内容正文:
宜宾市一中2024级高二上期入学考试
英语
满分:150分 考试时间:120分钟
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What will Joe do?
A. Work in Paris. B. Leave his company. C. Move house.
2. When will the speakers have a meeting today?
A. At 12 p.m. B. At 2 p.m C. At 7 p.m.
3. Why is the man making the call?
A. To remind the woman of a rainstorm.
B. To make work arrangements.
C. To have his house repaired.
4. Where does the conversation take place?
A. In a restaurant. B. In a store. C. In a hotel.
5. What are the speakers discussing?
A. A play. B. A band. C. A noise.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. What does the woman think of her job?
A. It’s well paid.
B. It’s unsatisfying.
C. It’s pleasant.
7. What has the man been busy doing?
A. Working on the computer.
B. Preparing for a trip.
C. Chatting online.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. What’s the relationship between speakers?
A. Customer and saleswoman. B. Boss and worker. C. Husband and wife.
9. What will the woman do next?
A. Check the camera. B. Take some photos. C. Replace the battery.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. Why does the girl care about the show time?
A. She needs time to do her homework.
B. She and Shannon have fixed the time.
C. She doesn’t want to come home early.
11. Which show will the girl see?
A. The nine o’clock show.
B. The seven fifteen show.
C. The five o’clock show.
12. How will the girl go to the cinema?
A. By car. B. By bus. C. By bike.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. How many books can a student borrow from the library at most per day?
A. Three. B. Five. C. Ten.
14. Why can’t the boy borrow the books now?
A. He has not returned the overdue book.
B. He has been fined by the library before.
C. He doesn’t have his student ID card with him.
15. Why does the boy borrow the books?
A. He is getting the books for a friend.
B. He needs to find information for a paper.
C. He has been asked to read them by the professor.
16. What does the woman suggest the boy do?
A. Pay the fine now.
B. Make a call to his friend.
C. Copy what he needs.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. Who is the speaker?
A. A pipeline engineer. B. A visiting professor. C. A student.
18. What is the city of Anchorage like today?
A. Crowded. B. Poor. C. Quiet.
19. What was the main cause of the recent changes in Alaska?
A. The tourism in the mountain area.
B. An increase in birthrate.
C. The discovery of oil.
20. Why is the speaker going to show some pictures?
A. To share his recent trip.
B. To show ways of pipeline construction.
C. To point out changes in the wilderness.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
2025 Metropolis Marathon Registration Guide
The 2025 Metropolis Marathon will take place on December 1 in the districts of Downtown, Riverside, and Uptown. For interested runners, the following is a guide for registration.
Registration Period
From October 9 at 8 pm to October 14 at noon, participants can log on to either the official website of the Metropolis Marathon or the Met Mar app. They can then select the corresponding races and events for registration. A drawing will be held, for which the results will be announced on the afternoon of October 24. After the results are announced, participants have to complete the registration payment before October 28 at noon.
Registration Fee
For foreign runners, the registration fee for the full marathon is $235 per person, $145 per person for the half marathon, and $80 for the fitness running program. Domestic runners pay $225, $135, and $70 respectively.
Entry Requirements
Direct entry is offered to top finishers of previous Metropolis races (e. g. , Women’s Half Marathon, Riverside Half Marathon) . Additionally, 100 participants from the 2024 Virtual Run can enter via lottery (抽签) . Qualified runners must register between October 9 and October 17.
Charity Program
This year, the Metropolis Marathon will continue to offer charity spots. Registration opens at 8 pm on October 9 with a total of 800 seats available on a first-come, first-served basis. Charity runners who successfully register are automatically confirmed and do not need to enter the drawing.
Key Notes
●Late payments will result in disqualification.
●International runners must provide valid (有效的) passports and medical reports.
●No refunds are allowed after October 28.
21. When will the registration result be released?
A. On Oct 9. B. On Oct 14. C. On Oct 17. D. On Oct 24.
22. Who can get direct entry?
A. Athletes of the 2024 Virtual Run. B. Participants of fitness running program.
C. Winners of past Metropolis races. D. Foreign runners paying $235.
23. What can a runner do to secure a charity spot?
A. Enter the runner lottery. B. Register within 800 seats.
C. Pay an additional fee. D. Submit a charity application.
B
When Gary Leung completely lost his eyesight nearly 15 years ago, it almost destroyed him. The Hong Kong native fell into hopelessness. Just at that time, he found long - distance running.
Now in his 50s, Leung has since completed the 100 - kilometer Antarctic Ice Marathon, becoming the first blind person to do so. He even attempted the 400 km “Ultra Gobi”, thought to be one of the most challenging foot - races in the world. Recently, he is fresh off a 2,300 km charity run in Japan.
The Japanese “Dark Run 2023” was divided into 40 days, meaning Leung and his guide runners — connected by a string attachment — ran an average of more than 50 km per day. The run was aimed at raising money for young people with serious illnesses and showing them that all people have obstacles (障碍) , but we must face them head - on and with bravery.
Though Leung can’t physically see things in front of him, he says that doesn’t make him fearful of running long distances now. He thinks there’s no need to be scared for those who are lacking in something. The universe will equip them with other talents. And they are never alone, just like he wasn’t alone on this run. His guide runners gave up their own holidays and put their own money in to fly over and support him.
“I want to pass down the spirit. I’m not young anymore and won’t be able to run these distances much longer,” he says, smiling. “I want to help my younger friends with similar experiences to learn to love exercise. Doing physical activities is not as easy for them as it is for able - bodied people, so I want to set up a stage where we can continue to bring things to them — and for them to do the same for more.”
24. What does long - distance running mean for Leung?
A. A cure for his eyes.
B. A tool for making a living.
C. A way out of life’s worst.
D. A form of physical exercise.
25. How does Leung finish all his long - distance running?
A. He was guided while running. B. He managed it by himself.
C. He sought help from the organizers. D. He took advantage of public transport.
26. What can be inferred from Leung’s words in the last paragraph?
A. He is ready to challenge longer running.
B. He is too tired to go on with charity work.
C. He wants young people to follow his example.
D. He thinks running is easy for the blind to take up.
27. Which words can best describe Leung?
A. Humorous and honest. B. Strong - willed and inspiring.
C. Responsible and outgoing. D. Independent and warm - hearted.
C
Scientists studying the behavior of starlings (椋鸟) have found their ability to give and take makes their relationships closer to human friendships than previously thought. About 10% of bird species breed (繁殖) “cooperatively”, meaning some individuals refrain from breeding to help others care for their babies.
Now researchers studying starlings have found the support cuts both ways, with birds that received help in feeding or guarding their chicks returning the favor when the “helper” bird has babies of its own. Prof Dustin Rubenstein, a co - author of the study from the University of Colombia, said such behavior is probably necessary for starlings as they live in an environment where drought is common and food is limited.
“Two birds probably can’t feed their babies on their own, so they need these helpers to help them survive,” he said, adding that each breeding pair produces few younger ones. “What happens is that the non - relatives come into the group. They breed pretty quickly, usually in the first year, maybe the second year, and then they take some time off and some of the other birds breed — and we never understood why,” said Rubenstein. “But they’re forming these relationships in the sense that I might help you this year, and then you’ll help me in the future.”
The results agree with previous work from Rubenstein and co - workers that found starlings living in larger groups have a greater chance of survival and of producing babies, with the new work suggesting the give - and - take approach helps to enlarge these groups.
Writing in the journal Nature, Rubenstein reported that his team studied starlings at 410 nests (鸟巢) in Kenya, recording data over a 20 - year period from 2002 that covered more than 40 breeding seasons. The team also collected DNA from 1,175 birds to explore their relationships with each other.
The results show that rather than helping birds at random, starlings preferentially helped breeding birds that were related to them, particularly if they were born in the same nest. However, they also helped unrelated breeding birds, even when there were opportunities to help relatives.
28. What do the underlined words “refrain from” in paragraph 1 probably mean?
A. Practice. B. Recover. C. Avoid. D. Strengthen.
29. Why do starlings work together to breed?
A. They require help due to terrible living conditions.
B. They want to increase the adaptability of their babies.
C. They enjoy the company of other birds during breeding.
D. They aim to make the most of limited living space.
30. How did the researchers make the findings?
A. By referring to previous studies.
B. By tracking different species continuously.
C. By making assumptions and proving them.
D. By recording data personally and studying them.
31. Which of the following can be the best title for the text?
A. The Competition Between Starlings and Other Species
B. A Comparison of Starling and Human Friendships
C. DNA Information Shows Starling Family Relationship
D. Starlings Increase Survival Chance by Supporting Each Other
D
We have more ways to access music than at any time in history and a whole world of unfamiliar styles to explore. The thrill of discovering new songs and new sounds can enrich people of all ages. Except, most of the time, it doesn’t. Our willingness to explore new, unfamiliar music declines with age.
Academics have coined the term “open - earedness” to describe this phenomenon. Until around the age of 11, children are generally happy to engage with unfamiliar music. Early adolescence sees a reduction in open - earedness, but is accompanied by an intense increase in interest in music more generally. Open - earedness increases slightly during young adulthood, and then declines as we age.
A major study involving more than 250,000 participants confirmed these changing behaviors. It also showed that the significance we give to music after adolescence declines, and the amount of music we listen to reduces from a high point of 20% of our waking time during adolescence, to 13% in adulthood.
Researchers have different theories to account for these trends. One explanation for age - based reduction in music consumption simply assumes that responsibility - burdened adults may have less free time at their disposal (自由支配) to explore their musical interests than younger people.
Some interpret the observed decline in music engagement in terms of psycho - social maturation (心理社会成熟度) . Adolescents use music as an identity marker and engage with it to navigate social circles. Adults have developed personalities and established social groups. As such, drivers to engage with new music are lessened.
Some researchers argue that we shouldn’t use a person’s age to predict if their musical taste will stay the same, without first thinking about how we enjoy and use music at different stages of our lives. Teenagers tend to be very aware of what they are listening to. Adults who use music as motivation or accompaniment for activities such as exercise or household chores may be less conscious of the extent to which they actually do listen to new music.
32. What does the term “open - earedness” refer to in the passage?
A. The ability to play music.
B. The willingness to explore new music.
C. The interest in music during adolescence.
D. The significance of music in daily life.
33. According to the study, how does the amount of music listened to change as we age?
A. It remains consistent throughout life.
B. It increases from childhood to adulthood.
C. It peaks during adolescence and then decreases.
D. It gradually declines from childhood to adulthood.
34. What factor is suggested as one cause for a reduced interest in new music as people age?
A. An increase in hearing sharpness.
B. Less spare time due to responsibilities.
C. An intense decrease in interest in music.
D. Changes in personality and social groups.
35. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Music Consumption: A Lifelong Journey.
B. Factors Influencing Music Engagement in Adults.
C. Adolescents and Music: Identity and Exploration.
D. Decline of Open - Earedness: Age Affects Music Exploration.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How to Cheer up Your Friend
The following tips will make your friend cheer up. Try one or more of the suggestions below, and hopefully your friend will be happy again in no time.
36 . If your friend is angry about a situation at work, help him see the positive side of things. Listen to his problem before reacting (回应) . But try to help him by asking questions such as “What things can you do to make the situation better?” or “What’s been happening at work lately that has been good?”
Send him a card or postcard. Not many people get handwritten notes any more. It’s so rare (稀少的) , in fact, that it’s certain to put a smile on his face. Drop a note in the mail to him. 37 .
Build up his self - esteem (自尊) . Everyone needs to hear they are smart, strong, and beautiful sometimes . 38 , as they can help him build confidence and self - esteem. Try to make your praise unique to the person, so he knows you truly mean what you say.
Try out new things together. True happiness is partly about the adventure. It may mean you may need to step outside of what’s comfortable and try something new. 39 . If you want your friends to be happy, encourage them to try new things with you.
Bring him one of his favorite drinks or foods. 40 . Maybe he can’t live without an afternoon coffee, or maybe he has a special love for black forest cake. Surprise him by bringing one of them to him when you know he’s having a difficult day.
A. Encourage your friend
B. Help him to see the positive side
C. You know what your friend likes
D. In turn, discover new things you love
E. Don’t be afraid to tell your friend these things
F. Similarly, your happiness will affect your friends
G. If you include one with a funny card, that’s better
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Just a few months earlier, I would never have pictured myself acting in a play in front of two hundred people. If not for my 41 , Mrs.Sather, I might never have found that opportunity.
In the first and second grades, I was extremely 42 . It just wasn’t in my personality to be very outgoing. I would escape in my writing. Mrs.Sather always 43 me to write more. I think she was one of the first people to see my inner 44 .
One day, she announced our class was going to 45 a play, a take - off on The Wizard of Oz. “I need someone to play the lead part of Dorothy.” A few excited hands 46 . Mine, of course, was not one of them.
After school, Mrs.Sather said to me, “Dallas, I was 47 you didn’t raise your hand. You’re great at memorizing things, and you have such a sweet personality. Perfect for Dorothy! I had you in 48 for Dorothy while writing the play! If you 49 don’t want to, though, I won’t make you. It’s your 50 .”
I realized it was time to show the world who I really was. I 51 the role. Fast - forward through five months of 52 , line memorizing, and costume creating, we were ready.
At the end of the play, when the audience stood and applauded, I knew they were not just 53 for my performance that night, but for the 54 that they knew would come in later years because of my newfound 55 .
41. A. partner B. teacher C. parent D. classmate
42. A. shy B. weak C. energetic D. ambitious
43. A. recommended B. allowed C. encouraged D. accompanied
44. A. drawback B. peace C. character D. strength
45. A. perform B. watch C. write D. enjoy
46. A. put down B. reached out C. shot up D drew back
47. A. excited B. amused C. afraid D. surprised
48. A. store B. mind C. memory D. comparison
49. A. initially B. really C. finally D. spiritually
50. A. turn B. choice C. luck D. fault
51. A. accepted B. played C. created D. remembered
52. A. practicing B. learning C. observing D. communicating
53. A. celebrating B. chatting C. cheering D. congratulating
54. A. praises B. efforts C. beliefs D. performances
55. A. skill B. confidence C. interest D. hobby
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Rainbow - coloured rubbish
This is the colourful waste 56 (create) by a Swedish city with a unique recycling system. Like many cities in Sweden, Eskilstuna has an impressive recycling record. It met the EU’s 2020 target of recycling 50% of waste many years ago.
But almost everyone who lives here follows a strict recycling policy at home. People 57 (expect) to sort their household waste into seven separate 58 (category), including food, textiles, cartons and metal. But 59 really makes the system stand out is the bright colour code. The bags arrive all mixed up because they’re collected 60 (frequent). But thanks to those bright colour, scanners can select the bags and separate them efficiently. The food waste in green bags 61 (be) processed on site into pieces to make biogas (沼气), 62 powers the city’s buses. One of the benefits of this method of recycling is that there is less cross - contamination (交叉污染), so 63 (much) of the recycled waste can actually be used to make new things.
As countries around the world try to improve their recycling rates, some may look to Eskilstuna as 64 example to follow - as long as they think they can persuade their citizens to get busy 65 (sort) at home.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
你校正在组织以旅游为主题的英语作文比赛。请你以暑期中“一次旅游经历”为题,写一篇短文参赛,内容包括:
1.叙述旅游经历;
2.表达感受。
注意:
1.写作词数应为80 - 100个左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
A memorable trip
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Grandfather was a wise and honorable man. His house was not far from ours, and I would visit him often going home after school.
No matter how rotten I had been, I could tell Grandpa anything. My secrets were safe. Whenever there was a problem, he gave me the tools to fix it. I knew I would always find the best answer from him. He always understood. He loved me.
I remember a time when a bunch of us were playing baseball in the field behind Mrs. Ferguson’s house. I hit one pitch just right and … slam! It was a home run that soared high and away, and ended up breaking Old Lady Ferguson’s kitchen window! We all ran!
Walking home, my best friend, Tom, asked, “How will she ever know who did it? She’s blinder than a bat!” He had a point.
I was afraid that Mrs. Ferguson would stay mad at me, so I ran. I didn’t know what she would do. I tried to calm down. However, my stomach was in knots. On the way home, I imagined that she was a mean witch (女巫) chasing me, and the further way I ran, the larger she grew … until finally she towered over the whole town, seeing my every move with an evil eye. Thoughts rushed through my mind. Would Mrs. Ferguson stay mad at me? Would she call police? Worse still, would she tell my parents. I couldn’t even imagine the disappointment on Mom and Dad’s face. They were hoping I would act honestly and in a responsible way.
I decided to stop by Grandpa’s. I felt ashamed. I wanted to hide. I wanted to knock my head against a tree a thousand times and make the world just go away — as if punishing myself could undo things.
But inside me a voice said: “I would tell everything to Grandpa.”
“I was wrong,” I told him, with my head down. He must have known something was up by the expression on my face. He knew we had been warned many times about the dangers of playing where we shouldn’t.
注意:
1.续写词数应为 150 左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Para 1: But he just listened while I continued talking.
Para 2: Hearing the decision, grandpa smiled.
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