2026年山东省临沂市费县初三英语二模试卷

现在是听力试音时间。What did you do during . the weekend? I went skating with my friends at the park. What about you? Actually, I also went skating. I go skating every weekend with my father. We usually scared about twenty kilometers each time. Well, how can you skate? So far, i've been skating for three years now. You could scale that far too. Let's go skating together. Next weekend. OK试音到此结束，听力测试正式开始。注意听力测试分4节，共二十小题。做题时请先将答案划在试卷上，录音内容结束后将所选答案转涂到答题卡上。第一节，听下面5段对话，选择与对话内容相对应的图片，每段对话读两遍。One, what time do you usually go to school . at seven thirty AM? One, what time do you usually go to school . at seven thirty AM? Two, what do you want to be when . you grow up? I want to be a nurse. Two, what do you want to be when . you grow up? I want to be a nurse. Three, where did you go? Last weekend. I went to the city library and read an interesting book. Three, where did you go? Last weekend. I went to the city library and read an interesting book. For let's make a banana milk shake together. Okay, let's peel three bananas first. For let's make a banana milk shake together. okay, let's peel three bananas. Five, tom looks terrible. What's the matter with him? He has a headache and couldn't sleep well. Five, tom looks terrible. What's the matter with him? He has a headache and couldn't sleep well. 第二节听下面两段对话。第一段对话后有两个小题，第二段对话后有三个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，每段对话读两遍。听第一段对话，回答第六和七小题。Hurry up, mike is two thirty now. Let's go to the cinema quickly. Don't worry, the movie will start in thirty minutes. We can buy some drinks and snacks first. How can we go to the cinema by bus or by subway? neither. We can walk. There is only five minutes walk. Okay, let's go. Hurry up, mike. It's too thirty now. Let's go to the cinema quickly. Don't worry, the movie will start in thirty minutes. We can buy some drinks and snacks first. How can we go to the cinema by bus or by subway? neither. We can walk. There is only five minutes walk. Okay, let's go. 听第二段对话，回答第8至10小题。Can I help you? Yes, I want to buy a book for my sister. Is her twelve birthday today. What kind of books does your sister like? He enjoys reading novels very much. How about this one is popular among students? SHE has read this book. Oh, that one looks nice. What's IT about? It's about many women who have made . great achievements. Oh, it's about successful women. How much is IT? It's twenty one, but it's on sale today. So IT takes only fifteen now. great. I'll take IT. Here you are. Can I help you? Yes, I want to buy a book for my sister. Is her twelve birthday today. What kind of books does your . sister like? He enjoys reading novels very much. How about this one is popular among students? SHE has read this book. Oh, that one looks nice. What's IT about? It's about many women who have made . great achievements. Oh, it's about successful women. How much is IT? It's twenty one, but it's on sale today. So IT takes only fifteen year now. great. I'll take IT. Here you are. 第三节听下面一段独白，独白后有五个判断题，正确的用A表示，不正确的用B表示。听读白前你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题，该段独白读两遍。Dear friends, welcome to our school art club. IT is one of the most popular clubs in our school. Many students enjoy joining IT after school. We meet every friday afternoon from four o'clock to five thirty in the art room. Now there are elephant teachers and eighty six students in the club. In the club, students can learn many useful of skills. They can learn draw painting, taking photos and paper cutting. Sometimes students can also enjoy great works of art and share different ideas with each other. We hope these interesting activities can help students relax after hard study and develop their interests. If you love art and want to join us, you can call five, six, three, seven, seven, nine. welcome. Dear friends, welcome to our school art club. IT is one of the most popular clubs in our school. Many students enjoy joining IT after school. We meet every friday afternoon from four o'clock to five thirty in the art room. Now there are eleven teachers and eighty six students in the club. In the club, students can learn many useful skills. They can learn drawing, painting, taking photos and paper cutting. Sometimes students can also enjoy great works of art and share different ideas with each other. We hope these interesting activities can help students relax after hard study and develop their interests. If you love art and want to join us, you can call five, six, three, seven, seven, nine. welcome. 第四节听下面一段对话，对话后有五个填空题，根据所听内容在空格处填入适当的单词，每空词数不限。听对话前你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题，该段对话读三遍。Hi Peter. Long time, no. see. Hi Nancy. You have changed a lot. You used to be short, but now you are tall. And then . that's true. And I am more confident. How do you do that . by running? I have kept running for half a year. Wow, that sounds good. How often do you run? I run twice a week. Do you like running? No, I think running is boring. Well, I am running. I like listening to music. It's more interesting to run with friends. You can have a try. Sounds like a good idea. Can I run with you next time? sure. Let's meet in the park on friday morning. See you. Hi Peter. Long time, no. see. Hi Nancy. You have changed a lot. You used to be short, but now you are tall. And then . that's true. And I am more confident. How do you do that . by running? I have kept running for half a year. Wow, that sounds good. How often do you run? I run twice a week. Do you like running? No, I think running is boring. Well, I am running. I like listening to music. It's more interesting to run with friends. You can have a try. Sounds like a good idea. Can I run with you next time? sure. Let's meet in the park on friday morning. See you. Hi Peter. Long time, no. see. Hi Nancy. You have changed a lot. You used to be short, but now you are tall. And then . that's true. And I am more confident. How do you do that . by running? I have kept running for . half a year. Wow, that sounds call, how often do you run? I run twice a week. Do you like running? No, I think running is boring. Well, I am running. I like listening to music. It's more interesting to run with friends. You can have a try. Sounds like a good idea. Can I run with you next time? sure. Let's need in the park on friday morning. See you. 听力测试到此结束。 2026中考模拟试题（二） 参考答案 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分20分,每小题1分) 第一节 1-5 DBCFE 第二节 6-10 CCCAB 第三节 11-15ABBAA 第四节 16. short 17. half a year 18. twice a week 19. boring 20. Friday 第 二 部 分 阅 读 理 解 ( 共 两 节 ， 满 分 3 0 分，每小题1.5分 ) 21-23 BCA 24-27BCCA 28-31 CABA 32-35CCBB 36-40 BEDAF 第三部分 语言运用(共三节，满分20分,每小题1分) 第一节41-46 BABCBA 第二节47-52 BFDGAC 第三节53. amazing 54. insects 55. to learn 56. a 57. were accepted 58. sadness 59. have found 60. our 第四部分 阅读表达(满分10分,每小题2分) 61. He was famous for building beautiful palaces and making useful tools. 62. Because Taishan was not good at carpentry and he did not make fast progress. 63. He saw many amazing bamboo things made by Taishan, like flower-shaped baskets, patterned chairs and tiny bamboo birds./ He saw the most amazing things made of bamboo. 64. He realized he was wrong(and failed to see Taishan’s talent for bamboo work)./ He couldn’t find Taishan’s talent for bamboo work. 65. Never give up./We should keep practicing and stick to our own interests./ Even if others don't think we are good at something, we should believe in ourselves and develop our own talents.....(答案不唯一，言之有理即可) 第五部分 补全对话(满分5分,第69题2分，其他每小题1分) 66. What’s wrong (with you) / What’s the matter?/What happened? 67. I’m sorry to hear that./That’s terrible. 68. Did you get hurt / Did you hurt yourself?/Were you hurt? 69. We should never ride too fast. /We must follow the traffic rules. / We should be careful when we are riding/walking on the road. / ... (答案不唯一，合理即可) 第六部分 书面表达（满分15分） 评分标准 评分说明：本大题共15分，请按以下四档标准进行评分。 第一档：(15分) 符合题意要求，表达完整，条理清晰， 语句通顺，语言正确无误。 第二档：(11 — 14分) 符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清晰，语句较通顺，语言基本无误。 第三档：(6 — 10分) 基本符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清晰，语句较通顺，语言有部分错误。 第四档：(0 — 5分) 不符合题意要求，表达不够清楚, 逻辑关系混乱，语言错误很多。 （注意：短文中不得出现任何真实人名、校名及其它相关信息，否则不予评分。） 听力材料及参考答案 第一部分　听力测试 第一节 听下面5段对话。选择与对话内容相对应的图片。每段对话读两遍。 1. M: What time do you usually go to school? W: At 7:30 a.m. 2. M: What do you want to be when you grow up? W: I want to be a nurse. 3. M: Where did you go last weekend? W: I went to the city library and read an interesting book. 4. M: Let’s make a banana milk shake together! W: OK! Let’s peel three bananas first. 5. M: Tom looks terrible. What’s the matter with him? W: He has a headache and couldn’t sleep well. 第二节 听下面2段对话。第一段对话后有2个小题，第二段对话后有3个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。每段对话读两遍。 听第一段对话，回答第6和7小题。 W: Hurry up, Mike! It’s 2:30 now. Let’s go to the cinema quickly! M: Don’t worry. The movie will start in 30 minutes. We can buy some drinks and snacks first. W: How can we go to the cinema, by bus or by subway? M: Neither, we can walk there. It’s only five minutes’ walk. W: OK. Let’s go. 听第二段对话，回答第8至10小题。 M: Can I help you? W: Yes, I want to buy a book for my sister, it’s her twelfth birthday today. M: What kind of books does your sister like? W: She enjoys reading novels very much. M: How about this one? It’s popular among students. W: She has read this book. Oh, that one looks nice. What’s it about? M: It’s about many women who have made great achievements. W: Oh, it’s about successful women. How much is it? M: It’s twenty yuan, but it’s on sale today. So it takes only fifteen yuan now. W: Great! I’ll take it. M: Here you are. 第三节 听下面1段独白。独白后有5个判断题，正确的用“A”表示，不正确的用“B”表示。听独白前，你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段独白读两遍。 Dear friends, welcome to our school Art Club. It is one of the most popular clubs in our school. Many students enjoy joining it after school. We meet every Friday afternoon from 4:00 to 5:30 in the art room. Now there are eleven teachers and eighty-six students in the club. In the club, students can learn many useful skills. They can learn drawing, painting, taking photos, and paper-cutting. Sometimes students can also enjoy great works of art and share different ideas with each other. We hope these interesting activities can help students relax after hard study and develop their interests. If you love art and want to join us, you can call 563-779. Welcome! 第四节 听下面1段对话。对话后有5个填空题，根据所听内容在空格处填入适当的单词，每空词数不限。听对话前，你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段对话读三遍。 W: Hi, Peter! Long time no see. M: Hi, Nancy! You have changed a lot. You used to be short, but now you are tall and thin. W: That’s true. And I am more confident. M: How do you do that? W: By running. I have kept running for half a year. M: Wow. That sounds cool. How often do you run? W: I run twice a week. Do you like running? M: No, I think running is boring. W: While I am running, I like listening to music. It’s more interesting to run with friends. You can have a try. M: Sounds like a good idea. Can I run with you next time? W: Sure! Let’s meet in the park on Friday morning. M: See you. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026年学业水平考试模拟试题（二） 英语 2026.05 本试卷共10页。满分100分。考试时长120分钟。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。答案写在本试卷上无效。 第一部分 听力测试（共四节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话。选择与对话内容相对应的图片。每段对话读两遍。 1. __________ 2. __________ 3. __________ 4. __________ 5. __________ 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面2段对话。第一段对话后有2个小题，第二段对话后有3个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。每段对话读两遍。 听第一段对话，回答第6和7小题。 6. When will the movie start? A. At 2:30. B. At 2:35. C. At 3:00. 7. How will the two speakers go to the cinema? A. By bus. B. By subway. C. On foot. 听第二段对话，回答第8至10小题。 8.Why does the woman want to buy a book? A. Because the book is cheap. B. Because she likes reading novels. C. Because she wants to buy a book for her sister’s birthday. 9. How much is the book about successful women? A. It’s fifteen yuan. B. It’s twenty yuan. C. It’s thirty-five yuan. 10.Where are the two speakers? A. In a clothes shop. B. In a bookstore. C. In a restaurant. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面1段独白。独白后有5个判断题，正确的用“A”表示，不正确的用“B”表示。听独白前，你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段独白读两遍。 11. The Art Club is one of the most popular clubs in the school. 12. Students can meet every Thursday morning in the art room. 13. There are eleven teachers and sixty-four students in the club now. 14. In the club, students can learn drawing, painting and taking photos. 15. If you love art and want to join the art club, you can call 563-779. 第四节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面1段对话。对话后有5个填空题，根据所听内容在空格处填入适当的单词，每空词数不限。听对话前，你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段对话读三遍。 16. What did Nancy use to be like? She used to be ______________________. 17. How long has Nancy kept running? She has kept running for ______________________. 18. How often does Nancy run? She runs ______________________. 19. What does Peter think about running? He thinks it’s ______________________. 20. When will they meet to run together? They will meet on ______________________ morning. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 A The water whistle (哨子) Want to make your own instrument? Let’s try this cool science experiment (实验)! What you need: A glass A straw (吸管) A pair of scissors Water Steps: 1. Cut the straw near its middle. Make sure the two parts stay connected so that you can bend it 90 degrees at the cut. 2. Fill the glass with water. 3. Put one end of the straw into the water. Bend the straw 90 degrees at the cut and blow into the other end. 4. Raise and lower the straw in the water. What happens: When you blow into the straw, it makes a sound — like a whistle. When you raise or lower the straw in the water, the sound changes. Why? The straw works like a simple wind instrument. When you blow into it, the air inside vibrates (震动) and creates sound. By moving the straw up and down in the water, you change the length of the air column inside it. Think of the air column as a spring (弹簧): the longer the spring is, the slower it vibrates and the lower the sound; the shorter the spring is, the faster it vibrates and the higher the sound. 21. What do you need to make a water whistle? ① a glass ② a straw ③ a spring ④ a pair of scissors ⑤ water A. ①②③④ B. ①②④⑤ C. ②③④⑤ 22. What makes the sound when you blow into the straw? A. The straw itself. B. The water in the straw. C. The vibrating air inside. 23. In which section of a website can we probably read the passage? A. Science. B. People. C. Animals. B Now, there are many creative toys made with artificial intelligence (AI) technologies. For example, there is a cute cat doll that can talk and has lively facial expressions and another small robot with thin arms, ready to play weiqi. These “smart friends” are quickly becoming popular all over the world. What can they bring to people, especially children? Experts say that AI toys use high technologies to build emotional links (情感链接) with people. This means they will be the next big thing that people want to buy. Beyond emotional support, AI toys may also change the way that kids grow up. They can offer every child experiences that only rich families had before, such as private teachers, personalized classes and custom-made entertainment (定制的娱乐), according to The Economist. Are there risks? The answer is yes. AI may lead children to harm themselves. For example, “Kumma” bear is an AI toy from a Singapore-based company. A test showed that it could tell kids where to find knives and how to light a match. AI friends may also make people see the contents (内容) they agree with. People never have to question their ideas or think about different views. AI friends never criticize or share their own feelings, then they may make kids unprepared to face real human beings. In short, AI toys are popular and helpful for people’s emotional support and children’s growth, but they also have some risks. So, we need stricter age limits for chatbots, stricter rules for AI companies, and parents need to be more careful before letting children use these machines. 24. What does the underlined phrase “smart friends” refer to according to Paragraph 1? A. Traditional dolls. B. AI toys. C. Cute cat dolls. 25. According to The Economist, What advantage do AI toys bring to kids? A. They teach kids safe ways to use daily tools. B. They help children get on well with real people easily. C. They can offer kids special learning and entertainment experiences. 26. Why is “Kumma” bear mentioned in Paragraph 3? A. To show AI toys are very popular. B. To tell an interesting story about toys. C. To prove AI toys may bring safety risks. 27. Which of the following best shows the structure (结构) of the passage? (P=Paragraph) A. B. C. C It was Tuesday night. On the balcony (阳台) of my tenth-floor apartment, I looked at the sky curiously, hoping to see a shooting star (流星). “Shooting stars are lucky,” Grandma always said. “Will I see a shooting star tonight, Grandma?” I asked. “There are too many lights tonight, Judy.” Grandma said, “Time for bed and I hear dreams calling.” Then, she kissed my hair and put me to bed. When I woke up the next morning, I smelled buttermilk biscuits. My favourite! “Your shooting stars came for breakfast,” Grandma smiled. In her hands was a plate of star-shaped biscuits, each with a lovely little tail. My eyes went wide, and then they filled with something shining. When I got home from school that afternoon, Grandma was cooking in the kitchen. I told her about something about school. “Sarah saw a rainbow on her way to school. Ben got the last cookie from the dining hall... Will I see a shooting star tonight?” I asked again, still full of hope. “The night isn’t over yet. Go to the balcony and wait,” Grandma smiled softly. After dinner, I couldn’t find Grandma anywhere. I went to the balcony alone, staring at the dark sky and still hoping to see a shooting star. Suddenly, the sky was lit up. I nearly shouted out. A shooting star? But then — boom! — gold sparks (火花) danced above me and fell slowly. It was fireworks! Before I could catch my breath, another followed, a shining blue, then a red, painting the quiet night with bright colors. My heart jumped with joy and wonder. When I turned around, I saw Grandma standing in the doorway, with an empty firework box in her left hand. “Do you like the shooting stars tonight?” She smiled. At that very moment, I realized: I may not be “lucky” in the traditional way, but I know I AM truly lucky. 28. How did Judy feel according to the underlined sentence in Paragraph 4? A. Tired and sad. B. Nervous and scared. C. Surprised and moved. 29. Which is the right order of the following? ① Judy watched colorful fireworks in the sky. ② Grandma made star-shaped buttermilk biscuits. ③ Judy shared something about her school day with Grandma. ④ Grandma and Judy talked about the shooting stars on the balcony. A. ④→②→③→① B. ④→③→②→① C. ②→③→④→① 30. Which is Judy’s understanding of “luck” at the end of the story? A. Meeting shooting stars. B. Love and care from family. C. Seeing a beautiful rainbow. 31. Which is the best title of this text? A. Shining “Shooting Stars”. B. An Unforgettable Moment. C. A Great Firework Show. D Traditional Chinese Medicine (TCM) is an ancient way of health care in China with a history of thousands of years. TCM focuses on keeping Yin and Yang in balance and making sure the body’s energy runs well. One of the most famous parts of TCM is herbs. For example, if we cough, TCM-trained doctors might give us tea made from herbs, which can help our throat feel better. Another part of TCM is acupuncture. Acupuncture uses thin needles (针) that are gently put into our skin. Though it may sound scary, it’s not painful at all. ▲ A TCM hospital in Heihe, Heilongjiang Province, has become a popular place for Russian patients. A Russian woman, Yelena, had back problems for years. She felt much better after only two TCM treatments, and she now deeply believes in TCM. Besides Russia, other countries also show great interest in TCM. For example, a Canadian college is partnering with a TCM hospital in Sanya to set up a new treatment center. TCM is not only for patients, more and more young people are developing a love for TCM. Some hospitals offer herbal tea to help people lose weight. In Shanghai, TCM ice cream is an unexpected hit with young people. Also, many young people are learning to do exercises like Baduanjin from social media videos to stay fit. TCM comes from the past but also keeps up with the times. Now it has a new look and connects people around the world in modern ways. 32. What can we learn about acupuncture from the text? A. It can cause a lot of pain. B. It can stop the illness right away. C. It looks scary but it doesn’t hurt at all. 33. Which of the following can be best put into ▲ in Paragraph 3? A. The steps of TCM treatment are simple. B. TCM is deeply loved by Chinese people. C. TCM is getting popular around the world. 34. What can we learn from Paragraph 4? A. Young people learn Baduanjin online to treat illness. B. More and more young people are interested in TCM. C. Some young people do acupuncture to lose weight. 35. What is the writing purpose of this text? A. To describe how TCM deals with health problems. B. To introduce TCM and its growing influence around the world. C. To tell us how long the history of traditional Chinese medicine is. 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。 Have you ever looked in your rubbish bin? It may sound unpleasant. 36 It’s said that families in the UK create more than six million tons of food waste each year. Apples, bananas, bread, potatoes and salad are the most common things that are thrown away. So now is a good time to fight for food waste. 37 ●It’s a good idea to find out just how much food goes into your bin. Keep a diary and write down the foods that are thrown away most often and why. ● 38 With a clear plan, you’ll know exactly how to use every part of your food, even leftovers. Meat from a Sunday dinner can go into sandwiches on Monday. Bananas that are brown and soft can be baked into banana bread. Potatoes and carrots last a long time if they are kept in a cool, dark place. ●Your fridge can give you a hand. 39 You can also freeze leftovers for one or two days. But sometimes it’s hard to keep track of all the food that’s gone to the fridge. You can put an”eat me first”label (标签) on a shelf, and put foods that have been in the fridge for a while on the shelf. It will remind you to eat them first. ●Use your senses. Some supermarkets in the UK no longer put best-before dates (最佳食用期) on fruit and vegetables. 40 At last, don’t forget to update your diary to see how much change you can make. A. It can help keep your fruit and vegetables fresh for a few days. B. But in fact it tells you how much food your family throws away. C. Read the instructions carefully to make sure that you eat properly. D. Planning meals for a week with your family can save time and money. E. Here are some simple tips that can help you and your family to save food. F. People can use their noses and eyes to find out if something is still fine to eat. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分20分） 第一节（共6小题；每小题1分，满分6分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Did you know that birds can also get “road rage (路怒症)”? A research team from Anglia Ruskin University (ARU) in the UK visited the Galapagos Islands (加拉帕戈斯群岛) to do a study. They found that car noises make birds 41 . The Galapagos Islands are on the eastern part of the Pacific Ocean, and are 42 to a large number of animals and plants. Many of them are not found anywhere else in the world. The scientists studied a very common type of yellow warbler (黄莺) in the area. The places that they looked at were either 50 or 100 meters away from the 43 . In each location, scientists played recorded (录制的) traffic noise to the yellow warblers to see how they behaved. They found that no matter how far the birds were from the road, they sang louder if the place was 44 . In places with more people, they even sang for a longer time. What’s more, the yellow warblers living 50 meters away from the road were loud and angry. For example, they got very close to the speaker and flew across it over and over again. Those 100 meters away from the noise, however, were 45 . In recent years, with more people coming to the Galapagos Islands, the number of cars on the islands has 46 . The birds often use songs to drive people and animals away, but if the traffic noise was louder than their singing, they became more aggressive (富于攻击性的), an ARU scientist told Science Daily. Sometimes noise pollution can be bad for animals. We should try to protect them and make the world a better place for all living things. 41. A. hungry B. angry C. tired 42. A. home B. journey C. moment 43. A. river B. road C. park 44. A. dirty B. dark C. noisy 45. A. weaker B. quieter C. louder 46. A. increased B. reduced C. arrived 第二节（共6小题；每小题1分，满分6分） 阅读下面短文，从方框中的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。 A. am proud of B. fun and easy C. having fun with D. Be careful E. Be strict F. pay attention to G. making mistakes One recent weekend, I decided to learn how to make jiaozi with my grandmother. I thought it would be 47. _________ at the beginning, but soon it came to me that it wasn’t as simple as it looked. At first, I didn’t 48. _________ the sharp (锋利的) knife while cutting vegetables. My finger got cut because of my carelessness. Luckily, it wasn’t serious. Grandma was nervous, and quickly helped me clean the cut. “My poor little girl! 49. _________ next time!” said Grandma softly. Through the painful lesson, I learned the hard way that safety should always come first. After that accident, I continued working with Grandma. We made the dough (面团), mixed the filling, and started shaping the dumplings. However, I kept 50. _________. Some of my dumplings were too thick, others were not properly sealed (封闭), and some even had too much filling, making them difficult to close. I was so upset, but Grandma kept encouraging me. Until noon, we had a plate full of dumplings — some are perfect, and some are a bit messy. Mom encouraged me, “They’re the most delicious dumplings I have ever had. I 51. _________ you so much!” Now I understand that making jiaozi isn’t just about the final product; it is about learning patience, 52. _________ my family, and improving through mistakes. Mistakes aren’t signs of weakness. Instead, they should be viewed (看待) as stepping stones to achievements. 第三节（共8小题；每小题1分，满分8分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Jane Goodall was a famous British scientist. She is best known for her 53. __________ (amaze) work with wild chimpanzees (黑猩猩) in Africa. Goodall was born in London in 1934. As a child, she loved animals so much that she spent hours watching birds, 54. __________ (insect), and worms. She always dreamed of going to Africa to live with wild animals. In July 1960, Goodall traveled to Tanzania and entered the little-known world of wild chimpanzees. Over the following 60 years, she spent years living with wild chimpanzee groups 55. __________ (learn) about their social lives. She gave names to each chimp and formed close relationships with them, learning how similar they were to humans. Goodall did so well and found 56. __________ new way to study wildlife. Goodall’s research changed how people understand human relationships with chimpanzees and her creative research methods 57. __________ (accept) by the scientific community around the world. Two of Goodall’s most important discoveries came in 1960. She found that Chimpanzees have personalities and emotions — They show love, 58. __________ (sad) and friendship, and form social families, much like humans. She also saw something even more surprising — a male chimpanzee making and using tools. This discovery changed the idea that humans are the only animals that use tools. Since then, scientists 59. __________ (find) evidence (证据) of tool use in many parts of the animal world. Besides her research, Goodall traveled the world to speak about the great dangers chimpanzees are facing and serious environmental problems on Earth. She called on people to protect all living things and 60. __________ (we) planet. “The least I can do is speaking out for those who cannot speak for themselves,” Goodall told National Geographic magazine. 第四部分 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，按照题目要求用英语回答问题。 Long long ago, there was a great craftsman named Lu Ban. He was famous for building beautiful palaces and making useful tools. Lu Ban had many students, and he was very strict with them. He tested them often and only kept the best ones. One day, a young man named Taishan came to study with Lu Ban. Taishan was from a small village in the south. He loved making things with bamboo, but he had never learned carpentry (木工手艺) before. In Lu Ban’s class, Taishan did not make fast progress. Lu Ban said, “You’re not good at carpentry. You should go home.” So Taishan left sadly. Years later, Lu Ban traveled to a southern town. As he walked through the market, he saw crowds of people around a bamboo shop. Inside were the most amazing things made of bamboo: baskets shaped like flowers, strong chairs with pretty patterns, and tiny bamboo birds that looked like they could fly! “Who made these?” Lu Ban asked. “Taishan!” said the shopkeeper. “He’s the best bamboo craftsman here!” Lu Ban was surprised. “That’s my student!” he thought. He remembered how he had sent Taishan away because he wasn’t good at carpentry. But Taishan was good at bamboo work! Lu Ban said, “I was wrong. I have eyes but fail to see Taishan!” 61. What was Lu Ban famous for? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 62. Why did Lu Ban send Taishan back home? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 63. What did Lu Ban see in the bamboo shop? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 64. What did Lu Ban mean by saying “I have eyes but fail to see Taishan”? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 65. What can we learn from Taishan? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 第五部分 补全对话（共4小题；第69小题2分，其余每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，在每个空白处填入一个适当的句子，使对话完整，合乎情境。 A: Hi, Cindy! B: Hi, Helen! You don’t look well. 66. _____________________________________________________? A: I had an accident on the way. B: 67. _____________________________________________________. How did it happen? A: While I was riding quickly, another bicycle rider suddenly appeared from the corner and we hit each other. B: 68. _____________________________________________________? A: Yes, I hurt my leg. But luckily, it’s not serious. B: Oh, I see. 69. _____________________________________________________. A: I agree with you. Safety comes first. B: Do you need to go to the hospital? A: No, thanks. B: OK. There will be a speech about traffic rules in our school hall tomorrow. Why not go there to listen to it? A: That’s a good idea. 第六部分 书面表达（满分15分） 假定你是李华，请阅读你的英国笔友Chris的邮件，根据邮件内容用英语给Chris回复。 Dear Li Hua, How’s it going? We know reading has become a popular lifestyle in China because the government is calling on everyone to read more. I’m doing a project about how teenagers in China read books. I’d really like you to help me! What are your reading habits? What’s your favourite book? And what’s it about? What did you learn from it? What’s your opinion of reading? I’m looking forward to hearing from you. Yours, Chris 要求：1．词数80-100，开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数； 2．可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3．文中请不要出现任何真实人名、校名及其它相关信息，否则不予评分。 Dear Chris, Thanks for your e-mail.________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Best wishes! Yours, Li Hua 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $