内容正文:
2025~2026学年度第二学期期末教学质量检查
九年级英语科试题
本试卷共10页,81小题,满分120分。考试用时90分钟。
注意事项:1.答卷前,考生务必用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔将自己的准考证号、姓名、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔在“考场号”和“座位号”栏相应位置填涂自己的考场号和座位号。将条形码粘贴在答题卡“条形码粘贴处”。
2.作答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑,如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案,答案不能答在试卷上。
3.非选择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上;如需改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后,将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听说应用(本大题共30小题,每小题1分,共30分;A、B、C、D部分为听力理解,E部分为情景对话)
A.听句子(本题共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
请根据所听内容,选择符合题意的图画回答问题,并将答题卡上对应选项涂黑。每个句子听两遍。
1. What did John learn in the art class yesterday?
A
B
C
2. How was the weather between classes?
A
B
C
3. Which may be John’s science class?
A
B
C
4. What did John collect after school?
A
B
C
5. Who did John make the cookies for?
A
B
C
B.听对话(本题共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
请根据每段对话的内容回答问题,从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案,并将答题卡上对应选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话,回答第6小题。
6. How often does Jack work on his project?
A. Every day. B. Twice a week. C. Once a week.
听第二段对话,回答第7小题。
7. Which kind of books does Emma prefer?
A. Picture books. B. History books. C. Science books.
听第三段对话,回答第8小题。
8. How much should the man pay for the tickets?
A. 40 yuan. B. 80 yuan. C. 120 yuan.
听第四段对话,回答第9小题。
9. What’s the man’s opinion about the plan?
A. He supports it. B. He is worried about it. C. He is against it.
听第五段对话,回答第10小题。
10. Why is Julia mad at Peter?
A. Because he kept her waiting for a long time.
B. Because he was not honest with her.
C. Because he gave the wrong direction.
听第六段对话,回答第11-12小题。
11. What’s the relationship between the two speakers?
A. Teacher and student. B. Customer and saleswoman. C. Doctor and patient.
12. How may the man pay?
A. In cash. B. By Wechat pay. C. By Alipay.
听第七段对话,回答第13-15小题。
13. What is the man’s problem?
A. He has a toothache. B. He has a cough. C. He has a fever.
14. Which season is it?
A. Autumn. B. Winter. C. Spring.
15. What may the woman do then?
A. See a doctor. B. Buy some honey. C. Make some flower tea.
C.听短文(本题共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
请根据所听内容,从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案,并将答题卡上对应选项涂黑。短文听两遍。
16. Why did Sammy start to save money?
A. For a new camera. B. For the school trip. C. For a pet dog.
17. Whose cats and rabbits did Sammy look after?
A. Her parents’. B. Her uncle’s. C. Some neighbors’.
18. How long did it take Sammy to get enough money?
A. Three weeks. B. Thirty days. C. Three months.
19. What did this experience teach Sammy?
A. The importance of pets.
B. The meaning of hard work.
C. The differences between feelings.
20. How may Sammy be in the future?
A. The same as before. B. Careful with her things. C. Patient with others.
D.听填信息(本题共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
你将听到一则关于校园科技展的广播通知。请根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡,并将答案写在答题卡对应的答题位置上。短文听两遍。
Future Technology Show
Place: In the Science Building
Time: 2:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m., this 21
Main parts:
◆ Robots made by the school 22 : watch them move and try to control one
◆ VR Experience area: take a trip to space or the 23 sea
◆ Creative Inventions: smart plant pots, eco-friendly 24 , and more
Notes: Teachers will 25 students in each part. Please come with your student ID card and follow the safety rules.
E.情景对话(本题共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
请通读下面对话,根据对话内容,从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,并将答题卡上对应选项涂黑。选项中有一项为多余选项。
A. That’s great.
B. What shall I do, Mr. Lee?
C. Thanks for asking, Mr. Lee.
D. How about your roommates?
E. I’ve always been close to my parents.
F. I guess I’m feeling more confident now.
Mr. Lee: How are things going, Michael? Is it still hard to get used to the life here?
Michael: 26 I’m doing a lot better now.
Mr. Lee: Good. I’ve noticed that you are more active in class.
Michael: 27 But it has just taken me a while to fit in.
Mr. Lee: I see. After all, this is your first time living away from home, right?
Michael: Yes. 28 It’s hard not to see them every day.
Mr. Lee: I am sorry to hear that. 29
Michael: They’ve been so kind to me. I’m getting to know them better.
Mr. Lee: 30 I am sure everything will be more and more pleasant.
二、语法选择(本大题共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
请通读下面短文,掌握其大意,根据语法和上下文连贯的要求,从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案,并将答题卡上对应选项涂黑。
With the development of industry, pollution is becoming serious. Many scientists 31 to use new technology to solve it. One of the best ways is to use artificial intelligence, or AI.
Last month, a 14-year-old student called Lin Tao from Beijing had a great idea, which surprised his teacher and classmates. He wanted to help plant trees in 32 city. The city had very little green land, 33 it was difficult to plant trees on the ground. Lin Tao decided to build a “Tree-planting Robot” with AI.
Lin Tao worked hard for several weeks. He built a small robot. The robot could see the ground accurately (精准地) and choose 34 place to plant. On a sunny morning, the robot went to the park. It put a small tree into the soil faster than workers did. It also watered it 35 .
Soon, the little tree grew well. People were excited 36 it. They said the robot was very smart. Lin Tao said, “AI can help us do 37 we couldn’t do easily before. It can help protect the environment, too.”
In the future, AI 38 to solve more environmental problems. Maybe you can also be 39 useful helper like Lin Tao. If everyone works together, our Earth will become more beautiful. Let’s learn how to use technology wisely and make the world a better place 40 our future. Remember, it is everyone’s duty to protect the earth.
31. A. tried B. are trying C. have tried
32. A. he B. himself C. his
33. A. so B. but C. or
34. A. good B. better C. the best
35. A. care B. careful C. carefully
36. A. seeing B. see C. to see
37. A. which B. what C. that
38. A. is used B. will use C. will be used
39. A. a B. an C. the
40. A. for B、 in C. with
三、完形填空(本大题共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
请通读下面短文,掌握其大意,从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案,并将答题卡上对应选项涂黑。
A small kind action can warm the whole winter. In December 2025, a 13-year-old middle school student Li Jiating did a brave thing in Ningxia.
One afternoon, she was playing near the lake when she saw a 4-year-old boy fall into the lake and 41 in the cold water. The ice was thin and the water was very cold. The situation was very 42 .
Li Jiating was afraid but she didn’t 43 . She lay on the ice and moved slowly to the boy. She tried her best to pull the boy to the bank. Unluckily, the 44 was not strong, and she fell into the water, too. But she still held the boy tightly and asked for help loudly. Some adults heard her cry and quickly 45 to pull them out of the icy water. With their help, both of them were out of danger.
Li Jiating didn’t tell anyone about it at first. She just thought it was her 46 . Later, her story spread widely and people 47 her for her bravery.
Many people spoke highly of her. She set a good 48 to everyone. She said she would help others in a 49 way next time.
From her story, we learn that bravery is not fearlessness, but when others are in need, we should act 50 and properly. Everyone can be a warm person and make the world full of love.
41. A. play B: shout C. stand D. wait
42. A. dangerous B. simple C. funny D. normal
43. A. stop B. cry C. leave D. laugh
44. A. land B. ice C. sea D. beach
45. A. came over B. came across C. looked over D. looked after
46. A. wish B. idea C. plan D. duty
47. A. remembered B. thanked C. praised D. missed
48. A. example B. rule C. sign D. message
49. A. faster B. safer C. harder D. quieter
50. A. quietly B. suddenly C. easily D. bravely
四、阅读理解(本大题共15小题,每小题2分,共30分)
请阅读A、B两篇短文,从每小题所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案,并将答题卡上对应选项涂黑。
A
Labour Course
Have you ever heard of the avocado? The fruit has hard green skin and a pear-like shape. It has a big and round seed (种子) inside. This seed can grow into a beautiful green plant. In fact, it’s not hard to plant it at school. Follow the steps in the course and let’s do it together.
Tools to prepare:
an avocado toothpicks (牙签) a spoon a glass a knife water
How to plant:
Cut the avocado into two halves. Hold the avocado with one hand and use a knife to cut around its middle. Try to separate the two halves.
Use a spoon to take out the big seed inside. Take off the brown outer skin of the seed, and then stick 3 or 4 toothpicks into it. Fill a glass with water and hang the seed over the glass by putting the toothpicks on the edge (边缘) of the glass.
Place the seed in the right way: Let the small end face up, and the other end should be about 2 cm under the water surface. Put the glass in a sunny place and add more water when needed. After a few weeks, the seed will start to grow.
When the root (根) is about 7 cm long, take the seed out of the glass and pull out the toothpicks. Plant the seed in the soil, leaving the top 2 cm of the seed in the air.
Video: click to watch the video.
51. What do you need to plant an avocado?
① A glass. ② A rope. ③ A spoon. ④ Some water.
A. ①②③ B. ①③④ C. ②③④ D. ①②④
52. How many steps do we need to plant an avocado?
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. D. Six.
53. What is the purpose of using toothpicks when planting an avocado?
A. To hold the seed above the water. B. To help the seed grow faster.
C. To cut out the brown skin. D. To cut the avocad o in half.
54. What is the right order of “planting an avocado”?
① ② ③ ④
A. ①③④② B. ②③④① C. ②④③① D. ①④③②
55. Where is this passage most probably from?
A. A school notice. B. A travel guide. C. A science magazine. D. A school website.
B
Nujiang, Yunnan Province, was once one of China’s poorest areas. Now thousands of people have moved from distant villages to towns with better houses, schools and health care. Roads that on ce took days to travel now take minutes, and the Internet reaches homes that once had no electricity.
The people of Nujiang still practice their traditions and customs even with great changes in the development of their area. Embroidery (刺绣), weaving (编织) and dance remain part of daily life. This connection of old and new is not accidental — it reflects an understanding that development does not mean abandoning traditions.
In a Lisu village, it’s very common to see a woman weaving textiles (纺织品) using skills passed down from their ancestors. The patterns and styles reflect their history, beliefs and connect ion to the land. These textiles are a very important part of their traditions, worn during festivals and ceremonies. ▲ These cultural practices are not old things of the past but living traditions that continue to develop in today’s world.
Tourism has become a main way of income (收入), with visitors drawn to Nujiang by its amazing natural views and lively culture. Local business owners have also found new ways to sell traditional handmade goods, creating jobs that both keep their special culture and provide income.
As China continues to modernize, it is necessary to protect and improve the cultural values. It means progress doesn’t come at the cost of cultural values. Nujiang offers a clear example. It shows that protecting traditional culture is not just about looking back, but also about shaping a future that honors the past.
56. How does the writer begin the passage?
A. By telling stories. B. By listing numbers.
C. By describing reasons. D. By comparing differences.
57. What does the underlined word “abandoning” in Paragraph 2 probably mean?
A. Caring about. B. Looking for.
C. Giving up. D. Passing on.
58. Which of the following sentences can be put into ▲ in Paragraph 3?
A. They refuse to accept any modern changes in their life.
B. These old practices are not forgotten, but connected with modern life.
C. Young people prefer to learn new skills rather than keep traditions.
D. Most people think traditional culture is out of date.
59. What influence does tourism have on Nujiang?
A. It helps create more job positions. B. It causes an increase in prices.
C. It leads to the loss of traditions. D. It harms the local environment.
60. What is the main idea of the passage?
A: Nujiang used to be one of China’s poorest areas.
B. Traditional culture is very important to Nujiang people.
C. Nujiang develops well while keeping its traditional culture.
D. Tourism brings great changes to Nujiang.
C
配对阅读。左栏是五位新兴职业人的介绍,右栏是七个人的自述,每个人选择对应的自述,并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
61. Linda is a pet food taster. Believe it or not, she checks and tastes new dog or cat food to make sure it’s healthy and the flavor is good.
62. Anna is an upcycling designer. She usually turns old things into something useful. This is good for our planet.
63. Kate is a patient companion. She goes with people to hospitals, helps them with check-ups (做体检) and communicates with doctors.
64. Michael and his workmates are IMAX screen cleaners. They travel around the country and clean screens for cinemas.
65. Mr. Chen is known as a plant doctor. He treats sick houseplants and gives care advice.
A. “Some pet owners want to teach their dogs how to surf and catch some waves together. And that’s 1% what I do training their dogs for these water sports.”
B. “There are about 90 million pet dogs in America. And none of them can speak, so the only way to know whether or not they like their food is to try it ourselves.”
C. “I help find out what is wrong and tell people how to deal with the problem. I love seeing the plants become green and healthy again.”
D. “I turn broken chairs into new bookshelves and give old clothes fresh styles. It’s fun and creative to give old things a second life.”
E. “Seeing the people I help feel less worried during their medical visits is what makes my job meaningful.”
F. “Sleeping is important for everyone. Nothing makes me happier than hearing people say ‘I slept well last night.’ That’s why I do this job.”
G. “The most dirt we’ve ever seen was a quarter-inch (英寸) thick. We usually have to empty the cleaning machine at least two or three times while doing the job.”
五、短文填空(本大题共10小题,每小题1.5分,共15分)
请从方框内选择适当的词,并根据需要用其正确形式填空,使文章语法正确、完整连贯,并将答案写在答题卡对应的答题位置上。注意:每空一词,每词仅用一次,有两词为多余项。
easy I when appear different peace foreigner touch around warm with but
Fang Haoming, a journalist (记者) from Iraq, became popular these days. He left his war-torn (被战争摧毁的) home at 11 and has lived in China for 15 years. To him, China is not just a country, 66 a warm home he deeply loves.
In 2026, he 67 on the CCTV Spring Festival Gala, spreading China’s voice for 68 . He said, “In China, I finally understand what real peace means. This land has given me a sense of belonging I never felt in 69 own country.”
This story 70 many people’s hearts. It shows that kindness can connect 71 cultures and bring people closer. No matter where we come from, we will feel at home if we are treated 72 kindness.
Foreign friends are welcome in China. They can enjoy delicious food, explore beautiful scenery, and communicate 73 with local people.
China is great because of its inclusiveness (包容性). For Fang and other 74 like him, China is a place where they can live happily 75 they follow their dreams. The warm story lets the world see a true and lovely China that is full of hope.
六、读写综合(本大题分为A、B两部分,共25分)
A.回答问题(本题共5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
请阅读下面短文,根据所提供的信息,回答五个问题,并将答案写在答题卡对应的答题位置上。要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整切题。
15-Minute Break: A New Step for Student Health
On February 27, 2026, the Ministry of Education (教育部) officially announced Guiding Opinions on Comprehensively Promoting the Construction of Healthy Schools 《关于全面推进健康学校建设的指导意见》. One important rule in this notice is that primary and secondary schools across the country should make the class break longer, from 10 minutes to 15 minutes.
This policy is based on the idea of “Health First”. In the past, 10-minute breaks were often too short — students could only rush to the restroom or drink water, with no time to truly relax. Now, the 15-minute break provides students with more time to relax and take exercise. At the same time, the notice requires schools to make sure that students have at least 2 hours of physical activities every day. Teachers must not use the break time to give lessons. Hearing such news, many students were excited. One student said, “I’m very happy that we can have P. E class every day. Sweating (流汗) helps take the ‘trash’ away from our bodies.”
The policy is helpful to students’ health. It can help reduce myopia (近视) and fatness and make students study more efficiently. Since March 2026, all provinces in China have started to carry out this rule. It shows that education is paying more attention to students’ physical and mental health instead of only grades. This small change will make school life more balanced and friendly for every student.
76. When did the Ministry of Education announce the guiding opinions?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
77. How long is the class break now according to the new policy?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
78. What idea is this new rule based on?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
79. How many hours of physical activities should students have every day?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
80. Does education care more about students’ health or only about their grades?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
B.书面表达
81.今年2月27日教育部发布《关于全面推进健康学校建设的指导意见》,首次将“推行课间15分钟”写入教育部层面的指导意见。开学后,全国各地学校纷纷行动起来。假如你是李华,打算参加学校广播站举办的主题为“Class Breaks Are Longer”的英语征文比赛。请你根据以下思维导图的内容提示完成征文的写作。
注意:
(1)可在思维导图内容提示的基础上适当拓展信息。
(2)不能照抄原文;不得在作文中出现真实校名、地名和考生的真实姓名。
(3)语句连贯,词数80左右。作文的开头已给出,不计入总词数。
Class Breaks Are Longer
This new term, our school has made a great change: we have 15-minute class breaks. ____________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
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