2025-2026学年第二学期高二期中阶段性训练英语试题

宁德市2025-2026学年第二学期高二期中阶段性训练 英语参考答案及评分标准 第一部分 听力（共20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分） 1-5 ABCBC 6-10 ACBAC 11-15 CBCBA 16-20 BABCA 第二部分 阅读理解 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 21-23 DBA 24-27 DBCD 28-31ABDC 32-35 BDAC 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 36-40 EFBGC 第三部分 英语知识运用 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 41-45 BDCAD 46-50 BCABD 51-55 ABCDC 第二节（共10个空；每空1.5分，满分15分；与参考答案不符的不得分。) 1. stretches 2. with 3. to aid 4. and 5. Completed 6. residents 7. who 8. a 9. integrating 10. adaptation 第四部分 写作（共两节满分40分） 第一节 一、评分原则 1．本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。 2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。 3．词数少于60词，酌情扣分；多写不扣分。 4．评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。如书写较差以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。 二、内容要点： 1．发起目的； 2．提出建议（至少两点）； 3．号召大家积极参加。 三、各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档 （13—15）分 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 覆盖所有内容要点。 根据文章需要应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力表达良好语用所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑，完全达到了预期的写作目的。完全完成了试题规定的任务。 第四档 （10—12分） 完成了试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试表达良好语用所致。 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。 第三档 （7—9分） 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。 第二档 （4—6分） 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档 1—3分 未完成试题规定的任务。 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判； 写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 四、应用文写作评分细则 1、先按照5个档次的给分范围对号入座，依据要点、行文、词汇、语法、词数、书写等酌情确定分数。 2、共3个内容要点，每个内容要点4分，共12分，语言准确性（包括行文通顺、流畅、可读性强，语法结构，语句间的连接成分等）3分，合计15分。漏掉一个要点扣4分。 3、出现两三个小错误，根据文章需要使用了较高级词汇、较复杂结构，有效使用了语句间的连接成分，全文结构紧凑，可读性强，也可以评高分（13分），评卷教师要敢于评高分。 4、确定档次后，时态错误较多，在本档内扣2-3分，时态错误较少扣1分。 5、要点齐全，错误相对较多，但不影响理解，可评（7-9分）。要点齐全，错误很多，但不影响理解，可评（4-6分）。 6、拼写错误、词汇错误只出现一个，不影响意思表达，不扣分。错2-3个扣1分，5个以上扣2分。 7、时态错误一个扣1分，多个时态错误扣分不超过3分。 8、要点认定： 考生须用比较完整的句子表达出要点。如只写出关键词而无主谓结构，不可视为表达出该要点。在表达要点的句子中，如果考生写出主谓结构及关键信息，但主谓结构有严重语言错误（如时态、语态，动词或只写出情态动词而无主语），酌情扣分。 9、在同一档次内，根据语言错误的多少确定分值：1-2个错误，取该档次分值的高线；3-4个错误，取该档次分值的中线；5个错误，取该档次分值的低线；6个以上错误，可以降一档，取降档后该档分值的中高线。10个左右错误，取其降档后的低线。 五、One possible version Dear fellow students, To respond to the Green City Campaign in our hometown, we aim to advocate green lifestyles and contribute to environmental protection. It’s our duty to take action for a greener future. We suggest choosing low-carbon travel like walking or cycling instead of private cars, saving water and electricity in daily life, and sorting garbage properly to promote resource recycling. These small acts can make a great difference to our city. Let’s take immediate action from now on. With our joint efforts, we can surely make our hometown a more eco-friendly place. The Students’ Union 第二节 一、评分原则： 1．本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。 2．评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。 3．词数少于130的，从总分中减去2分。 4．评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑： （1）与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度； （2）内容的丰富性； （3）应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性； （4）上下文的连贯性。 5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。 6．如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。 二、各档次的给分范围和要求 档次 描述 第五档 （21-25分） 1．与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。 2．内容丰富。 3．所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不会影响意义表达。 4．有效的使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。 第四档 （16-20分） 1．与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。 2．内容比较丰富。 3．所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。 4．比较有效的使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。 第三档 （11-15分） 1．与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度衔接。 2．写出了若干有关内容。 3．应用语法结构和词汇能满足任务要求，虽有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。 4．运用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 第二档 （6-10分） 1．与所给短文有一定关系，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度衔接。 2．写出了一些有关内容。 3．语法结构简单和词汇项目有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了意义表达。 4．较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。 第一档 （1-5分） 1．与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。 2．产出内容太少。 3．语法结构简单，词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义表达。 4．缺少语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯性。 0 白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。 三、内容要点： 第一段：上台时的生理性紧张，心理建设，努力调整，最终完成演讲 第二段：写明结果，作者感悟，升华主题 说明：情节构建合理，合乎逻辑，言之有理即可。 One possible version Paragraph 1 Finally, the big day arrived. Backstage, my hands trembled slightly and my heart beat wildly. I was nervous, but I kept telling myself to be strong and calm. When my name was called, I took a deep breath and stepped onto the stage. At first, my voice shook and my mind went blank. But I soon calmed down and spoke with all my strength. I focused on my topic and delivered my speech steadily. When I finished, the audience applauded warmly. I bowed politely and walked off the stage, feeling relaxed and relieved. Paragraph 2 Several days later, the final result came. When I saw my name wasn’t on the list of winners, a tinge of disappointment flashed through my mind. But then I thought of how far I had come — from a shy student afraid to speak in public to someone brave enough to stand on that stage. My head teacher Mr. Li smiled at me and said, “You’ve already won the most important prize — courage.” I realized he was right. This experience taught me that growth itself is the best reward. 第二种版本 Several days later, the final result came. To my great surprise, my name was on the list of winners I couldn’t believe my eyes. When Mr. Li heard the news, he gave me a big hug and said, “I knew you could do it! Your hard work and courage paid off.” Standing on the stage again, this time to receive my award, I felt a surge of confidence. This victory wasn’t just about the prize; it was proof that I could overcome my fears and achieve something great. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 宁德市2025-2026学年第二学期高二期中阶段性训练 英语试题 注意事项： 1、本试卷满分150分。答题时间120分钟。 2、答题前，考生务必将自己的班级、姓名填写在试卷的相应位置。 3、全部答案在答题卡上完成，答在本试卷上无效。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does the man suggest bringing? A. Snacks. B. Clothes. C. Medicine. 2. When will the speakers leave for the trip? A. On Saturday. B. On Friday. C. On Sunday. 3. What is the woman’s attitude to the man’s suggestion? A. Unclear. B. Doubtful. C. Supportive. 4. What do the speakers want to do? A. Make phone calls. B. Send postcards. C. Take photos. 5. How long do the speakers plan to stay in Europe? A. 4 days. B. 7 days. C. 14 days. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。 6. What did the man like doing best in New York City? A. Exploring the museum. B. Touring the park. C. Trying the local food. 7. What did the man probably do on the plane? A. He played games. B. He watched films. C. He read books. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Who is the woman probably? A. A teacher. B. A tour guide. C. A salesperson. 9. What interests the man most about the Sydney Harbour Bridge? A. Climbing the bridge. B. Taking the ship tour. C. Learning about its history. 10. What does the woman advise the man to do in the end? A. Relax on the beach. B. Watch a performance. C. Visit a zoo. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. Why does the man make the call? A. To give suggestions. B. To express thanks. C. To ask for information. 12. Where will the man go this afternoon? A. The tower. B. The theatre. C. The square. 13. What will the man probably do next? A. Go shopping. B. Have lunch. C. Search online. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. A shopping trip. B. A sea journey. C. A sports game. 15. What did the woman’s parents enjoy doing most? A. Walking in the garden. B. Tasting different food. C. Climbing rock walls. 16. What is the man interested in? A. Swimming. B. Skating. C. Climbing. 17. Where did the woman spend most of her time? A. In the Youth Area. B. In the Pool Area. C. In the Entertainment Place. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What is the speaker probably doing? A. Giving a lecture. B. Hosting a program. C. Chairing a meeting. 19. What activity does the speaker recommend most in Sharm el-Sheikh? A. Visiting an ancient ship. B. Going on a boat trip. C. Swimming underwater. 20. What desert adventure is available according to the speaker? A. Bird-watching. B. Hiking. C. Horse-riding. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A FRC Robotics Challenge The 2026 FRC Shanghai Regional was held at East China Normal University. With 50international teams and nearly 1,000 students, the event aims to inspire teenage innovation, link engineering practice to real life, encourage problem-solving and teamwork, and boost robotics education in China. This year’s theme is “Rebuilt”, guiding students to explore history from an engineering perspective. Competition Details Official Description Task Teams work in alliances (联盟) to complete tasks: scoring fuel, crossing obstacles and climbing towers to earn points. Match Time Each match includes a 20-second autonomous mode and a2-minute-20-second driver-controlled period. Progression Teams first compete in qualifying rounds, then top teams advance to elimination matches (淘汰赛). Prize The best teams win the chance to take part in the global finals in Houston, USA in April. Time: March 13-15, 2026 Admission: $10 each; $8 per ticket for groups of 20-30, and $2 extra per person over 30. Keep silent during matches; follow staff guidance; no flash photography; stay in safe areas. 21. What is the purpose of the FRC event? A. To attract international tourists B. To raise money for STEM projects C. To train professional robot engineers D. To inspire innovation and solve real-world problems 22. What can we learn about the FRC from the text? A. Teams finish tasks on their own in matches. B. Teams participate in qualifiers before finals. C. Every team can enter the international finals. D. A match lasts 2 minutes and 20 second s exactly. 23. How much will a teacher with 30 students pay for the tickets altogether? A. $242 B. $240 C. $248 D. $310 B At 15, Leo often stayed out late with a group of older teens. They laughed at rules and bragged about skipping class or trying “just one sip” of beer. Leo went along — he didn’t want to seem boring. However, after several months, something began to trouble him. Even when surrounded by these so-called friends, he felt strangely alone. His math grades fell sharply. Leo, once passionate about drawing, stopped picking up his pencils entirely. Worse still, he sometimes woke up in the middle of the night with his heart racing for no clear reason. One rainy Tuesday, his teacher asked him to stay after class. “You seem tired all the time,” she said gently. “Have you talked to anyone about how you’re feeling?” That afternoon, Leo gathered his courage and visited the school’s wellness center. A kind counselor named Ms. Ruiz listened patiently without any judgment. She explained that while alcohol or tobacco might seem exciting at first, they can actually deepen stress and sadness over time, especially for a young brain still developing. Leo decided it was time for a change. He rejoined the art club, started walking his dog every morning, and asked his mom to help him learn how to say “no” to risky situations. It wasn’t easy — some friends called him “too serious” — but he kept going. After two months, he slept more soundly, laughed more easily, and even entered a local sketch contest. Now, when younger students ask how he changed, Leo smiles and says, “It’s not about being perfect. It’s about making small choices that respect who you really are.” 24. Why did Leo feel lonely even when he was with friends? A. Something strange happened. B. He couldn’t concentrate on math test. C. His older friends were skipping class. D. His lifestyle was hurting his emotional well-being. 25. What does the underlined word “bragged” in paragraph 1 most likely mean? A. Complained loudly B. Talked proudly C. Apologized repeatedly D. Whispered secretly 26. What is the turning point of Leo’s change? A. Walking his dog and his mother’s help B. deciding to give up drinking C. A teacher’s concern and professional support D. Entering a local sketch contest 27. What does Leo’s story tell us? A. It takes a village to raise a child. B. A friend to all is a friend to none. C. Actions speak louder than words. D. Real change comes from daily choices. C The Earth’s climate has been warming steadily. Glaciers are melting and sea levels are rising — these are familiar effects. But there is another consequence that may come as a surprise: mountains are actually becoming taller than before. How does this happen? Scientists studied the last ice age, which occurred 16,000 years ago when much of Earth’s Northern Hemisphere was covered in ice. Although the ice melted long ago, Earth’s crust (地壳) is still rising and sinking in reaction to its previous ice age burden. This movement is called glacial isostatic adjustment (冰川均衡调整). Scientists believe that an ice sheet about 800 meters thick could cause a depression (洼地) about 275 meters deep, according to the Smithsonian Magazine. “As the ice sheets began to melt around 11,700 years ago, the glaciers cleared large and heavy masses, allowing the mountains to rise up,” US geologist Mike Kaplan told the Columbia Climate School website. Recent studies suggest that land in southeast Alaska is rising at a rate of about 3 centimeters per year. Families living on the coast welcome this “new” land, according to The New York Times. However, they soon find themselves in a trap. As the land rises and coastal areas move away from the sea, rivers can dry up more easily, making it harder for them to reach the sea. This could result in a reduction in water resources, affecting animals living in the rivers. Researchers are concerned that this may create challenges for fishermen, as raising fish in these areas could become more difficult. While the depression of Earth’s crust springs back slowly, once uplifted areas are sinking. For example, a 2015 study suggests that the Chesapeake Bay on the eastern coast of the US could sink more than 15 centimeters by 2100. This sinking trend also suggests that these areas may experience more serious impacts from a rise in sea levels. 28. What does glacial isostatic adjustment refer to? A. It changes the height of land. B. It becomes a burden of the earth. C. It occurred only in the last ice age. D. It is the reason why ice sheets melt. 29. How do the local people feel about the changes described in paragraph 4? A. Shocked. B. Concerned. C. Annoyed. D. Confused. 30. What challenge might the Chesapeake Bay face in the future? A. Lower sea level. B. More serious sea pollution. C. Faster land uplift. D. More frequent coastal flooding. 31. Which of the following is a suitable title for the text? A. Global Warming Is Affecting Ecosystem B. Ice Melting Is Happening Faster Than Ever C. Glacial Melting Is Making Mountains Taller D. Climate Change Is Causing Higher Sea Level D Art has long been seen as a universal language — one that goes beyond cultural boundaries and speaks to human feeling. From cave paintings to great works of the Renaissance, art has served as both a mirror and a creator of civilization. Yet, in an era dominated by digital screens and artificial intelligence, a pressing question emerges: Is the traditional value of art being preserved, or is it quietly disappearing? Historically, art was valued not only for its beauty but also for the human touch behind it. A painting by Van Gogh carried the unmistakable signature of a single mind — its struggles, its unique perspective. Today, however, AI can generate poems, compose music, and even produce paintings. This shift forces a difficult question: Can human creativity be replaced? Critics argue that machines lack genuine emotional intention. A computer may follow rules, but it does not suffer, dream, or seek meaning. As philosopher John Searle noted, syntax — the rules of language — is not the same as semantics, the meaning behind it. A machine can arrange words, but it cannot feel the sorrow behind a blues song. Defenders offer a different view. They point out that every technological advance was once met with doubt. Photography was initially dismissed as “not real art” because it merely captured reality. Over time, however, it earned its place in museums. Similarly, they argue, AI works should be judged by their impact on the viewer, not by the nature of their creator. Ultimately, art’s true value may lie not in how it is made, but in what it awakens within us. Whether created by hand or by algorithm (算法), great art moves us because it speaks to something fundamentally human. For us growing up in this digital age, the challenge is not to reject technology but to face it thoughtfully — to tell lifeless imitation from meaningful expression. 32. What is the function of the first paragraph? A. It defines what art is. B. It introduces a problem. C. It compares two art forms. D. It criticizes digital technology. 33. Why does the author mention John Searle in paragraph 3? A. To explain the difference between rules and meaning. B. To introduce a famous thinker’s theory about language. C. To prove that AI will never understand human feelings. D. To support the argument that machines lack true emotion. 34. What can be inferred about photography from paragraph 4? A. It was once rejected by the traditional art world. B. Its artistic value remains highly controversial. C. It was the first technology to challenge art. D. It has become more valuable than painting. 35. What is the author’s attitude toward AI-generated art? A. Supportive B. Opposed C. Objective D. indifference 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Self-confidence is one of the most valuable qualities a teenager can develop. It shapes how you approach challenges, interact with others, and pursue your goals. 36 The good news is that confidence is not a gift only for a few; it’s a skill you can build with consistent practice. Acknowledge your strengths and achievements. Many teens focus only on their flaws and ignore what they do well. 37 Even small wins, like acing a quiz or helping a friend, deserve to be celebrated. Writing down your strengths regularly helps you see your own value clearly. 38 Confidence grows when you face what scares you. Don’t let the fear of making mistakes stop you from trying new things. Start with small, manageable challenges — like speaking up in class or joining a club. Each time you push past your limits, you prove to yourself that you’re capable of more than you thought. Learn from failure instead of fearing it. No one is perfect, and mistakes are part of growth. 39 Instead of letting failure define you, use it as a chance to learn and improve. This mindset shift will make you more confident in the long run. Surround yourself with positive people. The people you spend time with have a huge impact on your self-perception. Negative people will only drain your energy and make you doubt yourself. Choose friends who support you, celebrate your success, and lift you up when you’re down. 40 A. Learn from your past mistakes. B. Step out of your comfort zone gradually. C. Their positivity will help you build a more confident view. D. You should set big goals and try to achieve them at all costs. E. It also allows you to take risks and believe in your potential. F. It’s important to take time to recognize and appreciate your abilities. G. By reframing failure as a learning opportunity, you build mental strength and confidence. 第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 I never thought writing could help me — until the day it did. It was early spring, and my dog Max had just passed away. A heavy 41 filled my heart, and my 42 sank so low I didn’t want to get out of bed. At school, I sat by the window during break. Rain tapped softly on the glass. Suddenly, a sentence came to mind, “His paw prints are gone, but they’re still in my dreams.” I quickly 43 it down in my blue notebook. From then on, I wrote more. Everything I wrote let me feel 44 and simple. One day, my teacher collected our weekly journals. When she read mine, she wrote back, “Your words show deep 45 — not just for Max, but for life itself.” 46 , a classmate asked if I’d share it in our reading circle. My hands 47 , but I stood up and read. Afterward, a boy said quietly, “My cat died last year. Thank you for saying that.” His 48 made my eyes water. Writing became my 49 . On sad days, I write about empty dog bowls or quiet walks. On better days, I write about 50 — like sunlight through leaves or the smell of fresh bread. I’ve learned that 51 isn’t something to hide. It’s proof we loved. And when we share it honestly, we build 52 between people. Now, I carry a small notebook everywhere. It holds my laughter, my tears, and my most 53 thoughts. Writing won’t bring Max back, but it helps me stay 54 — connected to what matters. Most of all, it reminds me: even in silence, I’m not 55 . 41. A. joy B. sorrow C. anger D. fear 42. A. voice B. vigour C. grades D. spirits 43. A. settled B. copied C. wrote D. turned 44. A. warm B. noble C. miserable D. innocent 45. A. doubt B. criticism C. humor D. sympathy 46. A. However B. Meanwhile C. Otherwise D. Instead 47. A. clapped B. tapped C. shook D. waved 48. A. words B. joke C. question D. secret 49. A. assignment B. shelter C. job D. dream 50. A. commitment B. reputation C. imagery D. hope 51. A. pain B. anger C. pride D. anxiety 52. A. walls B. bridges C. towers D. roads 53. A. silly B. wise C. private D. popular 54. A. lively B. busy C. healthy D. grounded 55. A. wrong B. late C. alone D. tired 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。 Chinese architect Liu Jiakun was announced as the 54th winner of the Pritzker Architecture Prize on March 4, 2025, making him the second Chinese winner of this highest honor in architecture. Based in Chengdu, his career 56 (stretch) across four decades and more than 30 projects. Liu’s works often combine local elements 57 a “low-tech” approach to elegance. This philosophy was powerfully demonstrated after the Wenchuan earthquake, when he created “rebirth bricks” 58 (aid) in rebuilding efforts. Made from local wheat fiber, cement, and rubble from collapsed buildings, these bricks were more than just recycled materials. They became a poetic symbol of both physical 59 spiritual rebirth during a time of great sadness. Similarly, Liu’s focus on ordinary people is reflected in his largest project, West Village. 60 (complete) in 2015, this five-story urban complex in Chengdu includes a football field, paths for cyclists and pedestrians, and a market. Over the years, it has grown into a popular public space where 61 (resident) enjoy their leisure time. Hearing the news that Liu won the Pritzker Prize, many online users 62 had visited West Village and other works noted that his architecture reflects a precious sense of relaxation — much like Chengdu, 63 city known for its giant pandas, hotpot, and leisurely pace. Beyond his architectural achievements, Liu has also been praised by the committee for 64 (integrate) traditional Chinese philosophy into his designs. He believes that rather than seeking to conquer nature, Chinese philosophy emphasizes 65 (adapt) and coexistence with the natural world. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 假定你是校环保社团负责人李华，为响应你家乡正在进行“Green City Campaign”活动，请写一封倡议书，呼吁同学们从自身做起，践行绿色行动。内容包括： 1．发起目的； 2．提出建议（至少两点）； 3．号召大家积极参加。 注意：1．词数80左右； 2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 Dear fellow students, ______________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ The Students’ Union 第二节（满分25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Last semester, I made a decision that surprised everyone around me — I signed up for the school’s annual public speaking competition. For as long as I can remember, I had been a shy, quiet student who was afraid to express myself in public. I would lower my head in class and avoid standing out, terrified of speaking in front of crowds. Deep in my heart, I hoped to step out of my comfort zone, build up my confidence, and become a more courageous and determined person. For nearly a month, I buried myself in strict and careful practice. Every day after school, I stayed in the classroom to write, polish and recite my speech draft until I could speak it fluently and smoothly. I also practiced in front of a mirror to improve my tone, gestures and facial expressions, hoping to make my performance impressive. However, one week before the competition, I was struck down by a severe cold. My throat burned with pain, and I could hardly speak a full sentence clearly. I was drowned in anxiety and frustration, and the thought of giving up crowded into my mind. When my head teacher Mr. Li noticed my low spirits, he had a sincere and heart-to-heart talk with me. He told me that adversity was a necessary part of growth and that real courage meant insisting on our goals even in difficult situations. He reminded me that success did not only mean winning a prize, but also meant facing challenges bravely and never giving up easily. Under his encouragement, I began to take medicine and rest properly. Soon I recovered a little and picked up my practice again. I no longer focused only on the result, but on the courage to stick to my dream. 注意： （1）续写两段，词数约150词； （2）请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。 Paragraph 1 Finally, the big day arrived. _______________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ Paragraph 2 Several days later, the final result came. ______________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $