内容正文:
2025 -2026学年七年级下学期期末模拟卷(杭州余杭卷)
英 语
(考试时间:100分钟 试卷满分:120分)
学校:___________姓名:___________班级:___________考号:___________
考生注意:
1.本试题卷共10页,满分120分 。考试时间100分钟。
2.答题前,请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时,请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求,在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答,在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试范围:人教版七年级英语下册全册
第一部分 听力 (满分20分)
第一节:听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。(每小题1分)
1.What time does Betty get up on Sunday?
A.7:30. B.8:00. C.8:30.
2.When will the train leave?
A.At 9:00. B.At 8:20. C.At 9:40.
3.What are they going to do?
A.ride a bike B.fly kites C.have a picnic
4.What is the girl’s favourite sport?
A.Running. B.Playing basketball. C.Playing football.
5.What does the woman have?
A.Beef. B.Rice. C.Pork.
第二节:听下面两段对话。每段对话后有2至3个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。(每小题1.5分)
听下面一段对话,回答下面两个小题。
6.What does the man like doing in his free time?
A.Doing sports. B.Watching TV. C.Painting.
7.What’s the woman’s advice?
A.To go to play sports outside.B.To sit in front of TV. C.To paint in the playground.
听下面一段较长的对话,回答小题。
8.Who did Sarah play with in the competition?
A.Her sister. B.Her classmate. C.Her mother.
9.What time did the competition start?
A.At 8 a.m. B.At 9 a.m. C.At 10 a.m.
10.What place did they win?
A.Second place. B.Third place. C.Fourth place.
第三节:听下面一段独白,独白后有5个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。(每小题1.5分)。
11.When do Americans usually have breakfast ?
A.After eight o’clock in the morning.
B.At eight o’clock in the morning.
C.Before eight o’clock in the morning.
12.Where may working Americans have lunch?
A.At home. B.In the office. C.At the restaurant.
13.What do children usually have for Lunch at school?
A.Eggs. B.Milk. C.Sandwiches.
14.What is the main meal in a day?
A.Breakfast. B.Lunch. C.Supper.
15.What comes last when Americans have supper?
A.Dessert. B.Drinks. C.Meat.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Date: 18 May
Time: 10:00 a.m.-12:00 a.m.
Place: School Hall
Tanghulu Time
Tanghulu is a winter favourite in Beijing.
People put sweet haws or other fruits on a stick.
It first became popular in the Song Dynasty.
Sweet, sour and fun!
Tea Eggs Story
Tea eggs are cooked with tea leaves, spices, and rock candy.
They started in the Qing Dynasty.
People eat them at the Beginning of Summer, one of the 24 solar terms.
One egg, one story.
Sugar-Roasted Chestnuts Joy
When winter arrives, many Chinese people choose sugar-roasted chestnuts.
They began in the Song Dynasty.
The golden chestnuts look nice, smell wonderful and taste delicious.
Yummy and warm.
Come and Join!
Learn to make these traditional snacks.
Get a free snack card at the gate.
See you at the Food Fair!
16.How long will the fair last?
A.1 hour. B.2 hours. C.3 hours. D.4 hours.
17.What do we know about the three snacks from the passage?
A.They are all sweet in taste. B.People eat them only in winter.
C.They have a long history in China. D.People cook them with tea leaves.
18.Where can we read this passage?
A.On a school poster. B.In a cookbook.
C.In a food survey. D.In a history magazine.
B
Joel and Sara are students from China. Now they are in England for their four-week study.
Joel and Sara don’t have many lessons — only two in the morning. In the afternoon they work on their homework, go to interesting places or play sport. It is so much fun. Joel and Sara like talking to other students. They learn a lot about English culture. Their English is very good now, because they practise it every day. In the evening, they sometimes go to the movies.
The best days for Joel and Sara are Saturday and Sunday, because they often go to London on the weekend. They like everything in London, and they like the museums best. Madame Tussaud’s (杜莎夫人蜡像馆) is their favourite museum. There’re lots of wax figures (蜡像) of great people there. It is really attractive.
Four weeks’ time is really short. Joel and Sara need to go home in two days. They have a great time here. It’s difficult for them to say goodbye to their new friends. They will write emails to them when they go back home.
19.Joel and Sara are studying in England for ________.
A.about half a month B.about a month C.about half a year D.about a year
20.From Paragraph 2, we can know that Joel and Sara ________.
A.have only two lessons a day B.usually play sport in the morning
C.read a lot of books about Chinese culture D.sometimes go to the parties in the evening
21.What does the underlined sentence mean?
A.Joel and Sara are interested in Madame Tussaud’s.
B.Joel and Sara don’t like Madame Tussaud’s.
C.Joel and Sara are bored with Madame Tussaud’s.
D.Joel and Sara think Madame Tussaud’s is scary.
22.What does the passage mainly talk about?
A.Joel and Sara’s trip in London. B.Joel and Sara’s weekends in London.
C.Joel and Sara’s weekdays in England. D.Joel and Sara’s study and life in England.
C
Li Hongjia, a 31-year-old teacher from Wuhan, helps deaf (聋的) children learn to speak. She volunteered (志愿) as a university student years ago. “One day I found a child was badly ill. He couldn’t speak but he was active and that touched (感动) me deeply.” Li said. She then decided to help the children more.
After finishing university, Li became a teacher at the center. She worked more than 11 hours a day. She also shared some videos online to teach parents how to help their children. Now she has a lot of fans asking for her ideas. Li also makes some short videos for parents. In one video, she uses a toy elephant to teach the word “ear”, pointing to her own ear and making the child do as what she does.
In the past 13 years, Li has helped about five hundred deaf children go back to ordinary schools like other students. “I am excited to hear the children speaking especially (尤其) when they say ‘mom’ or ‘dad’ for the first time,” Li said, “Sometimes, that first ‘mom’ makes me feel like their mother.”
What makes Li special isn’t just her skills, but her heart. She carries candies in her pocket to cheer the children up and remembers each student’s favorite cartoon characters. “These children’s voices are like tiny seeds,” she says, “With sunlight and rain, they’ll grow into beautiful flowers.”
23.How does Li Hongjia teach the word “ear” in her video?
A.By drawing a picture of an ear.
B.By singing a song about ears.
C.By using a toy elephant and pointing to her ear.
24.What does the underlined word “ordinary” mean in Paragraph 3?
A.Not special. B.Not good. C.Not small.
25.What is Li Hongjia like according to the passage?
A.Funny. B.Shy. C.Helpful.
26.What’s the best title for the passage?
A.A Teacher’s Busy Daily Life
B.How to Use Toys in Teaching
C.Helping Children Find Their Voices
D
When Sammie Vance was eight, she watched a video. In the video, she saw a Buddy Bench.
“What’s a Buddy Bench?” Mom asked.
Sammie explained, “If a student feels lonely, he can sit on the bench. Then other students will come and play with him.”
Sammie wanted one for her school, made from plastic bottles (塑料瓶). Her mom was surprised, but Sammie said a company could turn bottles into benches. “It helps the environment and lonely kids!”
Sammie knew she needed the school’s help. So the next day, she and her mom went to see the headmaster (校长). “We want to recycle (回收利用) bottles and make a Buddy Bench.” Sammie said. The headmaster thought it was a great idea.
Sammie drew a nice picture to tell others about the Buddy Bench. Her mom posted the picture online. They asked friends, family and shops to save bottles for them.
Two months later, they collected more than 1,200 bottles and made three lovely Buddy Benches. Sammie put one bench in the school playground. A little girl sat there quietly. Soon a boy came and said, “Want to play with us?” The girl smiled happily. Seeing the girl smile, Sammie felt warm in her heart.
Now Sammie helps many schools get Buddy Benches. She has given 100 benches to schools in 12 states. Sammie says, “Happiness is not getting. Happiness is giving. When I help others and help the earth, I feel truly happy.”
27.What first gave Sammie the idea of a Buddy Bench?
A.Her mother’s advice. B.A video she watched.
C.Her headmaster’s advice. D.A picture she drew.
28.What is the use of a Buddy Bench?
A.To make the playground beautiful. B.To help students who feel lonely.
C.To collect plastic bottles. D.To give students a place to rest.
29.What is the correct order of the events?
a. Sammie and her mum collected over 1,200 bottles.
b. Sammie watched a video.
c. Sammie and her mom talked to the headmaster.
d. Many schools have got Buddy Benches.
A.b-c-a-d B.a-b-c-d C.b-a-c-d D.c-b-a-d
30.What’s the best title for the passage?
A.The Way to Build a Bench B.A Bottle Recycling Plan
C.A School with a Good Idea D.A Helpful Bench for Lonely Kids
第二节 任务型阅读(共5题,每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面材料,从所给的A—E五张图片中选出正确选项 (其中一项是多余项),并回答第5小题。注意:E全涂。
THE GYM RULES
Ø Children under the age of 16 are NOT allowed (允许) to play inside the gym without parents. 31
Ø Only sports non-marking shoes are allowed inside the gym. No outdoor shoes allowed. 32
Ø No food or drinks (other than water) allowed inside the gym. Only closed lid bottles are allowed. 33
Ø Put all the gym equipment back where it was and keep the gym clean after use. 34
Ø
No dunking or hanging from the basketball rims.
Ø
Be kind to others who are sharing the space. Be safe and have fun.
It’s important that everyone respects and follows the rules above. If you break the rules in the gym, you will lose the right to use the gym.
A. B. C. D. E.
Do you think rules are important? Why? (不超过15词。)
35
第三部分 语言运用 (共三节,满分40分)
第一节 完形填空 (共15 小题,每小题1分,满分15 分)
How can students keep healthy? Many students like 36 very much. But 37 Monday to Friday, they must go to school. So on Saturday 38 Sunday they stay at 39 and watch TV from morning to night. Usually children like to eat 40 .They don’t like 41 or fruit. They don’t 42 that eating more vegetables and fruit is better (更好的) than eating too much meat.
And 43 only do a few minutes of sports or 44 do any sports. It isn’t good for 45 health.
We always 46 ways to keep healthy. We 47 eat a lot of vegetables and fruit, and do enough (足够的) 48 every day. And we should watch TV and read books 49 the right ways. To keep healthy, try to have good living 50 .
36.A.watching TV B.doing sports C.sleeping D.eating fruit
37.A.of B.and C.from D.to
38.A.either B.and C.but D.so
39.A.school B.buses C.shops D.home
40.A.meat B.candy C.fruit D.rice
41.A.eggs B.fish C.vegetables D.milk
42.A.taste B.listen C.hear D.know
43.A.teachers B.children C.women D.men
44.A.often B.sometimes C.usually D.never
45.A.his B.our C.their D.your
46.A.ask for B.think of C.listen to D.hear about
47.A.needn’t B.might C.must D.may
48.A.sports B.housework C.homework D.tests
49.A.for B.on C.at D.in
50.A.habits B.hobbies C.things D.rules
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
A.用方框中所给词汇的适当形式填空,每词限用一次。
family, dangerous, second, friendly, relaxed
Now a lot of 51 keep pets in their houses. Most pets are small animals, such as cats, dogs, fish, snakes, birds and so on.
The dog is the favorite pet. The 52 favourite is the cat and the third favorite is the bird. These small animals are very cute and 53 . People usually have them as their family members. They look after them very well. They let them wear beautiful clothes and they give them nice names. They also offer (提供) their pets nice food. They are 54 to stay with their pets at home. But people have to keep their pets out of 55 every day.
B;阅读下面短文,根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
Life is a 56 (神奇的) journey that brings us both difficulties and beautiful experiences. To make our life meaningful, we should set a clear 57 (目标) and keep working hard for it. No one can know what 58 (发生) in the future, but we can choose to be positive. Even in hard times, we must be brave and never lose 59 (希望).
Last term, I failed my math exam. I felt upset and thought I was not 60 (聪明) enough. I wanted to give up, but my teacher 61 (鼓励) me to keep trying. From then on, I listened carefully in class and did more exercises every day. Little by little, I became more confident in 62 (我自己). I kept practising and never stopped trying. 63 (最后), after months of careful and hard work, I 64 (完成) my final exam with a good grade.
This experience taught me that as long as we keep fighting, our future will be as bright as the 65 (太阳).
第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个恰当的词或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Ross is a 10-year-old boy. He is good at 66 (ride) a bike. Last Sunday, some boys rode 67 (they) bikes to the park. They looked happy except (除……之外) Ross. Ross wasn’t happy 68 he didn’t have a new bike. He rode his 69 (sister) bike. Ross looked at his friends’ nice and new bikes and his old one. Then he 70 (walk) home with his old bike.
“You’re not happy! Why?” his mum asked. Ross told Mum his bike was 71 (old) than others’. He didn’t want to ride it. Mum looked at Ross and said, “I see. Come with me! I think I can 72 (make) you happy!”
Ross didn’t know what his mum would do, but after five 73 (minute), he did. First, Mum cleaned the old bike. Then, she asked Ross to paint (用颜料画) some great pictures on 74 bike. “What do you think 75 the bike now?” Mum asked. “It’s great!” Ross said. “My bike is so cool!” Ross was very happy to have a nice and “new” bike.
第四部分 书面表达 (共一节,满分20分)
76.假设你是李华,你校英语报正在开展“Healthy Habits, Healthy Life”主题征文活动。请你写一篇短文投稿,分享自己的健康习惯(至少2个)及其心得。
Healthy Habits, Healthy Life
Healthy Habits:
☆ Eat healthily
☆ Do sports
☆ ...
Feelings:
☆ Gain happiness
☆ ...
要求:
1.涵盖所有要点,可适当发挥;
2.文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息;
3.词数 60 词左右;开头已给出,不计入总词数。
Healthy habits bring us a happy life.
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参考答案
题号
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
答案
A
A
B
B
B
B
A
B
B
A
题号
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
答案
C
B
C
C
A
B
C
A
B
A
题号
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
答案
A
D
C
A
C
C
B
B
A
D
题号
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
答案
A
C
B
D
A
C
D
B
D
C
题号
46
47
48
49
50
答案
B
C
A
D
A
1.A
【原文】A: What time do you get up on Sunday, Betty?
B: I usually get up at half past seven.
2.A
【原文】M: Hurry up! It’s 8:20. The train is leaving soon.
W: Don’t worry. The train will leave at 9:00. We still have enough time.
3.B
【原文】M: What a fine day! Shall we go to fly kites?
W: That’s a good idea.
4.B
【原文】W: Hey, Jack. What sport do you often do in your free time?
M: I often run. And you?
W: I think running is boring. I like playing basketball best. I often play basketball with my classmates after school.
5.B
【原文】M: Do you have any pork?
W: No, I don’t. But I have some rice.
6.B 7.A
【原文】W: What do you usually do in your free time?
M: I often stay at home and watch TV.
W: That’s not good. You should go outside and play some sports. It’s good for your health.
M: Maybe you’re right. But I’m a bit lazy.
W: Come on! You need to get some fresh air and exercise.
8.B 9.B 10.A
【原文】M: Did you take part in the school table tennis competition last Saturday, Sarah?
W: Yes! I played with my classmate as a team.
M: What time did the competition start?
W: At 9 a.m.
M: How did you do in the competition?
W: We got second place.
11.C 12.B 13.C 14.C 15.A
【原文】
Americans usually eat three meals a day. Breakfast usually comes before eight o’clock in the morning. They usually have eggs, some meat, bread, fruit juice and coffee. Lunches between twelve o’clock and one o’clock. It is like a light meal and working people must take lunch with them or have it near their workplace. Children at school take sandwiches, fruit and cookies with them or eat at school. Supper, the main meal, is between six o’clock and eight o’clock in the evening. People cook it carefully. They may have beef, chicken, turkey or duck. They may also have potatoes, rice, vegetables or salad. The drink is coffee, tea or milk. Then comes the dessert.
16.B 17.C 18.A
本文是一则学校“中国小吃趣味集市”的活动宣传海报,介绍了集市的时间、地点,以及糖葫芦、茶叶蛋、糖炒栗子三种传统小吃的背景,并邀请学生参与活动。
16.文章中“Time: 10:00 a.m.-12:00 p.m.”说明活动持续2小时。
17.文章中“Tanghulu…in the Song Dynasty…Tea eggs…in the Qing Dynasty…sugar-roasted chestnuts…in the Song Dynasty”指出三种小吃分别起源于宋代、清代,都有悠久的历史。
18.本文是学校的活动海报,最可能出现在学校的公告栏(school poster)上。
19.B 20.A 21.A 22.D
本文是一篇记叙文,主要介绍了Joel和Sara在英国为期四周的学习生活,详细描述了他们的课程安排、日常活动、周末行程以及在当地的生活感受。
19.根据文章第一段第二句“Now they are in England for their four-week study.”可知,他们在英国进行为期四周的学习,四周大约相当于一个月。
20.根据文章第二段第一句“Joel and Sara don’t have many lessons — only two in the morning.”可知,他们每天只有两节课。
21.根据文章第三段提到“Madame Tussaud’s... is their favourite museum.”可知,这是他们最喜欢的博物馆,因此划线句子“It is really attractive”意味着他们对此非常感兴趣。
22.通读全文可知,文章介绍了 Joel 和 Sara 在英国的学习时长、日常课程安排、课余活动、周末游览伦敦以及离别感受,全面涵盖了他们在英国的学习和生活情况。
23.C 24.A 25.C 26.C
本文讲述了武汉教师李虹葭帮助听障儿童学习说话的感人故事。
23.第二段指出:“she uses a toy elephant to teach the word ‘ear’, pointing to her own ear”,说明她通过使用玩具大象并指向自己的耳朵来教“耳朵”这个词。
24.第三段中“go back to ordinary schools like other students”,结合前文“Li became a teacher at the center”,听障孩子原本在特殊教育机构学习,现在回归和其他学生一样的普通学校,因此“ordinary”意为“普通的”。
25.全文描述了李虹葭帮助听障儿童学习说话的事迹,说明她乐于助人。
26.全文围绕李虹葭帮助听障儿童发声的故事展开,因此“帮助孩子们找到他们的声音”是最佳标题。
27.B 28.B 29.A 30.D
本文是一篇记叙文,主要讲述了Sammie受视频启发,发起“Buddy Bench”项目,帮助孤独学生的故事。
27.根据第一段中“When Sammie Vance was eight, she watched a video. In the video, she saw a Buddy Bench.”可知,Sammie是通过观看视频首次了解到Buddy Bench的。
28.根据第三段中Sammie的解释“If a student feels lonely, he can sit on the bench. Then other students will come and play with him.”可知,Buddy Bench的用途是帮助感到孤独的学生。
29.根据文章叙述顺序,事件依次为:事件b:Sammie watched a video(Sammie观看了一段视频,对应文章开头,是故事的起因);事件c:Sammie and her mom talked to the headmaster(Sammie和妈妈去找校长沟通,推进项目落地);事件a:Sammie and her mum collected over 1,200 bottles(两人收集了1200多个塑料瓶,制作长椅);事件d:Many schools have got Buddy Benches(许多学校都拥有了Buddy Bench,项目推广开来)。因此正确顺序为b→c→a→d,对应A选项。
30.全文围绕Buddy Bench展开,讲述了它的由来、作用及推广过程,核心是为孤独孩子提供帮助的长椅,D选项“A Helpful Bench for Lonely Kids”最贴合主旨。
31.C 32.E 33.B 34.D 35.Yes. Because rules help to make the world better.
本文是一篇说明文,主要讲述了健身房的一些规则,包括年龄限制、着装要求、饮食规定以及清洁要求等,旨在确保健身房的安全和秩序。
31.文章第1段指出“Children under the age of 16 are NOT allowed to play inside the gym without parents.”,该规则要求儿童需在家长的陪同下进入健身房,与C选项大人牵着小孩的图片相符。
32.文章第2段指出“Only sports non-marking shoes are allowed inside the gym. No outdoor shoes allowed.”,该规则对进入健身房的鞋子提出了要求,与E选项运动鞋的图片相符。
33.文章第3段指出“No food or drinks (other than water) allowed inside the gym. Only closed lid bottles are allowed.”,该规则禁止在健身房内饮食,与B选项禁止饮食的图标相符。
34.文章第4段指出“Put all the gym equipment back where it was and keep the gym clean after use.”,该规则要求保持健身房清洁,与D选项将垃圾扔进垃圾桶的图片相符。
35.本题为开放性试题,询问是否认为规则重要及原因,要求不超过15词。可回答认为重要,因为规则能保护我们的安全并维持良好的秩序。
36.A 37.C 38.B 39.D 40.A 41.C 42.D 43.B 44.D 45.C 46.B 47.C 48.A 49.D 50.A
本文围绕学生如何保持健康展开,指出了学生在生活习惯、饮食和运动方面存在的问题,并给出了保持健康的建议。
36.很多学生非常喜欢看电视。
结合后文“So on Saturday…Sunday they stay at home and watch TV from morning to night.”,可知学生周末长时间看电视,因此他们喜欢“看电视”,应选用watching TV。doing sports“做运动”、sleeping“睡觉”、eating fruit“吃水果”均不符合语境。
37.但是从周一到周五,他们必须去上学。
结合固定搭配“from…to…”表示“从……到……”,应选用from。of/and/to均不符合搭配。
38.所以在周六和周日,他们待在家里从早到晚看电视。
结合语境,此处表示并列关系“和”,应选用and。either“或者”、but“但是”、so“所以”均不符合逻辑。
39.所以在周六和周日,他们待在家里从早到晚看电视。
结合固定搭配“stay at home”表示“待在家里”,应选用home。school“学校”、buses“公交车”、shops“商店”均不符合搭配。
40.通常孩子们喜欢吃肉。
结合后文“eating more vegetables and fruit is better than eating too much meat”,说明孩子们喜欢吃“肉”,应选用meat。candy“糖果”、fruit“水果”、rice“米饭”均不符合语境。
41.他们不喜欢蔬菜或水果。
结合后文提到的“vegetables and fruit”,此处指他们不喜欢“蔬菜”,应选用vegetables。eggs“鸡蛋”、fish“鱼”、milk“牛奶”均不符合语境。
42.他们不知道多吃蔬菜和水果比吃太多肉更好。
结合语境,此处指他们不“知道”这个健康常识,应选用know。taste“品尝”、listen“听”、hear“听见”均不符合语境。
43.而且孩子们只做几分钟的运动或者从不运动。
结合全文讨论的主体是“学生/孩子”,此处指“孩子们”运动不足,应选用children。teachers“老师”、women“女人”、men“男人”均不符合语境。
44.而且孩子们只做几分钟的运动或者从不运动。
结合后文“It isn’t good for their health.”,说明运动不足甚至“从不”运动,应选用never。often“经常”、sometimes“有时”、usually“通常”均不符合语境。
45.这对他们的健康不好。
结合主语是“children”,此处用形容词性物主代词“their”表示“他们的”,应选用their。his“他的”、our“我们的”、your“你的/你们的”均不符合语境。
46.我们总是想出保持健康的方法。
结合语境,此处指“想出/思考”方法,应选用think of。ask for“请求”、listen to“听”、hear about“听说”均不符合语境。
47.我们必须多吃蔬菜和水果,每天做足够的运动。
结合语境,保持健康是“必须”做到这些,应选用must。needn’t“不必”、might“可能”、may“可以”均不符合语境。
48.我们必须多吃蔬菜和水果,每天做足够的运动。
结合前文提到的运动不足问题,此处指做足够的“运动”,应选用sports。housework“家务”、homework“作业”、tests“测试”均不符合语境。
49.而且我们应该用正确的方式看电视和看书。
结合固定搭配“in the …ways”表示“用……方式”,应选用in。for/on/at均不符合搭配。
50.为了保持健康,尽量养成良好的生活习惯。
结合固定搭配“living habits”表示“生活习惯”,应选用habits。hobbies“爱好”、things“事情”、rules“规则”均不符合搭配。
51.families 52.second 53.friendly 54.relaxed 55.danger
本文介绍了人们饲养宠物的普遍现象、受欢迎的宠物种类,以及人们与宠物相处的方式和注意事项。
51.现在很多家庭都在家里养宠物。“a lot of … keep pets”,a lot of后接复数名词;备选词family的复数形式families符合语境。
52.第二受欢迎的是猫,第三受欢迎的是鸟。“The … favourite is the cat”,结合后文“the third favorite”的语境,备选词second表示“第二”,符合语境。
53.这些小动物非常可爱和友好。“cute and …”,and连接并列的形容词;备选词friendly表示“友好的”,符合语境。
54.他们和宠物待在家里时感到很放松。“They are … to stay with their pets at home”,结合语境,备选词relaxed表示“感到放松的”,符合语境。
55.但是人们每天必须让他们的宠物远离危险。“keep their pets out of …”,固定搭配keep out of danger表示“远离危险”;备选词dangerous的名词形式danger符合语境。
56.magical 57.goal 58.will happen 59.hope 60.smart/clever 61.encouraged 62.myself 63.Finally 64.finished 65.sun
本文讲述了作者通过努力克服数学考试失利的经历,传递了只要坚持奋斗,未来就会像太阳一样光明的道理。
56.生活是一段神奇的旅程,它既带给我们困难,也带给我们美好的经历。“神奇的”对应单词magical,形容词,在句中作定语修饰名词journey。
57.为了让我们的生活有意义,我们应该设定清晰的目标,并为之努力奋斗。“目标”对应单词goal,此处用单数形式表示一类事物,set a clear goal为固定搭配。
58.没有人知道未来会发生什么,但我们可以选择保持积极。“发生”对应单词happen,根据时间状语“in the future”可知,此处用一般将来时,故填will happen。
59.即使在困难时期,我们也必须勇敢,永远不要失去希望。“希望”对应单词hope,不可数名词,作lose的宾语。
60.我感到很沮丧,认为自己不够聪明。“聪明”对应单词smart或clever,形容词,在句中作表语。
61.我想放弃,但我的老师鼓励我继续努力。“鼓励”对应单词encourage,根据前半句的wanted可知,此处用一般过去时,故填encouraged。
62.渐渐地,我对自己更有信心了。“我自己”对应单词myself,反身代词,与主语I呼应,作介词in的宾语。
63.最后,经过几个月的认真努力,我期末考试取得了好成绩。“最后”对应单词finally,副词,在句中作状语,句首单词首字母需大写。
64.最后,经过几个月的认真努力,我期末考试取得了好成绩。“完成”对应单词finish,根据上下文的时态可知,此处用一般过去时,故填finished。
65.这段经历教会我,只要我们不断奋斗,我们的未来就会像太阳一样光明。“太阳”对应单词sun,名词,此处用单数形式泛指“太阳”这一天体概念。
66.riding 67.their 68.because 69.sister’s 70.walked 71.older 72.make 73.minutes 74.the/his 75.of
本文是一篇记叙文,讲述了10岁的男孩罗斯因为没有新自行车而不开心。妈妈通过清洁旧自行车并让罗斯在车上画画的方式,让罗斯重新喜欢上了自己的“新”自行车。
66.他擅长骑自行车。“be good at”为固定搭配,意为“擅长”,其中“at”为介词,后接动名词作宾语。ride的动名词形式为riding。故填riding。
67.一些男孩骑着他们的自行车去公园。空格后的“bikes”为名词,需填形容词性物主代词。they对应的形容词性物主代词为their。故填their。
68.罗斯不开心,因为他没有一辆新自行车。前后句为因果关系,后句解释前句的原因。故填because。
69.他骑的是他姐姐的自行车。空格后的“bike”为名词,需填名词所有格表示“姐姐的”。sister的所有格形式为sister’s。故填sister’s。
70.然后他走回家。全文为一般过去时,walk的过去式为walked。故填walked。
71.罗斯告诉妈妈他的自行车比别人的更旧。句中有比较级标志词“than”,需填形容词比较级。old的比较级为older。故填older。
72.我想我能让你开心!“can”为情态动词,后接动词原形。make意为“使、让”。故填make。
73.但五分钟后,他知道了。“five”后接可数名词复数,minute的复数形式为minutes。故填minutes。
74.她让罗斯在这辆/他的自行车上画一些漂亮的画。上文提到的自行车,可用定冠词“the”特指,也可用形容词性物主代词“his”。两个答案均可。故填the/his。
75.你现在觉得这辆自行车怎么样?“What do you think of...?”为固定句型,意为“……怎么样?”。故填of。
76.
例文:
Healthy habits bring us a happy life.
I have two healthy habits. First, I maintain a healthy diet rich in fruits and vegetables. Second, I do sports regularly, like playing basketball and running. These habits make me feel energetic and full of joy. They also help me stay fit and focus better on my studies.
I believe that keeping healthy habits is the key to a better life.
写作步骤
[第一步:审题立意]
确定文体:本文是应用文。一般现在时分享个人习惯与感受。
明确要点:两个健康习惯;每个习惯带来的感受与心得
确定人称:第一人称I/My
注意事项:文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息
[第二步:构思布局]
三段式结构:
开头段:引出习惯
主体段:分两点列出具体的习惯及其做法和感受
结尾段:总结心得
[第三步:要点展开]
要点一:引出习惯
Healthy habits bring us a happy life/I would like to introduce two habits that keep me healthy/In my daily life, I follow several healthy habits等
要点二:两个健康习惯
饮食:maintain a healthy diet rich in fruits and vegetables/First, I eat healthily. I eat more…and less…/I have a balanced diet/I drink plenty of water every day/I avoid sugary drinks等
运动:do sports regularly/playing basketball and running/jogging/swimming/skipping rope/yoga等
要点三:每个习惯带来的感受
make me feel energetic and full of joy/help me stay fit and focused better on my studies/It helps me relax and stay fit/I feel strong and refreshed等
要点四:总结心得
the key to a better life/A healthy life is wonderful/Let’s develop healthy habits together等
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$听力考试正式开始。What time you get up on sunday? Betty, I usually get up at half past seven. Listen to the next question. Hurry up. Its eight, twenty. The train is leaving soon. Don't worry, the train will leave at nine o'clock. We still have enough time. Listen to the next question. what a fine day. Shall we go to fly kites? That's a good idea. Listen to the next question. Hey, jack, what sport do you often do in your free time? I often run and you. I think running is boring. I like playing basketball best. I often play basketball with my classmates after school. Listen to the next question. Do you have any pork? No, I don't, but I have some rice. Listen to the next question. What do you usually do in your free time? I often stand at home and watch T. V. That's not good. You should go outside and play some sports. It's good for your health. Maybe, right, but i'm a bit lazy. Come on, you need to get some fresh air and exercise. What do you usually do in your free time? I often stand home and watch T, V. That's not good. You should go outside and play some sports is good for your health. Maybe right, but i'm . a bit lazy. Come on, you need to get some fresh air and exercise. Listen to the next question. Did you take part in the school table tennis competition last saturday? Sarah, yes, I played with my classmate as a team. What time did the competition start at nine? AM? How did you . do in the competition? We got second . place. Did you take part in the school table tennis competition last saturday? Sarah, yes, I played with my classmate as a team. What time did the competition start at nine? AM? How did you . do in the competition? We got second place. Listen to the next question. Americans usually eat three meals a day. Breakfast usually comes before eight o'clock in the morning. They usually have eggs, summit bread, fruit ice and coffee lunches. Between twelve o'clock and one o'clock, IT is like a light meal, and working people must take lunch with them or have IT near their workplace. Children at school take sandwick fruit and cookies with them, or eat at school supper. The main meal is between six o'clock and eight o clock. In the evening, people cook IT carefully. They may have beef, chicken, turkey or duck. They may also have potent es rice, vegetables or salad. The drink is coffee, tea or milk. Then comes the desert. Americans usually eat three meals a day. Breakfast usually comes before eight o'clock in the morning. They usually have eggs, submit bread, fruit juice and coffee lunches between twelve o'clock and one o'clock. IT is like a light meal, and working people must take lunch with them or have IT near their workplace. Children at school take sandwick fruit and cookies with them, or eat at school supper. The main meal is between six o'clock and eight o'clock in the evening, people cook IT carefully. They may have beef, chicken, turkey or duck. They may also have potent es rice, vegetables or salad. The drink is coffee, tea or milk. Then comes the dessert. 听力部分到此结束。