but baby tigers live with their family before they are 2 or 3 years old. When they grow up, the mother tigers will ____6____ them. Now, lots of tigers are in ____7____. Many bad people kill tigers ____8____ their fur and meat. They use their fur to make clothes and bags. They sell their meat to people for meals. We must stop this. And we should do something to ____9____ tigers, because animals are also our friends. If we do ____10____, soon there will be no tigers in the world! 1. A. teach B. help C. show D. listen 2. A. pandas B. lions C. tigers D. elephants 3. A. lazy B. cute C. beautiful D. dangerous 4. A. early B. quick C. fast D. slowly 5. A. sleep B. run C. practice D. watch 6. A. protect B. leave C. fight D. follow 7. A. event B. happiness C. danger D. luck 8. A. on B. in C. about D. for 9. A. hunt B. save C. connect D. donate 10. A. everything B. anything C. nothing D. something 第二节短文填空(共15题;每题1分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。 Last weekend I visited a small town with my family. This was my ____11____ (one) time to visit the small town. In ____12____ morning, we walked along the main street. My father ____13____ (point) to a tall tower and said, “That’s the town’s symbol (象征).” Then we went into a ____14____ (tradition) museum and saw some ancient instruments. ____15____ noon, we had lunch in a restaurant. The delicious ____16____ (dish) were popular, especially the fish. After ____17____ (eat), my sister and I started to look for interesting shops. We found a bakery and ____18____ (buy) some fresh bread. In the afternoon, we climbed a hill near the town. The project was tiring, ____19____ the lively birds and flowers made it fun. It was very hot, but ____20____ (lucky) we brought enough water. When we got ____21____ the top, we took many photos. On the way back, we met a ____22____ (friend) villager. He shared stories about the town’s history and ____23____ (develop). He also told us that there would be a big festival in the town next month. We decided ____24____ (come) back then. Before leaving, we gave ____25____ (he) a bag of candies for his kindness (善良). We all felt we learned a useful lesson that day—visiting new places can be both exciting and educational. 第三部分阅读(共两节,满分40分) 第一节阅读理解(共15题;每题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Here is a sign in front of the ticket office of the Snoopy World. Snoopy World Grown-up (成人): $200, Children: $100 (over 10 persons-20% off) Parking: Car $50, Motorcycle: $20 Opening Hours: 9:00 a.m.-6:00 p.m. (Closed on Tuesday) Rules: Watch your children when you visit the Snoopy World. Don’t touch anything in the Snoopy World. No photos! Don’t throw your rubbish anywhere. 26. How long are the business hours for the Snoopy World? A. Six hours. B. Seven hours. C. Eight hours. D. Nine hours. 27. Mr. Wang is a teacher in a primary school. He will take 10 of his students to the Snoopy World. How much should he pay? A. $240. B. $800. C. $960. D. $1,200. 28. Mr. and Mrs. Lin will take their sons, John and Steve, to the Snoopy World. If they want to go by car and park their car there. How much will they pay? A. $450. B. $550. C. $650. D. $750. B Miss Chen is our art teacher. We can learn some DIY skills in her class. She often teaches us how to paint, do repairs, tie-dye (扎染) clothes, and even cook. On Wednesday, Miss Green gave us a special lesson—making carrot printings. What you need are carrots, thick paint, a large knife, a small knife and some paper. First, decide what shape you would like to print with your carrot. Simple shapes work best and they are the easiest to make. Try hearts, moons, suns, stars and flowers to start with. Once you’ve had some practice, try more shapes like cars, boats, faces and animals. And then, cut a carrot in half with the large knife. Use the small knife to make an outline (轮廓) of the shape you want to make on one half of the carrot. Next, cut away the unwanted carrot. And then put the carrot printing into the thick paint. At last, press (按) the carrot printing onto any paper to make your printings. All of us were very happy to make our own printings. I made heart, flower and face printings and Millie made some printings about her favorite animals. 29. What is not needed in Miss Chen’s class? A. Scissors. B. Paint. C. Knives. D. Paper. 30. What did the writer make? A. Moon and sun printings. B. Heart and flower printings. C. Flower and boat printings D. Moon and rabbit printings. 31. What does the writer think of Miss Chen’s DIY class? A. Boring and tired. B. Interesting and easy. C. Terrible and hard D. Fun and meaningful. C Having a net friend (网友) can be great in our life. You can talk about your ideas and feelings with other people on the Internet. Before you make a net friend, it is good to think about the following things. On the Internet, you cannot easily know the real identity (身份) of people like what they work as, how old they are, or where they live. You must be careful (小心的) and never give your address or phone number to them if you are not sure about their real identities. Also, don’t give them your e-mail address, because some bad people can find you very quickly. Never answer a message that gives you a job, money or an invitation, because it’s always a swindle (诈骗). ________ Real friends don’t ask you for money on the Internet. 32. Why is it not easy to know net friends well? ①Because we don’t know how old they are. ②Because we don’t know what they like. ③Because we don’t know where they live. ④Because we don’t know what they work as. A. ①②③④ B. ②④ C. ①③④ D. ②③④ 33. When you are talking with net friends, what can you do? A. Tell them your real phone number. B. Talk about your ideas and feelings. C. Ask them for money. D. Introduce your family members to them. 34. What does the underlined word “them” in the text refer to? A. Your friends. B. Your classmates. C. Your parents. D. People on the Internet. 35. Which of the following is the best for the blank in the last paragraph? A. Never believe someone you know on the Internet. B. Never send money to someone you know on the Internet. C. You can send money to your net friends if you believe in them. D. Net friends are not real friends. D My mum used to (过去常常) ask me what the most important part of the body is, When I was younger, I thought music and talking were the most important things, so I said, “My ears, Mommy.” She said, “No. Many people are deaf (聋的) and they live a happy life. But my son, keep thinking about my question and I will ask you again soon.” Several years passed before she asked me again. This time I told her, “Mommy, sight is very important to everybody, so it must be our eyes.” She looked at me and told me, “You are learning fast, but the answer is not right because there are many people who are blind (盲人) and who are happy and healthy all the same.” Then, last year, my grandpa died. Everybody was crying. My mom asked me, “Do you know the most important body part now, my dear? The most important body part is your shoulder (肩膀).” “Is it because it holds (支撑) up my head?” I asked. “No, it is because it can hold the head of a friend or a loved one when they cry (哭泣).” she answered. “Everybody needs a shoulder to cry on sometime in life. I only hope that you have enough love and friends, and you will always have a shoulder to cry on when you need it.” 36. When the writer was younger, what did he think was the most important part of the body? A. His eyes. B. His shoulder. C. His ears. D. His mouth. 37. What did the writer’s mother say about deaf people? A. They are not happy. B. They can live a happy life. C. They don’t like talking. D. They need special care. 38. What does the underlined word “sight” probably mean? A. how we talk B. how we feel C. what we hear D. what we see 39. Why did the writer’s mother say “You are learning fast, but the answer is not right”? A. She was surprised at her son’s quick leaning. B. She thought her son’s answer was right. C. She was unhappy with her son’s answer. D. She wanted her son to think more carefully. 40. What does the passage mainly tell us? A. The importance of love and friends. B. The importance of different body parts. C. How to help a crying person. D. What to do with deafness and blindness. 第二节阅读表达(共5题:每题2分,满分10分) 阅读下面短文,简略回答问题。 What is the best age to learn a second language? It is best to learn a second language as early as possible. Now, a new study says that children can learn a second language well before the age of 17 or 18, Newsweek reported. Scientists from Boston University in the US made an online English quiz (测试). About 670,000 people, speaking 38 languages in all, took the quiz. Scientists found that the period of time between 10 to 18 years of age is best for learning a language. Compared with younger children, children within this age group are better prepared to learn different grammar. They can understand grammar rules better. Compared with the older people, children within this age group are also better at remembering words. All of these things help them pick up new languages more easily. But if you want to speak a second language as well as native speaker, you should start earlier. Scientists believe it’s best to start at the age of 10. Younger children’s brains (大脑) are more open to new sounds. So they are better at remembering new songs and pronunciation (发音) and speaking correctly. The Independent reported. 41. What’s the best age range (范围) to learn a second language according to the new study? ________________________________________________________ 42. How many languages do the people who took the English quiz speak? ________________________________________________________ 43. What helps children aged 10-18 pick up new languages more easily? ________________________________________________________ 44. At what age is it best to start to speak a second language like a native speaker? ________________________________________________________ 45. Why are younger children better at remembering new songs and pronunciation? ________________________________________________________ 第四部分 情景交际(满分10分) 补全对话 (共 5 题 ; 每 题 2 分 , 满 分 1 0 分 ) 根据下面的对话情景,在空白处填入一个适当的句子,使对话的意思连贯、完整。 A: Tom, I think I need to go on a diet (节食) now. B: Come on, Judy! ____46____? A: Because I feel tired easily and I think I am overweight (超重). B: But I don’t think it is a good idea. ____47____? A: I have sports once a week B: ____48____? A: About an hour each time, I think. B: Well, do you ride (骑) a bike to school? A: ____49____. I always go to school in my mother’s car. B: I think you can try riding a bike to school twice a week And you need to join a sports club. A: OK. ____50____. B: You are welcome! 第 五 部 分 写 作 ( 满 分 1 5 分 ) 书面表达 51. 李华想要参加学校的音乐明星(music star)评选活动。假如你是李华,请根据以下信息,写一封推荐信介绍自己。 Age 15 Favorite musician Lang Lang Hobby sing and play music well, listen to music, have around 200 CDs Activity (活动) Wednesday: sing in the school music club weekends: play the piano and violin 注意:(1)须包括表格中的所有内容,可适当发挥; (2)文章句子通顺,语意连贯,语法规范; (3)词数60个左右(开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数)。 Dear Sir, My name is Li Hua. Music is my life. I hope I can be a music star in our school. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 第1页/共1页 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $$

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