福建省厦门市同安区2025-2026学年第二学期第一阶段综合练习 八年级英语

2025-2026学年第二学期第一阶段综合练习 八年级英语评分参考 *书写题部分，视学生答题情况，还有未能罗列之答案，各联盟校自行讨论决定。评分标准统 一即可 (16-20题要么得0分，要么得1.5分) 16.Friday 17.gym 18.40/forty 19.g00d 20.Reduce *情景交际 71.Good idea. That sounds great.That's great.OK.Good.Sure. 2分 1分 1分 1分 1分 2分 2分 2分 72.What do you do What do you like to do 0.5分 0.5分0.5分0.5分 0.5分0.5分 1分 73.What 1S wrong?/What is the matter?/Are you OK?/ What happened? 0.5分0.5分 1分 0.5分0.5分0.5分0.5分1分1分 1分1分 74.How big/large 1S /What is the size of 1分 0.5分 0.5分0.5分0.5分1分 75.What should I do? 0.5分0.5分0.5分0.5分 *看图写话没用提示词每处扣0.5分，写到提示词给0,5分（本次鼓励学生不放空） 76.I went swimming last weekend.I swam last weekend 0.5分 1分 0.5分 0.5分 1分 0.5分 77.You should see a dentist/doctor. 0.5分 0.5分 1分 78.Tom has headache. 0.5分 0.5分0.5分0.5分 79.The Sahara Desert is the biggest desert in the world 0.5分 1分 0.5分 80.If it is sunny, I will play basketball 1分 0.5分 0.5分 *短文填空 81.wonders 82.safely 83.However 84.on 85.pulled 86.first 87.a 88.faster 89.its 90.dangerous (各题要么得0分，要么得1.5分。) 91.书面表达 第一档(13-15分)：主题意义明确，词句表达准确、流畅，基本无语法错误： 第二档(9-12分)：主题意义相对合理，词句表达基本准确，顺畅，有少量语法错误： 第三档(5-8分)：主题意义不够完整、统一，词句表达有较多语法错误： 第四档(0-4分)：主题意义散乱，词句表达的语法错误很多。 *理论上提示词少用一个减3分； *词数过多或过少应酌情减分： 参考范文 Dear Alex, I'm writing to express my sincere thanks to you.I want to thank you for being there for me when I had a hard time at my studies.Last term,I had too much stress from exams.I often felt tired and worried,and nearly gave up on math. You didn't just tell me to "try harder."You sat with me after class,explained the problems in a simple way.You also reminded me to take breaks and not to be so hard on myself.Because of your patience and help,I've made real progress this term.I am feeling better now.I actually start to enjoy the subject. Thank you for giving me the confidence to keep going.I'll always remember your kindness. Sincerely, Li Hua 2025-2026学年第二学期第一阶段综合练习 八 年 级 英 语 参 考 答 案 1-5 BCABA 6-10 BCBCA 11-15 ACBAC 21-25 CABBA 26-30 CBBAC 31-35 CAABC 36-40 ACBCA 41-45 BABCA 46-50 CDCAB 51-55 BAACD 56-60 ADCBB 61-65 DCBAD 66-70 DCBEA * 下列主观题可能存在多种答案，应尽量减少不影响交际功能的非关键性错误的扣分。 16. Friday 17. gym 18. 40/forty 19. good 20. Reduce 71. Good idea. / That sounds great. / That’s great. / OK. / Good. / Sure. 72. What do you do / What do you like to do 73. What’s wrong? / What’s the matter? / Are you OK? / What happened? 74. How big/large is / What’s the size of 75. What should I do? 76. I went swimming last weekend. / I swam last weekend. 77. You should see a dentist/doctor. 78. Tom has a headache. 79. The Sahara Desert is the biggest desert in the world. 80. If it is sunny, I will play basketball. 81. wonders 82. safely 83. However 84. on 85. pulled 86. first 87. a 88. faster 89. its 90. dangerous 91. 书面表达 (参考范文) Dear Alex, I’m writing to express my sincere thanks to you. I want to thank you for being there for me when I had a hard time at my studies. Last term, I had too much stress from exams. I often felt tired and worried, and nearly gave up on math. You didn't just tell me to “try harder.” You sat with me after class, explained the problems in a simple way. You also reminded me to take breaks and not to be so hard on myself. Because of your patience and help, I've made real progress this term. I am feeling better now. I actually start to enjoy the subject. Thank you for giving me the confidence to keep going. I'll always remember your kindness. Sincerely, Li Hua 第一档(13-15分): 主题意义明确，词句表达准确、流畅，基本无语法错误； 第二档(9-12分)：主题意义相对合理，词句表达基本准确，顺畅，有少量语法错误； 第三档(5-8分)：主题意义不够完整、统一，词句表达有较多语法错误； 第四档(0-4分)：主题意义散乱，词句表达的语法错误很多。 * 理论上要点少用一个减3分； * 词数过少应酌情减分, 具体见评分标准。 2025-2026学年第二学期第一阶段综合练习 八年级英语听力材料 第一节 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图中选出与句子内容相关的选项。（每个句子读两遍） 1. Alice had a toothache yesterday. 2. I was shocked when I heard the news. 3. Tina enjoys playing the guitar on the weekend. 4. My favorite activity is horse riding. 5. The Dead Sea is the lowest place on earth. 第二节 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍） 听第1段对话，回答第6小题。 M: Nancy, did you go to the museum with Tom yesterday? W: No, I went to the bookstore and Tom went to the park. 听第2段对话，回答第7小题。 M: What do you do in your free time, Ella? Do exercises or watch TV? W: No. I usually play the flute. 听第3段对话，回答第8小题。 W: Jeff, you play soccer so well. How often do you practice it? M: I practice it every Friday and Sunday. 听第4段对话，回答第9小题。 W: Hurry up, Ben! It’s 8:30 now. We will probably be late for the movie. M: Don’t worry. We still have 30 minutes. 听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。 W: Simon, school art festival is coming. Do you have any plans? M: I like singing. I want to sing songs on stage. W: That’s cool. I can’t wait to hear your songs. M: What about you? W: Well, I am thinking about dancing or playing the piano. M: How about I sing and you play the piano on stage together? W: Sounds amazing! Let’s give it a go. 听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。 M: Take a seat, Helen. How are you feeling? W: Terrible. I feel cold and my throat hurts too. M: When did it start? W: It started yesterday. M: Let me take your temperature... It’s normal. But your throat is red. W: What should I do? M: Don’t go to school or do any sports. Drink more warm water will be helpful. W: I will. Thanks a lot. 听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。 M: Judy, you look unhappy. What’s wrong? W: I argued with my parents. They always compared my grades with my cousin Tina’s. M: I see. Maybe they just want you to do better. W: But it makes me feel down and angry sometimes. M: Have you tried talking to them or asking your teachers for help? W: No, I’m afraid I will cry. M: Then why not write them a letter? It’s also a good way to express yourself. W: Good idea. 第3节 听下面短文，根据你所听到的内容，完成以下表格，每空填一词。（短文读三遍） Good morning, everyone! In order to help you protect eyes, our school makes an eye caring plan. There will be a free eye test at 3 p.m. on Friday. The eye test will be held in the gym. And here is some advice for you to protect your eyes. First, take a rest every 40 minutes’ reading. Second, do eye exercises and have a good sleep. Most importantly, reduce screen time. Too much screen time can make your eyes dry and tired. Remember your eyes are very important. Let’s take action to see the world clearly. Thank you! 1 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025—2026学年第二学期第一阶段综合练习 八年级英语 （满分150分；时长120分钟） 考生注意： 本试卷分为两大部分，第一部分为选择题，请考生将答案用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡上；第二部分为非选择题，请考生将答案用0.5毫米的黑色签字笔书写在答题卡上。 第一部分（选择题） Ⅰ．听力（共三节，20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分） 第一节 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图中选出与句子内容相关的选项。（每个句子读两遍） 1. A. B. C. 2. A. B. C. 3. A. B. C. 4. A. B. C. 5. A. B. C. 第二节 听下面7段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍） 听第1段对话，回答第6小题。 6. Where did Nancy go yesterday? A. To the museum. B. To the bookstore. C. To the park. 听第2段对话，回答第7小题。 7. What does Ella usually do in her free time? A. Do exercises. B. Watch TV. C. Play the flute. 听第3段对话，回答第8小题。 8. How often does Jeff play soccer? A. Every day. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week. 听第4段对话，回答第9小题。 9. When will the movie start? A. At 8:00. B. At 8:30. C. At 9:00. 听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。 10. What does Simon like to do? A. Sing songs. B. Dance. C. Play the piano. 11. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Festival performances. B. Different songs. C. Favorite activities. 听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。 12. What is the man’s advice for Helen? A. Go to school. B. Do some sports. C. Drink more water. 13. What’s the relationship between the speakers? A. Teacher and student. B. Doctor and patient. C. Classmates. 听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。 14. Why is Judy unhappy? A. Argued with parents. B. Got bad grades. C. Fought with cousins. 15. What will Judy probably do next? A. Talk to parents. B. Ask teachers for help. C. Write a letter. 第三节 听下面短文，根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空一词。（短文读三遍） School Eye Caring Plan Activity A free eye test. Time At 3 p.m. on 16 . Place The 17 . Advice Take a rest every 18 minutes’ reading. Do eye exercises and have a 19 sleep. 20 screen time. Ⅱ．选择填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。 21. China plans to launch (发射) Chang’e-7 __________ August 2026. A. at B. on C. in 22. We won’t realize time is valuable __________ we lose it. A. until B. although C. if 23. — Why are you laughing, Daniel? — There is __________ funny in today’s news. Come and watch it with me! A. nothing B. something C. anything 24. My cousin often asks me __________ kites with her when it’s windy. A. fly B. to fly C. flying 25. — __________ is the Yangtze River? — As I know, it is about 6,300 kilometres long. A. How long B. How deep C. How soon 26. Anne’s parents are __________ about her bedtime. They never let her stay up late. A. angry B. careless C. strict 27. — Mom, I don’t know how to __________ the old toys. — How about giving them away to the kids in poor areas? A. look for B. deal with C. turn on 28. — Judy practices her spoken English hard every day. — Yes, she does it so hard that she can express __________ in English. A. sadly B. clearly C. luckily 29. — I’m so sorry for breaking your glass. I didn’t do it __________. — Never mind. I have another one. A. on purpose B. by mistake C. in return 30. To keep healthy, we need to __________ eating too much junk food. A. risk B. allow C. avoid 31. — It’s raining hard outside! — Don’t worry. You __________ use my umbrella. A. must B. should C. can 32. For our __________, we must follow the traffic rules on the road. A. safety B. kindness C. research 33. — Liu Sitong won China’s first award at 2026 Winter Paralympics (残奥会). — Great! I am __________ her. A. proud of B. worried about C. hard on 34. James __________ of traveling around the world when he was young. A. dreams B. dreamed C. will dream 35. — John, I feel so afraid. It’s difficult for me to ice-skate. — __________. I’m sure you can make it. A. Well done B. It’s a deal C. Give it a go Ⅲ．完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。 One evening, a sudden loud noise broke the quiet. Helen ran out and saw some people standing 36 on the sidewalk. They looked worried. A young man lay by a broken motorbike, and his leg was badly hurt. Though in great 37 , he could still talk. Someone called an ambulance (救护车). People around could only 38 for the ambulance to arrive because no one knew how to help the bleeding man. Helen had taken a Red Cross first aid course but she had only learned it in class, never used it in a 39 situation. For a moment she felt afraid and didn’t know what to do. Soon, the first aid 40 from her training came into her mind. Without thinking twice, she hurried home for some towels (毛巾) to stop the bleeding. When she returned, the young man was still bleeding heavily. Helen told 41 to stay calm. She folded the towels and 42 them against the cut, just following what she had learned in the first aid course. Finally she controlled the bleeding, and comforted the man 43 the ambulance arrived. At the hospital, even though doctors could not save the man’s leg, they saved his life — 44 Helen’s brave action. “Knowing first aid gave me the confidence to stay calm, deal with the situations, and most importantly, to step forward to help. I feel so 45 that my first aid knowledge helped me save a stranger’s life.” Helen said. 36. A. nervously B. proudly C. wisely 37. A. pride B. surprise C. pain 38. A. prepare B. wait C. look 39. A. clear B. single C. real 40. A. skills B. cards C. awards 41. A. myself B. herself C. himself 42. A. pressed B. heated C. changed 43. A. although B. before C. if 44. A. instead of B. in order to C. thanks to 45. A. happy B. curious C. careful Ⅳ．阅读理解（共两节，25小题；满分45分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） A 46. How much does the book cost during April? A. $20. B. $50. C. $80. D. $120. 47. The writer of Making Friends at School is __________. A. Miss Cheung. B. Mr Lee. C. Ms Chan. D. Dr Joseph Wong. 48. What do we know about the book? A. It has a 4-star rating. B. It is published by HKU. C. It is for young parents. D. It teaches children to tell stories. 49. What do the reviews have in common? A. The book is very useful. B. All teachers should read it. C. Kids’ changes can be seen. D. Sharing feelings is the best. 50. In which section of the bookstore can we find this book? A. Fiction. B. Parenting. C. Art. D. Travel. B The Greens were having a picnic. Empty bottles and plastic (塑料的) bags covered the grass. Suddenly, a spaceship appeared and an alien (外星人) flew out. “Hello! I’m Zaza from Planet Junk. My planet is like a huge dustbin (垃圾桶), so I’m looking for a new home.” He looked around. “Someone told me Earth was beautiful, but this planet looks as dirty as mine!” The Greens’ faces turned red — they really shouldn’t leave rubbish everywhere. “Are those green things trees?” Zaza said excitedly, “On my planet, they were all cut down long ago, but you have so many. How lucky you are!” At the same time, Mr Green noticed a newspaper with the title: More Rainforests Disappeared. His face burned. He quickly sat on it, trying to hide it. Later, the Greens took Zaza to the beach. Mrs. Green told him that people came here to play and relax, hoping to show Earth was still a nice place. But Zaza saw plastic bags, cans, newspapers and bottles everywhere. He even thought this was a “recycling (回收) centre”. Then the Greens took Zaza to their home. As Mr Green opened the door, lights were on in every room, even though the family had been out all day. Zaza was disappointed, “I can’t live on Earth. If you keep making so much rubbish and wasting so much energy, my planet’s today will be yours tomorrow. Bye!” As Zaza flew off, Mr Green stood still for a moment. “He’s right. ▲ . Let’s clean up the rubbish and turn off the lights.” High above, Zaza saw the green grass slowly becoming clean again. “Maybe there’s hope.” he thought, and flew away. 51. Zaza come to Earth to __________. A. have a picnic. B. find a new home. C. see the trees. D. visit the beach. 52. Why did Mr Green try to hide the newspaper? A. He felt sorry. B. He was playful. C. He wanted to read it. D. He liked it. 53. What did Zaza see on the beach? ① Plastic bags. ② Cans. ③ Newspapers. ④ Recycling centre sign. A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ①③④ D. ②③④ 54. Which can be put in ▲ ? A. Our planet is perfect. B. Here is a new home for all. C. We should protect our planet. D. Don’t be hard on ourselves. 55. What is the main purpose of the story? A. To describe a family’s picnic. B. To tell a story about an alien. C. To introduce different places. D. To push people to care for the earth. C Recently, a new relaxing walking activity called ColorWalk has become popular among young people. It helps relieve (缓解) stress and manage emotions. Its rules are simple: Choose a color before you go out. Then walk through the streets. Look for things of that color and take photos. This simple act starts a relaxing and happy journey. One reason ColorWalk benefits us is that colors affect us in different ways. Cool colors like blue and green can make our hearts beat slower and help us relax. Warm colors like red and orange can make us energetic and more awake. Another reason is that ColorWalk gives us a small and clear goal. Wang Wenda, a mental health (心理健康) teacher, said setting small goals and taking small actions can help our brains become more active. When we finish a small task, we feel a sense of achievement. It can make us feel more confident. Many young people have tried ColorWalk. For example, Ms Kang tried ColorWalk and chose green to deal with her anxiety (焦虑) at work. At first, her heart was still racing. Then she saw green leaves on a tree. A few steps later, she noticed green grass and a green bench (长椅). Slowly, her breathing became calmer. By the end of the walk, the anxiety on her face disappeared. “We can use small actions to get pleasure and relaxation.” Wang Wenda also said, “these small actions help us create our own small world.” 56. What should we do first if we try ColorWalk? A. Choose a color. B. Take photos. C. Buy some things. D. Find an old street. 57. Which color can help people relax according to Para. 2? A. Red. B. Orange. C. Yellow. D. Blue. 58. What does the underlined word “It” in Para. 3 refer to? A. Setting goals. B. Taking actions. C. Finishing a task. D. Feeling confident. 59. Which picture shows how Ms Kang’s anxiety changes in Para. 4? A. B. C. D. 60. What is the passage mainly about? A. Walking activities’ history. B. A new relaxing activity. C. Warm colors in our life. D. How to deal with anxiety. D Many of us have had this experience: you try a new pizza one night, and your stomach hurts the next morning. Then you avoid that pizza later. This is called conditioned taste aversion (条件性味觉厌恶). It keeps humans and animals safe from harmful foods. However, here is a big question: how does the brain connect two events that happen far apart in time? Touching a hot stove causes pain at once, but food sickness comes much later, so the brain must bridge this time gap (时间差). Scientists believed the answer lay in two parts of the body: the amygdala — a brain area for memory and feelings, and the CGRP neurons — carry stomach sickness signals. To test this idea, scientists did an experiment (实验) with mice. First, they gave mice a sweet drink with a new or familiar flavor (味道). After waiting 30 minutes, they made the mice feel a little stomach sickness with chemical (化学物质). The next day, they let the mice choose the flavored drink or simple water, and watched the mice’s brains with special tools. The results were clear: the amygdala was active when the mice tasted the flavor, got the sickness signal, and remembered the flavor. CGRP neurons sent the “sick signal” to the amygdala, which then brought back the flavor memory. The clearer the memory, the stronger the memory. So the mice avoided the new flavor that made them sick, but not the familiar one. This explains why new foods often feel “unsafe” because new flavor memories stay strong, while familiar ones disappear fast. Our brain connects what we eat with how we feel later, helping us choose safe, healthy food. So always pay attention to your body after eating. 61. The writer talks about the new pizza experience to ________________. A. share a story B. show a new food C. explain a habit D. lead in a topic 62. What does the underlined word “bridge” mean in the dictionary on the right? A. ① B. ② C. ③ D. ④ 63. Why did scientists use the chemical in the experiment? A. To make drinks sweet. B. To make mice feel sick. C. To avoid harmful foods. D. To test the brain’s action. 64. According to the study, what’s CGRP neurons’ job in the brain? A. Sending sickness messages. B. Controlling brain’s actions. C. Storing dangerous flavors. D. Recording taste information. 65. What is the best title for the passage? A. Brain Areas for Memory B. The Mice Study Does Work C. How to Test Foods Safety D. How Brain Avoids Bad Food 第二节 阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯，意思完整。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） E Confidence is about believing in yourself and your abilities. It helps you do well in school, get along with others, and feel great about your life. 66 . Challenge your negative thoughts. 67 . Then ask yourself if it is really true. When you question these thoughts, you can slowly change the way you think and become more confident. Use positive self-talk. Say positive things about yourself every day. You can remind yourself of your strengths or something you hope to become. Over time, these words can help you believe in yourself more. 68 Everyone makes mistakes, and you are no different. Try to forgive yourself and move on. At the same time, be honest about what you need to improve and keep trying to do better. Develop daily habits. Do something you enjoy every day to make yourself happy. Also, remember to stand up straight and look at people when you talk. 69 Build confidence through action. Try new things and learn new skills. 70 . Each success can help you feel more confident and ready for bigger challenges. A. Start with small steps and move forward. B. Forgive your mistakes and learn from them. C. Try to notice when you think something bad. D. There are some ways to build your confidence. E. These habits help you feel more confident in life. 第二部分（非选择题） Ⅴ．情景交际（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据情景提示，用得体的英语完成下列对话。 71. A: How about talking to your parents? B: ___________________________________. I will do it at once. 72. A: ___________________________________ when you are free? B: I like to play the flute in my free time. 73. A: ___________________________________? You look upset. B: I failed the English exam. 74. A: ___________________________________ Gulangyu Island? B: It is about 1.88 square kilometers in size. 75. A: I have a bad backache. ___________________________________? B: You should get some rest. Ⅵ．看图写话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。 76. last weekend 77. should 78. have 79. big, world 80. if, sunny Ⅶ．短文填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，根据语境或所给单词的提示，在每个空格内填入一个恰当的词，要求所填的词意义准确、形式正确，使短文意思完整、行文连贯。 Mount Qomolangma is famous around the world. To most people, Mount Qomolangma is one of the greatest 81 (wonder) of the world. Only the best climbers can 82 (safe) reach the top. Thin air, high cliffs, and changeable weather stop many climbers. Before 1960, no one was able to reach the top of Qomolangma from the northern side. Mountain climbers even called that way the “Death Road”. 83 , a Chinese climbing team was determined to make the climb. On 24 May 1960, Liu Lianman, Wang Fuzhou, Qu Yinhua, and Gongbu arrived at the Second Step, 8,600 metres above sea level, which was so high that even birds could not reach it. Liu allowed his teammates to step 84 his shoulders. Bit by bit, they 85 (pull) themselves up. At 4:20 a.m. on 25 May, the Chinese national flag flew above the world’s highest mountain for the 86 (one) time. In 1975, another Chinese team brought 87 ladder to the Second Step. Until 2007, almost all climbers from the northern side used this “Chinese Ladder” to reach the top much 88 (fast) than before. In 2020, a Chinese research team measured 89 (it) height — 8,848.86 metres. Climbing Qomolangma is quite 90 (danger). But why do people risk their lives to climb it? Curiosity about nature and great ambition is the answer. Ⅷ．书面表达（满分15分） 成长路上，总有人向你伸出援手，或是给你陪伴和力量。假设你是李华，请结合下图，写一封感谢信给帮助过你的人，感谢他/她在学习或生活中给予你的帮助，说说你的改变，并表达你的感激之情。词数80左右。 注意事项： 1．必须包含所有提示信息，可适当发挥，开头已给出，不计入总词数； 2．意思清楚，表达通顺，行文连贯，书写规范； 3．请勿在文中使用真实的姓名和校名。 Dear __________, I’m writing to express my sincere thanks to you. _________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ Sincerely, Li Hua 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $这是2025至2026学年第二学期八年级第一阶段质量检测综合练习英语课听力部分，该部分共3节。注意回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案填涂到答题卡上。现在是听力试音时间，请各考场根据试音情况将音量调到最佳状态。Hi john, whats your plan for the coming summer . vocation? I'm not sure my parents ask me to study at home, but i'd like to spend IT abroad. Which country would you like to go to? I have no idea. I just want to relax because I feel tired these days. What about you, tina? I plan to do part time jobs. Then i'll take lessons to learn to play the violin. Sounds great. 试音到此结束。听力考试正式开始。请看听力部分第一节，第一节听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每个句子后，你都有5秒钟的时间作答和阅读下一小题，每个句子读两遍。现在你有5秒钟的时间阅读第一小题的有关内容。One Alice had a toothache yesterday. Alice had a toothache yesterday. Two, I was shocked when I heard the news. I was shocked when I heard the news. Three, tina enjoys playing the guitar on the weekend. Tina enjoys playing the guitar on the weekend. For my favorite activity is horse riding. My favorite activity is horse riding. Five, the dead sea is the lowest place on earth. The dead sea is the lowest place on earth. 第一节到此结束，第二节听下面7段对话，从每小题所给的ABC3个选项中选出正确答案，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有5秒钟的时间回答有关小题和5秒钟的时间阅读下一小题，每段对话读两遍。听第一段对话，回答第六小题。现在你有5秒钟的时间阅读这一小题。Nancy, did you go to the museum with tom yesterday? No. I went to the bookstore and tom went to the park. Nancy, did you go to the museum with tom yesterday? No. I went to the bookstore and tom went to the park. 听第二段对话，回答第七小题，现在你有5秒钟的时间阅读这一小题。What do you do in your free time? Ella, do exercises or watch. T, V. no, I usually play the fruit. What do you do in your free time? Ella, do exercises or watch. T, V. no, I usually play the fruit. 听第三段对话，回答第八小题，现在你有5秒钟的时间阅读这一小题。Jeff, you play soccer so well. How often do you practice IT? I practice IT every friday and sunday. Jeff, you play soccer so well. How often do you practice IT? I practice IT every friday and sunday. 听第四段对话，回答第九小题。现在你有5秒钟的时间阅读这一小题。Hurry up, ban its half past eight. now. We will probably be late for the movie. Don't worry, we still have thirty minutes. Hurry up, ban its half past eight. now. We will probably be late for the movie. Don't worry, we still have thirty minutes. 听第五段对话，回答第10和10一两个小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Simon school art festival is coming. Do you have . any plans? I like singing. I want to sing songs on stage. That's cool. I can't wait to hear your songs. What about you? Well, I am thinking about dancing or playing the piano. How about icing and you play the piano on stage together? Sounds amazing. Let's give me a go. Simon school art festival is coming. Do you have . any plans? I like singing. I want to sing songs on stage. That's cool. I can't wait to hear your songs. What about you? Well, I am thinking about dancing or playing the piano. How about icing and you play the piano on stage together? Sounds amazing. Let's give me a go. 听第六段对话，回答第12和13两个小题，现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Take a seat. Helen, how are you feeling . terrible? I feel cold and my throat hurts too. When did you start? IT started yesterday. Let me take your temperature. It's Normal, but your throat is red. What should I do? Don't go to school or do any sports. Drink more warm water . will be helpful. I will, thanks a lot. Take a seat. Helen, how are you feeling terrible? I feel cold and my throat hurts too. When did IT start? IT started yesterday. Let me take your temperature. It's Normal, but your throat is red. What should I do? Don't go to school or do any sports, drink more warm water . will be helpful. I will. 听第七段对话，回答第14和15两个小题，现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Judy, you look unhappy. What's wrong? I argued . with my parents. They always compared my grades with . my cousin tina. I see maybe they just want you to do Better. but IT makes me feel down and angry sometimes. Have you tried talking to them or asking your . teachers for help? No. i'm afraid I will cry. Then why not write them a letter? It's also a good way to . express yourself. Good idea. Judy, you look unhappy. What's wrong? I argued . with my parents. They always compared my grades with . my cousin. Tas, I see, maybe they just want you to do Better. but IT makes me feel down and angry sometimes. Have you tried talking to them or asking . your teachers for help? No, i'm afraid I will cry. Then why not write them a letter? It's also a good way to express yourself. Good idea. 第二节到此结束，第三节听下面短文，根据你所听到的内容完成以下表格，每空填一词。听短文前你将有20秒钟的时间阅读表格内容，短文读三遍。Good morning, everyone. In order to help you protect eyes, our school makes an I caring plan. There will be a free eye test at three P. M on friday. The ee test will be held in the gym, and here is some advice for you to protect your eyes. First, take a rest every forty minutes reading. Second, do I exercises and have a good sleep. Most importantly, reduce screen time. Too much screen time can make your eyes dry and tired. Remember, your eyes are very important. Let's take action to see the world clearly. Thank you. Good morning, everyone. In order to help you protect eyes, our school makes an eye caring plan. There will be a free ee test at three P. M on friday. The ee test will be held in the gym, and here is some advice for you to protect your eyes. First, take a rest every forty minutes reading. Second, do I exercises and have a good sleep. Most importantly, reduce screen time. Too much screen time can make your eyes dry and tired. Remember, your eyes are very important. Let's take action to see the world clearly. Thank you. Good morning, everyone. In order to help you protect eyes, our school makes an I caring plan. There will be a free ee test at three PM on friday. The ee test will be held in the gym, and here is some advice for you to protect your eyes. First, take a rest every forty minutes reading. Second, do ee exercises and have a good sleep. Most importantly, reduce screen time. Too much screen time can make your eyes dry and tired. Remember, your eyes are very important. Let's take action to see the world clearly. Thank you. 第三节到此结束。现在你有。两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案填涂到答题卡上。听力部分到此结束。