精品解析：四川宜宾市第一中学校2025-2026学年高二上学期入学考试英语试题

宜宾市一中2024级高二上期入学考试 英语 满分：150分 考试时间：120分钟 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What will Joe do? A. Work in Paris. B. Leave his company. C. Move house. 2. When will the speakers have a meeting today? A. At 12 p.m. B. At 2 p.m C. At 7 p.m. 3 Why is the man making the call? A. To remind the woman of a rainstorm. B. To make work arrangements. C. To have his house repaired. 4. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a restaurant. B. In a store. C. In a hotel. 5. What are the speakers discussing? A. A play. B. A band. C. A noise. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What does the woman think of her job? A. It’s well paid. B. It’s unsatisfying. C. It’s pleasant. 7. What has the man been busy doing? A. Working on the computer. B. Preparing for a trip. C. Chatting online. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What’s the relationship between speakers? A. Customer and saleswoman. B. Boss and worker. C. Husband and wife. 9. What will the woman do next? A. Check the camera. B. Take some photos. C. Replace the battery. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. Why does the girl care about the show time? A. She needs time to do her homework. B. She and Shannon have fixed the time. C. She doesn’t want to come home early. 11. Which show will the girl see? A. The nine o’clock show. B. The seven fifteen show. C. The five o’clock show. 12. How will the girl go to the cinema? A. By car. B. By bus. C. By bike. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. How many books can a student borrow from the library at most per day? A. Three. B. Five. C. Ten. 14. Why can’t the boy borrow the books now? A. He has not returned the overdue book. B. He has been fined by the library before. C. He doesn’t have his student ID card with him. 15. Why does the boy borrow the books? A. He is getting the books for a friend. B. He needs to find information for a paper. C. He has been asked to read them by the professor. 16. What does the woman suggest the boy do? A. Pay the fine now. B. Make a call to his friend. C. Copy what he needs. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. Who is the speaker? A. A pipeline engineer. B. A visiting professor. C. A student. 18. What is the city of Anchorage like today? A. Crowded. B. Poor. C. Quiet. 19. What was the main cause of the recent changes in Alaska? A. The tourism in the mountain area. B. An increase in birthrate. C. The discovery of oil. 20. Why is the speaker going to show some pictures? A. To share his recent trip. B. To show ways of pipeline construction. C. To point out changes in the wilderness. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 2025 Metropolis Marathon Registration Guide The 2025 Metropolis Marathon will take place on December 1 in the districts of Downtown, Riverside, and Uptown. For interested runners, the following is a guide for registration. Registration Period From October 9 at 8 pm to October 14 at noon, participants can log on to either the official website of the Metropolis Marathon or the MetMar app. They can then select the corresponding races and events for registration. A drawing will be held, for which the results will be announced on the afternoon of October 24. After the results are announced, participants have to complete the registration payment before October 28 at noon. Registration Fee For foreign runners, the registration fee for the full marathon is $235 per person, $145 per person for the half marathon, and $80 for the fitness running program. Domestic runners pay $225, $135, and $70 respectively. Entry Requirements Direct entry is offered to top finishers of previous Metropolis races (e. g., Women’s Half Marathon, Riverside Half Marathon). Additionally, 100 participants from the 2024 Virtual Run can enter via lottery (抽签). Qualified runners must register between October 9 and October 17. Charity Program This year, the Metropolis Marathon will continue to offer charity spots. Registration opens at 8 pm on October 9 with a total of 800 seats available on a first-come, first-served basis. Charity runners who successfully register are automatically confirmed and do not need to enter the drawing. Key Notes ●Late payments will result in disqualification. ●International runners must provide valid (有效的) passports and medical reports. ●No refunds are allowed after October 28 1. When will the registration result be released? A. On Oct 9. B. On Oct 14. C. On Oct 17. D. On Oct 24. 2. Who can get direct entry? A. Athletes of the 2024 Virtual Run. B. Participants of fitness running program. C. Winners of past Metropolis races. D. Foreign runners paying $235. 3. What can a runner do to secure a charity spot? A. Enter the runner lottery. B. Register within 800 seats. C. Pay an additional fee. D. Submit a charity application. B When Gary Leung completely lost his eyesight nearly 15 years ago, it almost destroyed him. The Hong Kong native fell into hopelessness. Just at that time, he found long-distance running. Now in his 50s, Leung has since completed the 100-kilometer Antarctic Ice Marathon, becoming the first blind person to do so. He even attempted the 400 km “Ultra Gobi”, thought to be one of the most challenging foot-races in the world. Recently, he is fresh off a 2,300 km charity run in Japan. The Japanese “Dark Run 2023” was divided into 40 days, meaning Leung and his guide runners—connected by a string attachment—ran an average of more than 50 km per day. The run was aimed at raising money for young people with serious illnesses and showing them that all people have obstacles (障碍), but we must face them head-on and with bravery. Though Leung can’t physically see things in front of him, he says that doesn’t make him fearful of running long distances now. He thinks there’s no need to be scared for those who are lacking in something. The universe will equip them with other talents. And they are never alone, just like he wasn’t alone on this run. His guide runners gave up their own holidays and put their own money in to fly over and support him. “I want to pass down the spirit. I’m not young anymore and won’t be able to run these distances much longer,” he says, smiling. “I want to help my younger friends with similar experiences to learn to love exercise. Doing physical activities is not as easy for them as it is for able-bodied people, so I want to set up a stage where we can continue to bring things to them—and for them to do the same for more.” 4. What does long-distance running mean for Leung? A. A cure for his eyes. B. A tool for making a living. C. A way out of life’s worst. D. A form of physical exercise. 5. How does Leung finish all his long-distance running? A. He was guided while running. B. He managed it by himself. C. He sought help from the organizers. D. He took advantage of public transport. 6. What can be inferred from Leung’s words in the last paragraph? A. He is ready to challenge longer running. B. He is too tired to go on with charity work. C. He wants young people to follow his example. D. He thinks running is easy for the blind to take up. 7. Which words can best describe Leung? A. Humorous and honest. B. Strong-willed and inspiring. C. Responsible and outgoing. D. Independent and warm-hearted. C Scientists studying the behavior of starlings (椋鸟) have found their ability to give and take makes their relationships closer to human friendships than previously thought. About 10% of bird species breed (繁殖) “cooperatively”, meaning some individuals refrain from breeding to help others care for their babies. Now researchers studying starlings have found the support cuts both ways, with birds that received help in feeding or guarding their chicks returning the favor when the “helper” bird has babies of its own. Prof Dustin Rubenstein, a co-author of the study from the University of Colombia, said such behavior is probably necessary for starlings as they live in an environment where drought is common and food is limited. “Two birds probably can’t feed their babies on their own, so they need these helpers to help them survive,” he said, adding that each breeding pair produces few younger ones. “What happens is that the non-relatives come into the group. They breed pretty quickly, usually in the first year, maybe the second year, and then they take some time off and some of the other birds breed — and we never understood why,” said Rubenstein. “But they’re forming these relationships in the sense that I might help you this year, and then you’ll help me in the future.” The results agree with previous work from Rubenstein and co-workers that found starlings living in larger groups have a greater chance of survival and of producing babies, with the new work suggesting the give-and-take approach helps to enlarge these groups. Writing in the journal Nature, Rubenstein reported that his team studied starlings at 410 nests (鸟巢) in Kenya, recording data over a 20-year period from 2002 that covered more than 40 breeding seasons. The team also collected DNA from 1,175 birds to explore their relationships with each other. The results show that rather than helping birds at random, starlings preferentially helped breeding birds that were related to them, particularly if they were born in the same nest. However, they also helped unrelated breeding birds, even when there were opportunities to help relatives. 8. What do the underlined words “refrain from” in paragraph 1 probably mean? A. Practice. B. Recover. C. Avoid. D. Strengthen. 9. Why do starlings work together to breed? A. They require help due to terrible living conditions. B. They want to increase the adaptability of their babies. C. They enjoy the company of other birds during breeding. D. They aim to make the most of limited living space. 10. How did the researchers make the findings? A. By referring to previous studies. B. By tracking different species continuously. C. By making assumptions and proving them. D. By recording data personally and studying them. 11. Which of the following can be the best title for the text? A. The Competition Between Starlings and Other Species B. A Comparison of Starling and Human Friendships C. DNA Information Shows Starling Family Relationship D. Starlings Increase Survival Chance by Supporting Each Other D We have more ways to access music than at any time in history and a whole world of unfamiliar styles to explore. The thrill of discovering new songs and new sounds can enrich people of all ages. Except, most of the time, it doesn’t. Our willingness to explore new, unfamiliar music declines with age. Academics have coined the term “open-earedness” to describe this phenomenon. Until around the age of 11 children are generally happy to engage with unfamiliar music. Early adolescence sees a reduction in open-earedness, but is accompanied by an intense increase in interest in music more generally. Open-earedness increases slightly during young adulthood, and then declines as we age. A major study involving more than 250,000 participants confirmed these changing behaviors. It also showed that the significance we give to music after adolescence declines, and the amount of music we listen to reduces from a high point of 20% of our waking time during adolescence, to 13% in adulthood. Researchers have different theories to account for these trends. One explanation for age-based reduction in music consumption simply assumes that responsibility-burdened adults may have less free time at their disposal (自由支配) to explore their musical interests than younger people. Some interpret the observed decline in music engagement in terms of psychosocial maturation. Adolescents use music as an identity marker and engage with it to navigate social circles. Adults have developed personalities and established social groups. As such, drivers to engage with new music are lessened. Some researchers argue that we shouldn’t use a person’s age to predict if their musical taste will stay the same, without first thinking about how we enjoy and use music at different stages of our lives. Teenagers tend to be very aware of what they are listening to. Adults who use music as motivation or accompaniment for activities such as exercise or household chores may be less conscious of the extent to which they actually do listen to new music. 12. What does the term “open-earedness” refer to in the passage? A The ability to play music. B. The willingness to explore new music. C. The interest in music during adolescence. D. The significance of music in daily life. 13. According to the study, how does the amount of music listened to change as we age? A. It remains consistent throughout life. B. It increases from childhood to adulthood. C. It peaks during adolescence and then decreases. D. It gradually declines from childhood to adulthood. 14. What factor is suggested as one cause for a reduced interest in new music as people age? A. An increase in hearing sharpness. B. Less spare time due to responsibilities. C. An intense decrease in interest in music. D. Changes in personality and social groups. 15. Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. Music Consumption: A Lifelong Journey. B. Factors Influencing Music Engagement in Adults. C. Adolescents and Music: Identity and Exploration. D. Decline of Open-Earedness: Age Affects Music Exploration. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How to Cheer up Your Friend The following tips will make your friend cheer up. Try one or more of the suggestions below, and hopefully your friend will be happy again in no time. ____16____. If your friend is angry about a situation at work, help him see the positive side of things. Listen to his problem before reacting (回应). But try to help him by asking questions such as “What things can you do to make the situation better?” or “What’s been happening at work lately that has been good?” Send him a card or postcard. Not many people get handwritten notes any more. It’s so rare (稀少的), in fact, that it’s certain to put a smile on his face. Drop a note in the mail to him. ___17___. Build up his self-esteem (自尊). Everyone needs to hear they are smart, strong, and beautiful sometimes. ___18___ , as they can help him build confidence and self-esteem. Try to make your praise unique to the person, so he knows you truly mean what you say. Try out new things together. True happiness is partly about the adventure. It may mean you may need to step outside of what’s comfortable and try something new. ___19___. If you want your friends to be happy, encourage them to try new things with you. Bring him one of his favorite drinks or foods. ____20____. Maybe he can’t live without an afternoon coffee, or maybe he has a special love for black forest cake. Surprise him by bringing one of them to him when you know he’s having a difficult day. A. Encourage your friend B. Help him to see the positive side C. You know what your friend likes D. In turn, discover new things you love E. Don’t be afraid to tell your friend these things F. Similarly, your happiness will affect your friends G. If you include one with a funny card, that’s better 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Just a few months earlier, I would never have pictured myself acting in a play in front of two hundred people. If not for my ____21____, Mrs. Sather, I might never have found that opportunity. In the first and second grade, I was extremely ____22____ . It just wasn't in my personality to be very outgoing. I would escape in my writing. Mrs. Sather, always ____23____ me to write more. I think she was one of the first people to see my inner ____24____. One day, she announced our class was going to ____25____ a play, a take off on The Wizard of Oz. “I need someone to play the lead part of Dorothy.” A few excited hands ____26____ . Mine, of course, was not one of them. After school, Mrs. Sather said to me, “Dallas, I was ____27____ you didn't raise your hand. You're great at memorizing things, and you have such a sweet personality. Perfect for Dorothy! I had you in ____28____ for Dorothy while writing the play! If you ____29____ don't want to, though, I won't make you. It's your _____30_____.” I realized it was time to show the world who I really was. I _____31_____ the role. Fast-forward through five months of _____32_____ , line memorizing, and costume creating, we were ready. At the end of the play, when the audience stood and applauded, I knew they were not just _____33_____ for my performance that night, but for the _____34_____ that they knew would come in later years because of my newfound _____35_____ 21. A. partner B. teacher C. parent D. classmate 22. A. shy B. weak C. energetic D. ambitious 23 A. recommended B. allowed C. encouraged D. accompanied 24. A. drawback B. peace C. character D. strength 25. A. perform B. watch C. write D. enjoy 26. A. put down B. reached out C. shot up D. drew back 27. A. excited B. amused C. afraid D. surprised 28. A. store B. mind C. memory D. comparison 29. A. really B. initially C. finally D. spiritually 30. A. turn B. choice C. luck D. fault 31. A. created B. played C. accepted D. remembered 32. A. practicing B. learning C. observing D. communicating 33. A. celebrating B. chatting C. cheering D. congratulating 34. A. praises B. efforts C. beliefs D. performances 35. A. skill B. confidence C. interest D. hobby 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Rainbow-coloured rubbish This is the colourful waste ___36___ (create) by a Swedish city with a unique recycling system. Like many cities in Sweden, Eskilstuna has an impressive recycling record. It met the EU’s 2020 target of recycling 50％of waste many years ago. But almost everyone who lives here follows a strict recycling policy at home. People ___37___(expect) to sort their household waste into seven separate___38___ (category), including food, textiles, cartons and metal. But ___39___ really makes the system stand out is the bright colour code. The bags arrive all mixed up because they’re collected ___40___ (frequent). But thanks to those bright colours, scanners can select the bags and separate them efficiently. The food waste in green bags ___41___ (be) processed on site into pieces to make biogas, ___42___ powers the city’s buses. One of the benefits of this method of recycling is that there is less cross-contamination (交叉污染), so ___43___ (much) of the recycled waste can actually be used to make new things. As countries around the world try to improve their recycling rates, some may look to Eskilstuna as ___44___ example to follow-as long as they think they can persuade their citizens to get busy ____45____ (sort) at home. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 你校正在组织以旅游为主题的英语作文比赛。请你以“一次旅游经历”为题，写一篇短文参赛，内容包括： 1.叙述旅游经历； 2.表达感受。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.短文题目已为你写好。 A memorable trip _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Grandfather was a wise and honorable man. His house was not far from ours, and I would visit him often going home after school. No matter how rotten I had been, I could tell Grandpa anything. My secrets were safe. Whenever there was a problem, he gave me the tools to fix it. I knew I would always find the best answer from him. He always understood. He loved me. I remember a time when a bunch of us were playing baseball in the field behind Mrs. Ferguson’s house. I hit one pitch just right and… slam! It was a home run that soared high and away, and ended up breaking Old Lady Ferguson’s kitchen window! We all ran! Walking home, my best friend, Tom, asked, "How will she ever know who did it? She’s blinder than a bat!” He had a point. I was afraid that Mrs. Ferguson would stay mad at me, so I ran. I didn’t know what she would do. I tried to calm down. However, my stomach was in knots. On the way home, I imagined that she was a mean witch (女巫) chasing me, and the further way I ran, the larger she grew… until finally she towered over the whole town, seeing my every move with an evil eye. Thoughts rushed through my mind. Would Mrs. Ferguson stay mad at me? Would she call police? Worse still, would she tell my parents. I couldn’t even imagine the disappointment on Mom and Dad’s face. They were hoping I would act honestly and in a responsible way. I decided to stop by Grandpa’s. I felt ashamed. I wanted to hide. I wanted to knock my head against a tree a thousand times and make the world just go away — as if punishing myself could undo things. But inside me a voice said: “I would tell everything to Grandpa.” “I was wrong,” I told him, with my head down. He must have known something was up by the expression on my face. He knew we had been warned many times about the dangers of playing where we shouldn’t. 注意： 1. 续写词数应为150左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Para 1: But he just listened while I continued talking. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Para 2: Hearing the decision, grandpa smiled. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 宜宾市一中2024级高二上期入学考试 英语 满分：150分 考试时间：120分钟 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What will Joe do? A. Work in Paris. B. Leave his company. C. Move house. 2. When will the speakers have a meeting today? A. At 12 p.m. B. At 2 p.m C. At 7 p.m. 3. Why is the man making the call? A. To remind the woman of a rainstorm. B. To make work arrangements. C. To have his house repaired. 4. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a restaurant. B. In a store. C. In a hotel. 5. What are the speakers discussing? A. A play. B. A band. C. A noise. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What does the woman think of her job? A. It’s well paid. B. It’s unsatisfying. C. It’s pleasant. 7. What has the man been busy doing? A. Working on the computer. B. Preparing for a trip. C. Chatting online. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What’s the relationship between speakers? A. Customer and saleswoman. B. Boss and worker. C. Husband and wife. 9. What will the woman do next? A. Check the camera. B. Take some photos. C. Replace the battery. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. Why does the girl care about the show time? A. She needs time to do her homework. B. She and Shannon have fixed the time. C. She doesn’t want to come home early. 11. Which show will the girl see? A. The nine o’clock show. B. The seven fifteen show. C. The five o’clock show. 12. How will the girl go to the cinema? A. By car. B. By bus. C. By bike. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. How many books can a student borrow from the library at most per day? A. Three. B. Five. C. Ten. 14. Why can’t the boy borrow the books now? A. He has not returned the overdue book. B. He has been fined by the library before. C. He doesn’t have his student ID card with him. 15. Why does the boy borrow the books? A. He is getting the books for a friend. B. He needs to find information for a paper. C. He has been asked to read them by the professor. 16. What does the woman suggest the boy do? A. Pay the fine now. B. Make a call to his friend. C. Copy what he needs. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. Who is the speaker? A. A pipeline engineer. B. A visiting professor. C. A student. 18. What is the city of Anchorage like today? A. Crowded. B. Poor. C. Quiet. 19. What was the main cause of the recent changes in Alaska? A. The tourism in the mountain area. B. An increase in birthrate. C. The discovery of oil. 20. Why is the speaker going to show some pictures? A. To share his recent trip. B. To show ways of pipeline construction. C. To point out changes in the wilderness. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 2025 Metropolis Marathon Registration Guide The 2025 Metropolis Marathon will take place on December 1 in the districts of Downtown, Riverside, and Uptown. For interested runners, the following is a guide for registration. Registration Period From October 9 at 8 pm to October 14 at noon, participants can log on to either the official website of the Metropolis Marathon or the MetMar app. They can then select the corresponding races and events for registration. A drawing will be held, for which the results will be announced on the afternoon of October 24. After the results are announced, participants have to complete the registration payment before October 28 at noon. Registration Fee For foreign runners, the registration fee for the full marathon is $235 per person, $145 per person for the half marathon, and $80 for the fitness running program. Domestic runners pay $225, $135, and $70 respectively. Entry Requirements Direct entry is offered to top finishers of previous Metropolis races (e. g., Women’s Half Marathon, Riverside Half Marathon). Additionally, 100 participants from the 2024 Virtual Run can enter via lottery (抽签). Qualified runners must register between October 9 and October 17. Charity Program This year, the Metropolis Marathon will continue to offer charity spots. Registration opens at 8 pm on October 9 with a total of 800 seats available on a first-come, first-served basis. Charity runners who successfully register are automatically confirmed and do not need to enter the drawing. Key Notes ●Late payments will result in disqualification. ●International runners must provide valid (有效的) passports and medical reports. ●No refunds are allowed after October 28. 1. When will the registration result be released? A. On Oct 9. B. On Oct 14. C. On Oct 17. D. On Oct 24. 2. Who can get direct entry? A. Athletes of the 2024 Virtual Run. B. Participants of fitness running program. C. Winners of past Metropolis races. D. Foreign runners paying $235. 3. What can a runner do to secure a charity spot? A. Enter the runner lottery. B. Register within 800 seats. C. Pay an additional fee. D. Submit a charity application. 【答案】1. D 2. C 3. B 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇应用文，主要介绍了 2025 年大都市马拉松的注册相关信息，包括注册时间、费用、参赛要求、慈善项目以及一些重要注意事项。 【1题详解】 细节理解题。根据文章“Registration Period”部分“ From October 9 at 8 pm to October 14 at noon, participants can log on to either the official website of the Metropolis Marathon or the MetMar app. They can then select the corresponding races and events for registration. A drawing will be held, for which the results will be announced on the afternoon of October 24. After the results are announced, participants have to complete the registration payment before October 28 at noon.(从10月9日晚上8点到10月14日中午，参赛者可以登录大都会马拉松官方网站或MetMar应用程序，然后选择相应的比赛和项目进行报名。将举行抽签，结果将于10月24日下午公布。结果公布后，参赛者须于10月28日中午前完成报名缴费)” 可知，注册结果将在 10 月 24 日公布。故选D。 【2题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Entry Requirements”部分“Direct entry is offered to top finishers of previous Metropolis races (e. g., Women’s Half Marathon, Riverside Half Marathon).(以前大都市比赛（如女子半程马拉松、河畔半程马拉松）的优秀完赛者可直接参赛)” 可知，过去大都市比赛的获胜者可以直接参赛。故选C。 【3题详解】 细节理解题。根据文“Charity Program”部分“This year, the Metropolis Marathon will continue to offer charity spots. Registration opens at 8 pm on October 9 with a total of 800 seats available on a first-come, first-served basis. Charity runners who successfully register are automatically confirmed and do not need to enter the drawing.(今年，大都市马拉松将继续提供慈善名额。10 月 9 日晚上 8 点开始注册，共有 800 个名额，先到先得。成功注册的慈善跑者将自动获得确认，无需参加抽签)” 可知，跑步者可以通过在 800 个名额内注册来确保获得一个慈善名额。故选B。 B When Gary Leung completely lost his eyesight nearly 15 years ago, it almost destroyed him. The Hong Kong native fell into hopelessness. Just at that time, he found long-distance running. Now in his 50s, Leung has since completed the 100-kilometer Antarctic Ice Marathon, becoming the first blind person to do so. He even attempted the 400 km “Ultra Gobi”, thought to be one of the most challenging foot-races in the world. Recently, he is fresh off a 2,300 km charity run in Japan. The Japanese “Dark Run 2023” was divided into 40 days, meaning Leung and his guide runners—connected by a string attachment—ran an average of more than 50 km per day. The run was aimed at raising money for young people with serious illnesses and showing them that all people have obstacles (障碍), but we must face them head-on and with bravery. Though Leung can’t physically see things in front of him, he says that doesn’t make him fearful of running long distances now. He thinks there’s no need to be scared for those who are lacking in something. The universe will equip them with other talents. And they are never alone, just like he wasn’t alone on this run. His guide runners gave up their own holidays and put their own money in to fly over and support him. “I want to pass down the spirit. I’m not young anymore and won’t be able to run these distances much longer,” he says, smiling. “I want to help my younger friends with similar experiences to learn to love exercise. Doing physical activities is not as easy for them as it is for able-bodied people, so I want to set up a stage where we can continue to bring things to them—and for them to do the same for more.” 4. What does long-distance running mean for Leung? A. A cure for his eyes. B. A tool for making a living. C. A way out of life’s worst. D. A form of physical exercise. 5. How does Leung finish all his long-distance running? A. He was guided while running. B. He managed it by himself. C. He sought help from the organizers. D. He took advantage of public transport. 6. What can be inferred from Leung’s words in the last paragraph? A. He is ready to challenge longer running. B. He is too tired to go on with charity work. C. He wants young people to follow his example. D. He thinks running is easy for the blind to take up. 7. Which words can best describe Leung? A. Humorous and honest. B. Strong-willed and inspiring. C. Responsible and outgoing. D. Independent and warm-hearted. 【答案】4. C 5. A 6. C 7. B 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了香港盲人Gary Leung通过长跑重获新生，并成为首位完成南极冰马拉松的盲人。他还通过慈善跑步活动激励他人，传递勇敢面对困难的精神。 【4题详解】 推理判断题。根据文章第一段“When Gary Leung completely lost his eyesight nearly 15 years ago, it almost destroyed him. The Hong Kong native fell into hopelessness. Just at that time, he found long-distance running.(当Gary Leung在15年前完全失明时，这几乎摧毁了他。这位香港人陷入了绝望。就在那时，他发现了长跑)”可知，长跑对Leung来说是在人生低谷时找到的出路。故选C项。 【5题详解】 细节理解题。根据文章第三段中的“The Japanese “Dark Run 2023” was divided into 40 days, meaning Leung and his guide runners—connected by a string attachment—ran an average of more than 50 km per day.(日本的“2023黑暗跑”分为40天，这意味着Leung和他的引导跑者——用一根绳子连接——平均每天跑50多公里)”可知，Leung是通过导跑员的帮助完成长跑的。故选A项。 【6题详解】 推理判断题。根据文章最后一段““I want to pass down the spirit. I’m not young anymore and won't be able to run these distances much longer,” he says, smiling. “I want to help my younger friends with similar experiences to learn to love exercise. Doing physical activities is not as easy for them as it is for able-bodied people, so I want to set up a stage where we can continue to bring things to them—and for them to do the same for more.”(“我想传承这种精神。我不再年轻了，不能再跑这么长的距离了，”他微笑着说。“我想帮助有类似经历的年轻朋友学会热爱运动。对他们来说，做体育活动并不像对健全人那么容易，所以我想建立一个舞台，让我们可以继续为他们带来一些东西——也让他们为更多的人做同样的事情。”)”可知，Leung想传承这种精神，帮助有类似经历的年轻朋友学会热爱运动，由此可推知，他想让年轻人以他为榜样。故选C项。 【7题详解】 推理判断题。根据文章第二段“Now in his 50s, Leung has since completed the 100-kilometer Antarctic Ice Marathon, becoming the first blind person to do so. He even attempted the 400 km “Ultra Gobi”, thought to be one of the most challenging foot-races in the world. Recently, he is fresh off a 2,300 km charity run in Japan.(现在50多岁的Leung已经完成了100公里的南极冰马拉松，成为第一个完成这一壮举的盲人。他甚至尝试了400公里的“超级戈壁”，这被认为是世界上最具挑战性的徒步比赛之一。最近，他刚完成在日本2300公里的慈善跑)”以及最后一段““I want to pass down the spirit. I’m not young anymore and won't be able to run these distances much longer,” he says, smiling. “I want to help my younger friends with similar experiences to learn to love exercise. Doing physical activities is not as easy for them as it is for able-bodied people, so I want to set up a stage where we can continue to bring things to them—and for them to do the same for more.”(“我想传承这种精神。我不再年轻了，不能再跑这么长的距离了，”他微笑着说。“我想帮助有类似经历的年轻朋友学会热爱运动。对他们来说，做体育活动并不像对健全人那么容易，所以我想建立一个舞台，让我们可以继续为他们带来一些东西——也让他们为更多的人做同样的事情。”)”可知，Leung虽然失明，但依然完成了多项长跑挑战，说明他意志坚强；他还想帮助有类似经历的年轻朋友学会热爱运动，说明他鼓舞人心。故选B项。 C Scientists studying the behavior of starlings (椋鸟) have found their ability to give and take makes their relationships closer to human friendships than previously thought. About 10% of bird species breed (繁殖) “cooperatively”, meaning some individuals refrain from breeding to help others care for their babies. Now researchers studying starlings have found the support cuts both ways, with birds that received help in feeding or guarding their chicks returning the favor when the “helper” bird has babies of its own. Prof Dustin Rubenstein, a co-author of the study from the University of Colombia, said such behavior is probably necessary for starlings as they live in an environment where drought is common and food is limited. “Two birds probably can’t feed their babies on their own, so they need these helpers to help them survive,” he said, adding that each breeding pair produces few younger ones. “What happens is that the non-relatives come into the group. They breed pretty quickly, usually in the first year, maybe the second year, and then they take some time off and some of the other birds breed — and we never understood why,” said Rubenstein. “But they’re forming these relationships in the sense that I might help you this year, and then you’ll help me in the future.” The results agree with previous work from Rubenstein and co-workers that found starlings living in larger groups have a greater chance of survival and of producing babies, with the new work suggesting the give-and-take approach helps to enlarge these groups. Writing in the journal Nature, Rubenstein reported that his team studied starlings at 410 nests (鸟巢) in Kenya, recording data over a 20-year period from 2002 that covered more than 40 breeding seasons. The team also collected DNA from 1,175 birds to explore their relationships with each other. The results show that rather than helping birds at random, starlings preferentially helped breeding birds that were related to them, particularly if they were born in the same nest. However, they also helped unrelated breeding birds, even when there were opportunities to help relatives. 8. What do the underlined words “refrain from” in paragraph 1 probably mean? A. Practice. B. Recover. C. Avoid. D. Strengthen. 9. Why do starlings work together to breed? A. They require help due to terrible living conditions. B. They want to increase the adaptability of their babies. C. They enjoy the company of other birds during breeding. D. They aim to make the most of limited living space. 10. How did the researchers make the findings? A. By referring to previous studies. B. By tracking different species continuously. C. By making assumptions and proving them. D. By recording data personally and studying them. 11. Which of the following can be the best title for the text? A. The Competition Between Starlings and Other Species B. A Comparison of Starling and Human Friendships C. DNA Information Shows Starling Family Relationship D. Starlings Increase Survival Chance by Supporting Each Other 【答案】8. C 9. A 10. D 11. D 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了研究发现椋鸟通过“今年我帮你，未来你助我”的互惠合作繁殖机制，在干旱恶劣环境中显著提高生存率和繁殖成功率，这种合作既发生在亲属间也存在于非亲属个体中。 【8题详解】 词句猜测题。根据画线部分的上文“About 10% of bird species breed (繁殖) “cooperatively” (约10%的鸟类会“合作繁殖”)”和下文“to help others care for their babies (来帮助其他鸟照顾幼雏)”可知，合作繁殖意味着为了帮助照顾其他鸟的幼雏而避免自己繁殖，画线部分意为“避免，克制”，与Avoid意思一致。故选C项。 【9题详解】 细节理解题。根据第二段中“Prof Dustin Rubenstein, a co-author of the study from the University of Colombia, said such behavior is probably necessary for starlings as they live in an environment where drought is common and food is limited. (该研究的合著者、哥伦比亚大学的Dustin Rubenstein教授表示，这种行为对椋鸟可能是必要的，因为它们生活在干旱常见且食物有限的环境中)”和第三段中“Two birds probably can’t feed their babies on their own, so they need these helpers to help them survive (两只成年鸟可能无法独自哺育幼雏，因此需要其他协助者来帮助它们生存)”可知，椋鸟合作繁殖后代是因为它们的生存条件非常恶劣，需要帮助。故选A项。 【10题详解】 细节理解题。根据第五段“Writing in the journal Nature, Rubenstein reported that his team studied starlings at 410 nests (鸟巢) in Kenya, recording data over a 20-year period from 2002 that covered more than 40 breeding seasons. The team also collected DNA from 1,175 birds to explore their relationships with each other. (Rubenstein在《自然》期刊发表的论文中报告称，其研究团队对肯尼亚410个燕巢的椋鸟进行了观察研究。该团队自2002年起历时20年收集数据，涵盖了超过40个繁殖季的记录。研究人员还采集了1175只椋鸟的DNA样本，用以分析个体间的亲缘关系)”可知，研究人员通过亲自记录数据并研究数据得出了这一发现。故选D项。 【11题详解】 主旨大意题。通读全文，尤其是第四段“The results agree with previous work from Rubenstein and co-workers that found starlings living in larger groups have a greater chance of survival and of producing babies, with the new work suggesting the give-and-take approach helps to enlarge these groups. (这一研究结果与Rubenstein团队此前的研究相吻合：群居规模更大的椋鸟不仅生存概率更高，繁殖成功率也更为显著。最新研究进一步揭示，这种“互帮互助”的行为模式正是促进群体规模扩大的关键机制)”可知，文章围绕一项针对椋鸟繁殖机制的研究展开，该研究发现它们通过互惠合作繁殖机制，在干旱恶劣环境中显著提高生存率和繁殖成功率，且这种合作既发生在亲属间也存在于非亲属个体中。因此，D项“椋鸟通过互相支持来增加生存率”概括了研究发现，最适合作为文章标题。故选D项。 D We have more ways to access music than at any time in history and a whole world of unfamiliar styles to explore. The thrill of discovering new songs and new sounds can enrich people of all ages. Except, most of the time, it doesn’t. Our willingness to explore new, unfamiliar music declines with age. Academics have coined the term “open-earedness” to describe this phenomenon. Until around the age of 11, children are generally happy to engage with unfamiliar music. Early adolescence sees a reduction in open-earedness, but is accompanied by an intense increase in interest in music more generally. Open-earedness increases slightly during young adulthood, and then declines as we age. A major study involving more than 250,000 participants confirmed these changing behaviors. It also showed that the significance we give to music after adolescence declines, and the amount of music we listen to reduces from a high point of 20% of our waking time during adolescence, to 13% in adulthood. Researchers have different theories to account for these trends. One explanation for age-based reduction in music consumption simply assumes that responsibility-burdened adults may have less free time at their disposal (自由支配) to explore their musical interests than younger people. Some interpret the observed decline in music engagement in terms of psychosocial maturation. Adolescents use music as an identity marker and engage with it to navigate social circles. Adults have developed personalities and established social groups. As such, drivers to engage with new music are lessened. Some researchers argue that we shouldn’t use a person’s age to predict if their musical taste will stay the same, without first thinking about how we enjoy and use music at different stages of our lives. Teenagers tend to be very aware of what they are listening to. Adults who use music as motivation or accompaniment for activities such as exercise or household chores may be less conscious of the extent to which they actually do listen to new music. 12. What does the term “open-earedness” refer to in the passage? A. The ability to play music. B. The willingness to explore new music. C. The interest in music during adolescence. D. The significance of music in daily life. 13. According to the study, how does the amount of music listened to change as we age? A. It remains consistent throughout life. B. It increases from childhood to adulthood. C. It peaks during adolescence and then decreases. D. It gradually declines from childhood to adulthood. 14. What factor is suggested as one cause for a reduced interest in new music as people age? A. An increase in hearing sharpness. B. Less spare time due to responsibilities. C. An intense decrease in interest in music. D. Changes in personality and social groups. 15. Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. Music Consumption: A Lifelong Journey. B. Factors Influencing Music Engagement in Adults. C Adolescents and Music: Identity and Exploration. D. Decline of Open-Earedness: Age Affects Music Exploration. 【答案】12. B 13. C 14. B 15. D 【解析】 【导语】这是一篇议论文。文章主要说明了探索新的陌生音乐的意愿会随着年龄的增长而下降这一现象并分析了其原因。 【12题详解】 词句猜测题。根据第一段“Our willingness to explore new, unfamiliar music declines with age.(我们探索新的、不熟悉的音乐的意愿随着年龄的增长而下降。)”和第二段“Academics have coined the term “open-earedness” to describe this phenomenon.(学者们创造了“open-earedness”一词来描述这种现象。)”可知，open-earedness指的是探索新音乐的意愿。故选B。 【13题详解】 细节理解题。根据第三段“It also showed that the significance we give to music after adolescence declines, and the amount of music we listen to reduces from a high point of 20% of our waking time during adolescence, to 13% in adulthood.(研究还表明，我们在青春期之后对音乐的重视程度会下降，我们听音乐的数量也会从青春期时占清醒时间的20%的高点下降到成年后的13%。)”可知，研究表明，听音乐的数量在青春期达到顶峰，然后下降。故选C。 【14题详解】 推理判断题。根据第四段“One explanation for age-based reduction in music consumption simply assumes that responsibility-burdened adults may have less free time at their disposal (自由支配) to explore their musical interests than younger people.(一种对基于年龄的音乐消费量减少的解释简单地假设，承担责任的成年人可能比年轻人有更少的自由时间来探索他们的音乐兴趣。)”可知，随着年龄的增长，人们对新音乐的兴趣下降的一个原因是由于责任而导致的空闲时间减少。故选B。 【15题详解】 主旨大意题。根据第一段“Our willingness to explore new, unfamiliar music declines with age.(我们探索新的、不熟悉的音乐的意愿随着年龄的增长而下降。)”和第二段Academics have coined the term “open-earedness” to describe this phenomenon.(学者们创造了“open-earedness”一词来描述这种现象。)”和以及下文内容可知，本文介绍了一项研究，研究表明，我们探索新的、不熟悉的音乐的意愿随着年龄的增长而下降，学者们创造了open-earedness一词来描述这种现象，并解释了导致这种现象的原因。由此可知，D. Decline of Open-Earedness: Age Affects Music Exploration(open-earedness的下降：年龄影响音乐探索)适合做本文最佳标题。故选D。 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How to Cheer up Your Friend The following tips will make your friend cheer up. Try one or more of the suggestions below, and hopefully your friend will be happy again in no time. ____16____. If your friend is angry about a situation at work, help him see the positive side of things. Listen to his problem before reacting (回应). But try to help him by asking questions such as “What things can you do to make the situation better?” or “What’s been happening at work lately that has been good?” Send him a card or postcard. Not many people get handwritten notes any more. It’s so rare (稀少的), in fact, that it’s certain to put a smile on his face. Drop a note in the mail to him. ___17___. Build up his self-esteem (自尊). Everyone needs to hear they are smart, strong, and beautiful sometimes. ___18___ , as they can help him build confidence and self-esteem. Try to make your praise unique to the person, so he knows you truly mean what you say. Try out new things together. True happiness is partly about the adventure. It may mean you may need to step outside of what’s comfortable and try something new. ___19___. If you want your friends to be happy, encourage them to try new things with you. Bring him one of his favorite drinks or foods. ____20____. Maybe he can’t live without an afternoon coffee, or maybe he has a special love for black forest cake. Surprise him by bringing one of them to him when you know he’s having a difficult day. A. Encourage your friend B. Help him to see the positive side C. You know what your friend likes D. In turn, discover new things you love E. Don’t be afraid to tell your friend these things F. Similarly, your happiness will affect your friends G. If you include one with a funny card, that’s better 【答案】16. B 17. G 18. E 19. D 20. C 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了如何让你的朋友振作起来的一些窍门。 【16题详解】 空格处是本段主题句，根据空后的“If your friend is angry about a situation at work, help her see the positive side of things. Hear out her problem before reacting (回应). But try to help her asking questions such as, “What things can you do to make the situation better?” or “What’s been happening at work lately that’s been good?”(如果你的朋友对工作中的某件事很生气，帮助她看到事情积极的一面。在做出反应之前先听听她的问题。但试着帮助她问一些问题，比如，“你能做些什么来改善情况？”或者“最近工作上发生了什么好事？”)”可知，本段主要说明的是帮助朋友看到事情积极的一面，B选项“Help her to see the positive side(帮助她看到积极的一面)”概括了本段主要内容，可作为主题句。故选B。 【17题详解】 根据第三段的主题句“Send her a card or postcard.(给她寄张卡片或明信片。)”与空前一句“Drop a note in the mail to her.(给她寄封信。)”判断，本段建议给朋友写封邮件或者寄张明信片，因此推断空格处要说她寄卡片相关的内容，G项“If you include one with a funny card, that’s better(如果你附上一张有趣的卡片，那就更好了)”，符合语境，承接上文，呼应主题。故选G。 【18题详解】 根据该空后的“as they can help her build confidence and self-esteem(因为它们可以帮助她建立自信和自尊)”判断，空格处要说到一些帮助她建立自信和自尊的事情，E项“Don’t be afraid to tell your friend these things(不要害怕告诉你的朋友这些事)”提到要告诉朋友一些事情，其中的“these things”指代前面提到的有关“they are smart, strong, and beautiful”的事情，而告诉朋友这些事情能帮助她建立自信和自尊，与下文构成因果关系。故选E。 【19题详解】 根据主题句Try out new things together.(一起尝试新事物)和空后的“If you want your friends to be happy, encourage them to try new things with you.(如果你想让你的朋友开心，鼓励他们和你一起尝试新事物。)”判断，本段建议和朋友一起尝试新事物，因此空格处应该提到新事物，D项“In turn, discover new things you love(反过来，发现你喜欢的新事物)”提到要发现新事物，其中的“new things”和空后的“new things”相一致，因此D选项符合语境。故选D。 【20题详解】 根据空前的主题句“Bring her one of her favorite treats.(给她带一个她最喜欢的食物。)”与空后一句“Maybe she can’t live without an afternoon coffee, or maybe she has a special love for black forest cake.(也许她离不开下午的咖啡，也许她对黑森林蛋糕情有独钟。)”判断，本段建议给朋友带一些她最喜欢的美食，故C项“You know what your friend likes(你知道你朋友喜欢什么)”说到了你知道朋友喜欢什么，承上启下，呼应主题，引出下文朋友可能喜欢的食物。故选C。 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Just a few months earlier, I would never have pictured myself acting in a play in front of two hundred people. If not for my ____21____, Mrs. Sather, I might never have found that opportunity. In the first and second grade, I was extremely ____22____ . It just wasn't in my personality to be very outgoing. I would escape in my writing. Mrs. Sather, always ____23____ me to write more. I think she was one of the first people to see my inner ____24____. One day, she announced our class was going to ____25____ a play, a take off on The Wizard of Oz. “I need someone to play the lead part of Dorothy.” A few excited hands ____26____ . Mine, of course, was not one of them. After school, Mrs. Sather said to me, “Dallas, I was ____27____ you didn't raise your hand. You're great at memorizing things, and you have such a sweet personality. Perfect for Dorothy! I had you in ____28____ for Dorothy while writing the play! If you ____29____ don't want to, though, I won't make you. It's your _____30_____.” I realized it was time to show the world who I really was. I _____31_____ the role. Fast-forward through five months of _____32_____ , line memorizing, and costume creating, we were ready. At the end of the play, when the audience stood and applauded, I knew they were not just _____33_____ for my performance that night, but for the _____34_____ that they knew would come in later years because of my newfound _____35_____ 21. A. partner B. teacher C. parent D. classmate 22. A. shy B. weak C. energetic D. ambitious 23. A. recommended B. allowed C. encouraged D. accompanied 24. A. drawback B. peace C. character D. strength 25. A. perform B. watch C. write D. enjoy 26. A. put down B. reached out C. shot up D. drew back 27. A. excited B. amused C. afraid D. surprised 28. A. store B. mind C. memory D. comparison 29. A. really B. initially C. finally D. spiritually 30. A. turn B. choice C. luck D. fault 31. A. created B. played C. accepted D. remembered 32. A. practicing B. learning C. observing D. communicating 33. A. celebrating B. chatting C. cheering D. congratulating 34. A. praises B. efforts C. beliefs D. performances 35. A. skill B. confidence C. interest D. hobby 【答案】21. B 22. A 23. C 24. D 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. B 31. C 32. A 33. C 34. D 35. B 【解析】 【分析】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述作者在一、二年级的时候非常害羞，后来在他的老师Sather夫人的鼓励下，上台演出，重获信心的故事。 【21题详解】 考查名词词义辨析。句意：如果不是因为我的老师，Sather夫人，我可能永远不会找到这个机会。A. partner同伴；B. teacher老师；C. parent父母；D. classmate同学。根据下文“One day, she announced our class was going to 　5　 a play, ”可知Sather夫人是作者的老师，故选B 【22题详解】 考查形容词词义辨析。句意：在一、二年级的时候，我非常害羞。A. shy害羞的；B. weak软弱的；C. energetic精力充沛的；D. ambitious有野心的。根据下文“It just wasn't in my personality to be very outgoing.”可知我当时是内向的，所以害羞符合语境，故选A。 【23题详解】 考查动词词义辨析。句意：Sather夫人总是鼓励我多写点。A. recommended推荐；B. allowed允许；C. encouraged鼓励；D. accompanied陪伴。根据上文“I would escape in my writing.”可知我总逃避写作，因此Sather夫人鼓励我多写点符合语境，故选C。 【24题详解】 考查名词词义辨析。句意：我想她是最早看到我内心力量的人之一。A. drawback缺点；B. peace和平；C. character性格；D. strength长处，强项。根据上文“Mrs. Sather, always ____3____ me to write more. ”可知她是最早发现我内心强大的人，故选D。 【25题详解】 考查动词词义辨析。句意：一天，她宣布我们班要表演一出戏，模仿《绿野仙踪》。A. perform表演；B. watch观看；C. write写；D. enjoy喜欢，享受。根据下文“a play, a take off on The Wizard of Oz.”可知是表演，故选A。 【26题详解】 考查动词短语辨析。句意：几只兴奋的手举了起来。A. put down放下；B. reached out伸出；C. shot up举起；D. drew back退缩。根据常识和语境可知是举手，即有些孩子踊跃地报名参加。且下文的“you didn't raise your hand.”也是提示。故选C。 【27题详解】 考查形容词词义辨析。句意：放学后，Sather夫人对我说：“Dallas，我很惊讶你没有举手。A. excited激动的；B. amused好笑的；C. afraid害怕的；D. surprised惊讶的。根据下文“You're great at memorizing things, and you have such a sweet personality.”可知，老师觉得我很不错，所以惊讶的于我没有举手的事实，故选D。 【28题详解】 考查名词词义辨析。句意：我在写剧本的时候就看中了你! A. store商店；B. mind思维；C. memory记忆；D. comparison对比。短语in mind，意为“在心里 ”，在本句中意为看中，相中，根据上文“Perfect for Dorothy! ”和语境，故选B。 29题详解】 考查副词词义辨析。句意：如果你真的不想，我也不逼你。A. really真正地；B. initially最初；C. finally最终；D. spiritually精神上地。根据下文“I won't make you”，可知“真正地”符合语境，故选A。 30题详解】 考查名词词义辨析。句意：这是你自己的选择。A. turn转折；B. choice选择；C. luck运气；D. fault错误。Sather夫人想让我演主角，但演不演是我自己的选择，故选B。 【31题详解】 考查动词词义辨析。句意：我接受了这个角色。A. created创造；B. played玩耍；C. accepted接受；D. remembered记住。根据上文“I realized it was time to show the world who I really was. ”可知，我接受了这个角色，故选C。 【32题详解】 考查动词词义辨析。句意：经过五个月的练习、台词记忆和服装创作，我们已经准备好了。A. practicing练习；B. learning学习；C. observing观察；D. communicating沟通。根据下文“line memorizing, and costume creating, we were ready.”，可知是经过五个月的练习。故选A。 【33题详解】 考查动词词义辨析。句意：在演出的最后，当观众站在那里鼓掌时，我知道他们不仅是为我那天晚上的表演欢呼，而是为他们知道以后会到来的表演欢呼，因为我刚刚找到的信心。A. celebrating庆祝；B. chatting聊天；C. cheering欢呼；D. congratulating祝贺。根据上文“when the audience stood and applauded”，可知他们是为我的表演欢呼。故选C。 【34题详解】 考查名词词义辨析。句意： 同上。A. praises表扬；B. efforts努力；C. beliefs信任；D. performances表演。根据下文“would come in later years”可知是未来还会有的表演，故选D。 【35题详解】 考查名词词义辨析。句意： 同上。A. skill技巧；B. confidence信心；C. interest兴趣；D. hobby爱好。根据文章可知作者原来很害羞，后来在老师的鼓励下上台表演，所以“信心”符合语境，故选B。 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Rainbow-coloured rubbish This is the colourful waste ___36___ (create) by a Swedish city with a unique recycling system. Like many cities in Sweden, Eskilstuna has an impressive recycling record. It met the EU’s 2020 target of recycling 50％of waste many years ago. But almost everyone who lives here follows a strict recycling policy at home. People ___37___(expect) to sort their household waste into seven separate___38___ (category), including food, textiles, cartons and metal. But ___39___ really makes the system stand out is the bright colour code. The bags arrive all mixed up because they’re collected ___40___ (frequent). But thanks to those bright colours, scanners can select the bags and separate them efficiently. The food waste in green bags ___41___ (be) processed on site into pieces to make biogas, ___42___ powers the city’s buses. One of the benefits of this method of recycling is that there is less cross-contamination (交叉污染), so ___43___ (much) of the recycled waste can actually be used to make new things. As countries around the world try to improve their recycling rates, some may look to Eskilstuna as ___44___ example to follow-as long as they think they can persuade their citizens to get busy ____45____ (sort) at home. 【答案】36. created 37. are expected 38. categories 39. what 40. frequently 41. is 42. which 43. more 44. an 45. sorting 【解析】 【分析】这是一篇说明文。文章说明了瑞典独特的回收系统制造出五颜六色的垃圾。并以Eskilstuna为例，说明了这里的人们将把生活垃圾分成7类，包括食物、纺织品、纸箱和金属。当世界各国都在努力提高他们的回收率时，一些人可能会以Eskilstuna为榜样——只要他们认为他们可以说服他们的公民在家里忙着分类。 36题详解】 考查非谓语动词。分析句子结构可知create在句中作非谓语动词，与逻辑主语waste构成被动关系，故用过去分词。故填created。 【37题详解】 考查动词时态语态。本句中主语与谓语动词构成被动关系，且时态为一般现在时，主语为集合名词people，故谓语动词用are。故填are expected。 【38题详解】 考查名词的数。category为可数名词，由上文seven修饰应用复数形式。故填categories。 【39题详解】 考查名词性从句。此处为主语从句，从句中缺少主语，指代事物，应用what引导。故填what。 【40题详解】 考查副词。修饰动词collect应用副词frequently，表示“频繁地”。故填frequently。 【41题详解】 考查主谓一致。本句主语为The food waste，时态为一般现在时的被动语态，故谓语动词用第三人称单数。故填is。 【42题详解】 考查定语从句。句意：绿色袋子里的食物垃圾在现场被加工成一块块的沼气，为城市公交车提供动力。此处为非限定性定语从句修饰上文整个句子，且从句中缺少主语，故用关系代词which。故填which。 【43题详解】 考查比较级。句意：这种回收方法的好处之一是减少了交叉污染，所以更多的回收废物实际上可以用来制造新东西。结合句意可知表示“更多的”应用形容词比较级more。故填more。 【44题详解】 考查冠词。example为可数名词，此处表示泛指应用不定冠词，且example为元音音素开头的单词，故填an。 【45题详解】 考查非谓语动词。根据短语get busy doing sth.表示“开始忙于做某事”。故填sorting。 【点睛】名词性从句关键在于三点： 一、找准从句在主句中充当的成分即分出是名词性从句的主语句、宾语从句、表语从句还是同位语从句； 二、连接词从句中充当的成分（主、宾、定或状语或不做任何成分）； 三、弄清楚每个连接词的意义。此外还要注意，近年来高考对于名词性从句的考查多从名词性从句的语序和连接词的用法区别上考查。 如第四小题，此处为主语从句，从句中缺少主语，指代事物，应用what引导。故填what。 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 你校正在组织以旅游为主题的英语作文比赛。请你以“一次旅游经历”为题，写一篇短文参赛，内容包括： 1.叙述旅游经历； 2.表达感受。 注意： 1.写作词数应80左右； 2.短文题目已为你写好。 A memorable trip _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】One possible version: A memorable trip I had always wanted to visit the Great Wall, and I was finally able to make my dream come true last summer. I took a bus from my home town to Badaling, which is the most popular tourist destination. The Great Wall is so huge and so well-preserved. I was really impressed. I also enjoyed the hiking on the Great Wall. The views from the wall was breathtaking. I could see for miles in every direction. I had a great time on my trip to the Great Wall. It was an unforgettable experience that I will cherish forever. 【解析】 【导语】本篇书面表达属于应用文。要求考生以“一次旅游经历”为题，写一篇短文参加学校组织的以旅游为主题的英语作文比赛。内容包括： 1.叙述旅游经历； 2.表达感受。 【详解】1.词汇积累 实现，成真：come true→come into reality 珍惜：cherish → treasure 参观：visit→pay a visit to 景点：tourist destination→ tourist attraction/place of interest 2.句式拓展 简单句变复合句 原句：I could see for miles in every direction. 拓展句：It is amazing that I could see for miles in every direction. 【点睛】【高分句型1】I took a bus from my home town to Badaling, which is the most popular tourist destination.（运用了which引导的非限制性定语从句） 【高分句型2】It was an unforgettable experience that I will cherish forever.（运用了that引导的定语从句） 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Grandfather was a wise and honorable man. His house was not far from ours, and I would visit him often going home after school. No matter how rotten I had been, I could tell Grandpa anything. My secrets were safe. Whenever there was a problem, he gave me the tools to fix it. I knew I would always find the best answer from him. He always understood. He loved me. I remember a time when a bunch of us were playing baseball in the field behind Mrs. Ferguson’s house. I hit one pitch just right and… slam! It was a home run that soared high and away, and ended up breaking Old Lady Ferguson’s kitchen window! We all ran! Walking home, my best friend, Tom, asked, "How will she ever know who did it? She’s blinder than a bat!” He had a point. I was afraid that Mrs. Ferguson would stay mad at me, so I ran. I didn’t know what she would do. I tried to calm down. However, my stomach was in knots. On the way home, I imagined that she was a mean witch (女巫) chasing me, and the further way I ran, the larger she grew… until finally she towered over the whole town, seeing my every move with an evil eye. Thoughts rushed through my mind. Would Mrs. Ferguson stay mad at me? Would she call police? Worse still, would she tell my parents. I couldn’t even imagine the disappointment on Mom and Dad’s face. They were hoping I would act honestly and in a responsible way. I decided to stop by Grandpa’s. I felt ashamed. I wanted to hide. I wanted to knock my head against a tree a thousand times and make the world just go away — as if punishing myself could undo things. But inside me a voice said: “I would tell everything to Grandpa.” “I was wrong,” I told him, with my head down. He must have known something was up by the expression on my face. He knew we had been warned many times about the dangers of playing where we shouldn’t. 注意： 1. 续写词数应为150左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Para 1: But he just listened while I continued talking. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Para 2: Hearing the decision, grandpa smiled. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】 But he just listened while I continued talking. “I was wrong. I hate myself for what I did”, I told him, with my head down. I didn’t know what to do to make things right. I had been afraid that Mrs. Ferguson would stay mad at me. Finally my grandpa said, “What would you do if you were her?”After a while, I replied, “One solution is to tell her that I am sorry and offer to fix her window.” Hearing the decision, grandpa smiled. “Doing what is right is not always easy,” he said, handing me the phone, “I am proud of you.” He did not make me do it. It was always my choice. As it turned out, Mrs. Ferguson was very kind and we even became really close friends. “Admitting what you are not proud of is the hardest thing,” said Grandpa. “Choosing to be honest makes others trust and respect you.” 【解析】 【导语】本文以人物为线索展开，主要讲述了作者在打碎了Mrs. Ferguson的厨房玻璃后，心理挣扎着要不要向她道歉，随后向自己的祖父需求帮助，祖父给了作者非常诚恳和耐心的指引和建议。 【详解】1. 段落续写： ①由第一段首句内容“但是，在我继续描述着事情的时候，他只是在听着”可知，该段落可以描写作者在做错事之后的内心挣扎和祖父引导作者做正确的事。 ②由第二段首句内容“听到这个决定，爷爷笑了。”可知，该段落可以描写在祖父的引导下，作者决定做正确的事。 2. 续写线索：向祖父诉说——内心挣扎——祖父的引导——作者决定做正确的事——向Mrs. Ferguson道歉 3. 词汇激活 行为类： 修理：fix/repair 承认：admit/acknowledge 信任：trust/believe in 情绪类： 害怕的：afraid/worried/scared 生气的：mad/angry 友善的：kind/friendly 【点睛】【高分句型1】I had been afraid that Mrs. Ferguson would stay mad at me. (运用了that引导的宾语从句) 【高分句型2】Finally my grandpa said, “What would you do if you were her?” (运用了if引导的虚拟条件句) 【高分句型3】 “Admitting what you are not proud of is the hardest thing,” said Grandpa. “Choosing to be honest makes others trust and respect you.”(运用了动名词作主语和what引导的宾语从句) 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $