内容正文:
2025年下学期七年级期末学业质量监测答案
英 语
第一部分 听力理解(共两节,满分20分)
1-5 BAABC 6-10 CBAAB 11-15. CABCA 16-20. CBBCC
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分30分)
21-23. ABC 24-27 CBAC 28-31 BACC
32-35 AECD
第三部分 语言运用 (共两节,满分25分)
第一节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
36-40 AACBA 41-45 BCCBB
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
46.are 47.us 48.in 49.plays 50. a
51. first 52.years 53.teaches 54.but 55.really
第四部分 综合技能(共两节,满分25分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
56. In the classroom,
57. Because it is interesting and useful.
58. Read e-books and watch fun lessons on the computers
The students can read e-books and watch fun lessons on the computers in the library.
59. Yes, because it is very modern.
Yes, because it has IT class.(答案不唯一,言之有理即可)
60. 学校是开启我们梦想的地方
第二节 写作(满分15分)
答案(略)
评分标准
(1)按3个档次(很好12-15分;合格6-11分;不合格0-5)给分;
(2)先根据文章的要点和语言初步确定所属档次,通过权衡比较,最后给分;
(3)评分时应注意的主要内容为:
要点(要包含题目给出的信息和提示,共10分)、
词汇和语法准确(3分)、
连贯流畅(2分)、
思想(不同的表达,只要符合正确的价值观都可以给分;若出现思想或主题不端正现象,直接降为不及格0-5)、
字数(少于60的,从得分中减去1分)、
卷面(非常不整洁扣1分)。
2025年下学期七年级期末学业质量监测答案 英语 第 7 页 共 7 页
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2025年下学期七年级期末学业质量监测试卷
英 语
考试时量为 100 分钟 总分 100分
第一部分 听力理解(共两节,满分20分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
1.What colour is Lingling's cap?
A. Blue. B. Red. C. Black.
2. What time does Peter usually get up?
A. 6:30. B. 7:00. C. 7:30.
3. Whose schoolbag is this?
A. Chen Jie’s. B. Teng Fei’s. C. Fu Xing’s.
4. Who is the girl’s sister?
A. Emma. B. Helen. C. Yaqi.
5. How many rabbits does Mr. Fu have?
A. 4. B. 8. C. 12.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6.What is Teng Fei’s favourite sport?
A. Tennis. B. Basketball. C. Ping-pong.
7.Who does he often play with?
A. His father. B. His friends. C. His grandpa.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8.Where is Peter from?
A. The UK. B. The US. C. Australia.
9.What class is Peter in?
A. Class 1, Grade 7. B. Class 2, Grade 7. C. Class 1, Grade 8.
听第8段材料,回答第10、11题。
10.Who gives Emma the schoolbag?
A. Her sister. B. Her parents. C. Her friend.
11.What is in Emma’s schoolbag?
A. A pencil box and a dictionary.
B. A dictionary and some books.
C. A pencil box and some books.
听第9段材料,回答第12至14题。
12.What is Helen’s next class?
A. History. B. Maths. C. English.
13.Why does Helen like history?
A. It’s difficult. B. It’s interesting. C. It’s useful.
14.What is Fu xing’s favourite subject ?
A. English. B. Chinese. C. Maths.
听第10段材料,回答第15至17题。
15.What club does Sam want to join?
A. The chess club. B. The drama club. C. The music club.
16.What can Sam learn at the chess club?
A. Chinese chess. B. Weiqi. C. Both chess and weiqi.
17.When does the chess club meet?
A. On Tuesdays. B. On Thursdays. C. On Fridays.
听第11段材料,回答第18至20题。
18.How old is Yao Xiaoming?
A. 13. B. 14. C. 15.
19.What special thing does he want to do this year?
A. To plant a tree. B. To take a photo. C. To cook a dish.
20.Who does he learn from?
A. His teacher. B. His friends. C. His grandma.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共11小题;每小题2分,满分22分)
阅读下列材料,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Cooking Club
Do you love delicious food?
Come and learn to make your own pizza, chocolate and more!
★Mondays, 15:00—16:30, in Room 302
★Call Tom at 978-4567.
School Band
Can you sing or play an instrument?
Join us and play music together!
★Wednesdays, 16:00—17:30, in the Music Hall
★Email Lucy at Lucy@smile.com.
Science Club
Why is the sky blue? How do planes fly?
Let’s enjoy the amazing and cool science!
★Fridays, 17:00—18:30, on the school playground
★Email Sam at Sam@smile.com.
21. Where does the cooking club meet?
A. In Room 302. B. In the Music Hall. C. On the school playground.
22. What club does Peter join if(如果) he wants to learn the guitar?
A. the cooking club B. the school band C. the science club
23. Where can you probably(可能地) see the ads?
A. On a TV show. B. In a food store. C. In a school newspaper(报纸).
B
People around the world celebrate birthdays in different and interesting ways.
In the UK, children often have a beautiful birthday cake with candles on it. They close their eyes, make a wish and then blow out all the candles. Friends come to their house, play games, and give gifts. Everyone sings the happy birthday song together.
In Brazil(巴西), birthday parties are very fun. People love to sing and dance. There is a funny tradition(传统): friends pull(拉) the birthday person's ears, one time for each year of their age. It makes everyone laugh and feel happy.
In Vietnam(越南), most people do not have a birthday party on their birthdays. Instead, everyone celebrates their birthday on New Year’s Day. On that special morning, parents give children lucky money, wishing them good luck in the new year.
Birthdays are special and wonderful days around the world!
24. How many countries are mentioned(提到) in the passage?
A. One. B. Two. C. Three.
25. What do children in the UK do on their birthday?
A. They pull their ears. B. They blow out candles. C. They get lucky money.
26. What do the underlined words “lucky money” in the passage probably mean?
A. 红包. B. 礼物. C. 糖果.
27. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Birthday Cakes Around the World.
B. Where to Celebrate a Birthday.
C. Different Birthday Traditions.
C
It is summer. The sun is hot. A little ant (蚂蚁) works hard every day. He collects food and takes it to his home. He wants to store enough food for winter.
Next to the tree lives a grasshopper(蚱蜢). He does not work. He plays in the sun all day. He sings and dances. He sees the ant working and laughs. “Why do you work so hard? Come and play with me!” he says.
“Winter is coming,” says the ant. “I must get ready.” But the grasshopper does not listen. He keeps singing and playing.
Soon, winter comes. The weather is cold. The ant stays in his warm home. He has a lot of food. The grasshopper has no food. He is cold and hungry. He goes to the ant’s house and asks for help.
The ant shares some food with him. “Now you see,” says the ant. “It is good to work today for tomorrow.”
The grasshopper feels sorry. He learns to work hard too.
28. When does the ant start to work?
A. In winter. B. In summer. C. In spring.
29. Which is the right order(顺序) of the story?
a. The grasshopper is cold and hungry.
b. The ant collects food every day.
c. Winter comes.
d. The grasshopper sings and plays.
A. b-d-c-a. B. d-b-c-a. C. b-a-d-c.
30. What does the ant do when winter comes?
A. He plays with the grasshopper.
B. He laughs at the grasshopper.
C. He shares food with the grasshopper.
31. What does the story want to tell us?
A. Winter is always cold.
B. Animals like collecting food.
C. It is important to work hard for the future.
第二节(共4小题;每小题2分,满分8分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Do you want to make new friends at school? It's not difficult. 32. ______
Start with a Smile
When you see your classmates, smile and say hello. Ask their names and try to remember them. 33. ______
Ask questions
Ask about their favourite subjects, sports or hobbies. Listen to their answers and show your interest.
34. ______
When they talk, look at them and listen carefully. Don't interrupt(打断). This shows you are a good friend.
Share About Yourself
35. ______ For example, your pet, your family or your favourite food. This helps them know you better.
Try these tips. You will have more friends soon!
A. Here is some advice for you.
B. Many students like to play basketball after school.
C. Be a Good Listener.
D. Tell them something about you.
E. It is a good start.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分25分)
第一节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Li Ming is a Grade 7 student. He always has a busy but interesting day. He 36 at 6:30 every morning. After a quick breakfast, he goes to school. His 37 class starts at 8:00. His favourite subject is English 38 it is fun. He thinks it is also very 39 to talk with people from different countries. 40 school, Li Ming often plays basketball with his friends. Sometimes, they join a live stream(直播) to learn new sports skills. They have 41 fun together. Then he goes home and does his 42 first. He is a good student and never leaves it for tomorrow. In the evening, he likes making short videos(短视频) with his family. He loves 43 family very much. They usually read books after dinner. Li Ming 44 good use of his day for interesting activities. He thinks every day is 45 and meaningful.
36. A. gets up B. wakes up C. stays up
37. A. first B. second C. third
38. A. but B. so C. because
39. A. famous B. useful C. difficult
40. A. After B. Before C. At
41. A. a little B. a lot of C. no
42. A. sport B. exercise C. homework
43. A. her B. their C. his
44. A. has B. makes C. takes
45. A. boring B. different C. hard
第二节(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空,使短文通顺、意思完整,并将其答案写在答题卡上相应的位置。每词限用一次。
we, play, one, year, be, in, real, but, teach, a,
There 46.______ six people in my happy family. My grandfather enjoys walking, and my grandmother loves cooking for 47.______. My father is a doctor, and he is interested 48.______ sports. He 49.______ football with me at weekends. My mother is 50.______ teacher, and she loves teaching English in the school. She often helps grandma cook delicious meals.
I am the 51.______ child in my family, and I have a little sister. She is three 52.______ old and is learning to speak English. We all help her. My mother is good at singing and often 53.______ us English songs.
In the evenings, our family enjoys watching TV and talking about our day. Our house is not very big, 54.______ it is full of love. We often read interesting books or play games together. I 55.______love my warm family very much!
第四部分 综合技能 (共两节,满分25分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,根据短文内容回答问题或翻译画线部分。
Welcome to our new school! It is very modern. In the classroom, there is a big screen for lessons. We do not use books every day. Now, our biology teacher is showing us the amazing nature. We can see different plants and animals on the screen!
We have a new subject—IT. In IT class, we learn to use computers. Today, we are making a small robot(机器人) with our teacher. It can walk and sing! All the students like this class because it is interesting and useful.
There is a big library in our school too. We can read e-books(电子书) and watch fun lessons on the computers there. It makes learning very interesting!
Our school is a great place to start our dreams. We are very happy here!
56. Where is the big screen?
__________________________________________________________________
57. Why do the students like the IT class?
__________________________________________________________________
58. What do the students do in the library?
__________________________________________________________________
59. Do you like this new school? Why or why not?
__________________________________________________________________
60. 将短文中画线的句子翻译成中文。
__________________________________________________________________
第二节(满分15分)
本学期的学习生活即将结束,你一定收获了很多!假定你是李华,学校英语社团正在举办“我的多彩生活”(My Colourful Life)征文活动。请你根据以下提示,用英语写一篇短文介绍自己,并分享你的生活。内容包括:
Name: Li Hua
Age: 13
Birthday: 12th May
Family: 4 people
Hobby: Reading /playing chess /drawing/ telling stories...
Daily Routine: get up at 6:30, eat breakfast at 7:00...
Favorite Subject: Chinese /maths /history /geography...
要求:1. 语句通顺,意思连贯,书写规范,可适当增加细节;
2. 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名等信息;
3. 60词左右。开头已给出,不计入总词数。
Hello, everyone! I'd like to share my colourful life with you.
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2025年下学期七年级期末学业质量监测试卷 英语
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