内容正文:
2025~2026学年度第一学期期末质量检测
九年级英语
(2026. 01)
本试卷共10页,满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项:
1. 答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2. 回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,用0. 5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听录音,从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. A. He loves rabbits. B. They have interesting lyrics. C. I remember being a volunteer.
2. A. It can’t be a plane. B. I didn’t want to stay here. C. She won’t feel left out.
3. A. Did you use to be shy? B. Is there a gift in your bag? C. Do you have special memories?
4. A. What a cool story! B. What a great jacket! C. How delicious the food is!
5. A. Who has helped you most? B. Where did you go on vacation? C. What’s senior high school like?
第二节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. When was the car invented?
A. In 1876. B. In 1885. C. In 1971.
7. What are the two speakers talking about?
A. A story. B. A film. C. A novel.
8. What kind of music does Alex like?
A. Soft music. B. Rock music. C. Light music.
9. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. On the street. B. In the hospital. C. In the school.
10 What happened to Mark?
A. He was late for the party. B. He went to the wrong place. C. He made a dressing mistake.
第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. When do people open a gift in Peter’s family?
A. Right away. B. The next day. C. In private.
12. What is Chen Jie’s birthday gift?
A. A dictionary. B. An English textbook. C. A calendar.
13. Why does Chen Jie accept a gift with both hands?
A. It shows her surprise. B. It is a western custom. C. It is a polite way in her culture.
14. How many Spring Festival customs does Chen Jie mention?
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.
15. What is the conversation mainly about?
A. Birthday wishes. B. Different customs. C. Western traditions.
第四节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. What’s Liang Qichao’s job?
A. A school teacher. B. A thinker. C. A doctor.
17. How did Liang teach his children?
A. By strict orders. B. By asking questions. C. By his words and actions.
18. Why did Liang write letters to his children?
A. To tell stories. B. To give advice. C. To ask for help.
19. What was Liang like in his children’s eyes?
A. Quiet but serious. B. Strict but fair. C. Both a teacher and a friend.
20. What is the speaker probably doing?
A. Giving a speech. B. Making a call. C. Reading a notice.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Enjoy DIY Time
Tired of your schoolwork? Try something new! We have some fun activities for you. Just follow the simple steps below to create your own DIY projects.
A Caramel Pudding (焦糖布丁)
· Mix egg yolks and sugar.
· Add cream and milk.
· Pour it into cups and cover with tin foil (锡纸).
· Put them into the oven at 160℃—it’s the key to a perfect pudding.
· Let them cool in the fridge.
· Put some sugar on them, then heat them.
Time: 5:00 p.m.—6:00 p.m. on weekdays. Place: The dining hall. Teacher: Miss Zhou.
A Chinese Kite
· Fold the bamboo into the shape you want and cut it into thin pieces.
· Use the pieces to make a kite model you like.
· Glue the paper to the model.
· Draw pictures on the paper.
· Fix all parts of the kite together.
Time: 4:00 p.m.— 6:00 p.m. on weekends. Place: The art room. Teacher: Mr. Li.
1. How many DIY activities are mentioned in the text?
A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four.
2. Which is the key step to making the pudding?
A. Cook at 160℃. B. Cool in the fridge.
C. Cover with tin foil. D. Add cream and milk.
3. When can students make a Chinese kite here?
A. At 3:00 p.m.—4:00 p.m. on Monday. B. At 4:00 p.m.—5:00 p.m. on Friday.
C. At 5:00 p.m.—6:00 p.m. on Saturday. D. At 6:00 p.m.—7:00 p.m. on Sunday.
4. What tools do people need to make a kite?
①Scissors. ②Paper. ③A camera. ④Glue.
A. ①②③ B. ②③④ C. ①②④ D. ①③④
5. Where is the text probably taken from?
A. A science report. B. A school notice board.
C. A DIY book. D. A restaurant poster.
B
“Sit”, “stay”, “shake hands”...These are some common dog commands you might know, but how about “find the escalator (自动扶梯)”? It may sound surprising, but this is just one of the most basic skills for guide dogs.
“Guide dogs need to learn more than 30 skills, from avoiding things in the way to knowing different buildings,” said Liu Changtai, 29, who has worked as a guide dog trainer at Xi’an Sunshine Guide Dog Training Center for more than four years.
Liu’s day begins early at 7:30. “I walk the dogs one by one so I can make sure they are healthy and ready for training that day,” said Liu.
Playing with these cute dogs is fun, but training them is not. In fact, it can be rather boring and tiring. “We need to repeat just one order hundreds of times,” explained Liu. “And almost all training classes are outdoors, no matter whether it is burning hot or freezing cold.”
Liu said the hardest part of training is teaching dogs something called “smart disobedience”. As the eyes of blind people, guide dogs must know when not to follow an order if it is unsafe. The dog must learn to refuse an order if it senses danger. By setting up safe practice situations, Liu teaches dogs to understand the things around them. For example, he may tell a dog to cross the street when a car is coming. The dog must learn to see the danger and not follow the order.
Even though the work is hard, Liu believes it is worth it. Earlier this year, one of his dogs was matched with a blind person in Tianjin. When Liu saw videos of them traveling together, he felt very proud.
“That’s why I do this job,” said Liu. “We’re not just training dogs; we’re giving people their lives back.”
6. What can we learn about Liu Changtai?
A. He walks the dogs twice a day. B. He has trained dogs for ten years.
C. He mainly teaches simple orders. D. He is a young trainer from Xi’an.
7. Why does Liu walk each dog separately every morning?
A. To check their health. B. To start training each dog.
C. To build closer relationships. D. To help them get used to the outdoors.
8. What’s the guide dog training like according to Liu?
A. It is mostly indoor work. B. It’s full of fun activities.
C. It needs great patience. D. It changes with the seasons.
9. What is “smart disobedience” according to the text?
A. Refusing unsafe orders. B. Making its own decisions.
C. Waiting for new orders. D. Following the owner’s instructions.
10. How does Liu feel about his job?
A. Simple but boring. B. Tiring but well-paid.
C. Dangerous but necessary. D. Hard but meaningful.
C
An old saying used for forecasting (预测) the weather says, “Red sky at night, good news for sailors (水手). Red sky in the morning, sailors take warning.” What makes it interesting is that this saying, based on long experience, actually holds some scientific truth. When the sky turns red at sunset, it often means that clear weather is coming from the west. However, a red sky at sunrise, which usually follows a clear night, may suggest that storms are moving in.
Weather forecasting, which has been an important human practice for thousands of years, dates back to the 5th century BC when the Greeks used natural signs to guide sailors. Today, however, meteorologists depend on scientific tools to study global weather conditions and make predictions much earlier. These forecasts, important for everyone from pilots to farmers, help people make smart choices, and now most of us can get them simply by checking a phone or watching TV.
If you are interested in reading weather signs from nature, here are some useful tips. One basic rule to remember is that weather systems generally move from west to east. Another is that low air pressure usually brings rain or snow. Therefore, by paying attention to certain signs, one can make simple predictions. For example, if a rainbow appears in the west at sunrise, sunny weather is likely to follow. Also, because smells travel more easily in wet air, flowers often have a stronger scent (香味) before rain. Animals offer clues too. For example. ants moving to higher ground or birds flying low can both signal a drop in air pressure. This drop can influence birds’ hearing, which may explain why they fly low. So, the next time you admire a red sky at night, you can be fairly confident that the next day will be fine for being outdoors.
11. What is the old saying about?
A. The night sky. B. The signs of the weather.
C. The sailors’ work. D. The beauty of morning.
12. What does the underlined word “meteorologists” in paragraph 2 mean?
A. Weather scientists. B. Animal watchers.
C. Plant and animal lovers. D. TV weather reporters.
13. How is paragraph 2 developed?
A. By listing numbers. B. By asking questions.
C. By telling a story. D. By making a comparison.
14. Which might be a sign of rain coming?
A. Birds are flying very high. B. Ants are moving up to higher places.
C. A rainbow stays in the west at noon. D. Flowers often need more water before rain.
15. What is the writer’s purpose in writing the text?
A. To ask us to love and protect nature. B. To teach us to be weather reporters.
C. To tell us how nature gives weather signs. D. To explain why weather forecasts are important.
D
Deep under the Pacific Ocean lie coral reefs colored by some algae that live with corals. Corals usually provide nitrogen (氮) to algae, and in return, they get carbon (碳), which gives them energy.
In the early 1980s, a huge heat wave (浪潮) turned more than 90 percent of these corals a pale, lifeless white. And it was believed that about 50 percent of reefs with beautiful corals might disappear by 2030. Heat waves warmed up the same Pacific waters in the late 1990s and again in 2015—2016, but scientists noticed that these heat waves didn’t influence the reefs as badly as the first. Maybe corals have found a way to adapt (适应).
Swimming to cooler waters is not a good choice for corals, for it makes them easily hurt by the changing world. But corals are able to adapt. Some turn to those algae that can deal well with heat.
Others can use rows of tiny hairs on their bodies to “fan” away too much harmful oxygen produced by stressed algae. Certain baby corals change their own metabolisms (新陈代谢) in order to fight the warming waters. But all these adaptations can protect themselves only to some degree.
After studying and understanding these adaptations, scientists are trying to find ways to help corals fight. If researchers can make corals accept algae that can deal with heat pressure or if they use genes that can deal with it, this will raise the corals’ chance of living through future ocean heat waves.
“When I go down to the sea and see a beautiful, healthy reef with these colorful corals, I feel the pleasure of being in this underwater world,” a famous scientist says. “It will be really sad to see it die. But that does drive you to want to use your skills and your love to help fight.”
16. What can we know from paragraph 1?
A. Corals help algae become colorful. B. Algae offer a home to corals.
C. Corals and algae depend on each other. D. Algae produce nitrogen for corals.
17. What do the underlined words “the first” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. The heat wave in the late 1990s. B. The heat wave in the early 1980s.
C. The Pacific waters in 2015—2016. D. The reefs’ disappearance by 2030.
18. What makes it hard for corals to live in warmer waters?
A. They can’t adapt completely. B. Changing metabolisms costs too much.
C. Helpful algae live too far away. D. Their self- protection is getting weaker.
19. What’s the main idea of the last paragraph?
A. Healthy reefs bring joy to scientists. B. The underwater world is in danger.
C. Personal skills are key to scientific research. D. We should take action to protect corals.
20. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. Scientists and Corals B. The Disappearing Coral Reefs
C. The Life of Coral Reefs D. Corals Fight against Warm Waters
第二节 阅读七选五(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
More Than a Leader: The Power of Team Roles
When a team wins, we often think of one person— the leader. It’s true that a good leader is important. ____21____ A team is like a complex (复杂的) machine; it needs many different parts, each with a special job, to work together perfectly. Understanding this can make your group projects much more successful and enjoyable.
____22____ This person is like the planner. They help set clear goals, make a schedule, and make sure everyone knows what to do next. Without this role, the team might feel lost or waste time. Then there is the “Creator”. This role is full of new ideas and thinks creatively. ____23____
The “Supporter” is the heart of the team. They may not always speak loudly, but they are great listeners. They notice if someone is upset and help solve conflicts (冲突). ____24____ Of course, every team needs a “Doer”. This is the person who turns ideas into action. They are ready to work, stay focused on the job, and enjoy finishing tasks one by one.
The most exciting part is that you are not stuck in one role. You might be the Organizer for a science project, but become the creative Creator for an art show. ____25____ When you learn to value these different roles, you will find that your team becomes stronger than one person working alone.
A. First, let’s consider the role of the “Organizer”.
B. So the most popular person must be the leader.
C. For example, they might finish their work early.
D. However, a team’s success depends on more than that.
E. Discovering your different sides is part of the fun in teamwork.
F. They are creative and always ask, “Can we try it in a new way? ”
G. Through their attention and kindness, they build trust within the team.
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分35分)
第一节 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
阅读下面对话,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
Ruby: Hi, Mike! Our school’s Charity (慈善) Sale is coming.
Mike: ____26____ Is it in the classroom again?
Ruby: No. ____27____
Mike: Sounds great! What are you going to sell?
Ruby: I’ll sell some of my old storybooks and some cookies. I really love those books, but I hope they can find new readers.
Mike: That’s a sweet idea. It’s like giving your old friends a new home. ____28____
Ruby: Well, we’ll also have a “Lucky Ring” game. If you get three rings on the bottles, you can win a small gift.
Mike: That will be fun! ____29____
Ruby: Of course! We need more helpers. You can help at the game area.
Mike: No problem. ____30____
Ruby: It will start at 2:00 p.m. and last until 5:00 p.m. Don’t be late!
Mike: Sure! See you then!
26.
A. I’m not sure. B. Really? That’s exciting!
C. That’s too bad. D. Don’t worry about it.
27.
A. It’s only for teachers. B. I don’t like it at all.
C. Maybe you can ask others. D. We’ll hold it on the playground.
28.
A. Where is it? B. Who will come?
C. What else will be there? D. Why do you sell books?
29.
A. Can I help with the game? B. Are your books interesting?
C. Is the food expensive? D. How many gifts are there?
30.
A. I have no time. B. See you there!
C. It doesn’t matter. D. What time does it start?
第二节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
For a long time, the old fence (栅栏) around Oak Community—the place where they lived—was broken and ugly. Most people just walked ____31____ it. But last year, things changed.
It ____32____ with an idea from Ms. Carter, an art teacher. She thought the fence could become a painting wall. Some ____33____ thought it was silly, but a few children were interested. “Let’s try!” they said.
They began by ____34____ . To everyone’s surprise, more people came to ____35____. After that, they bought paint and shared brushes. Slowly, the fence was filled with pictures of flowers, trees, and animals. It was turning into public art.
The work was hard. Some adults didn’t know how to paint, ____36____ the children ended up helping them. They worked side by side, talking and laughing. A warm feeling grew with every stroke (笔画).
Now, the fence is the neighborhood’s ____37____. People stop to take photos. Children ____38____ at these paintings and say, “I painted that!” It is no longer something ____39____, but a symbol of teamwork.
More _____40_____, people on the street now know each other better. They talk more. The project has taught children they can make a difference for _____41_____ . “I learned _____42_____ can be found if you work together,” said one girl.
The wall’s success has encouraged more _____43_____. People are now thinking about cleaning up the community square. One good change _____44_____ lead to another.
Looking at the bright fence, Ms. Carter smiles. “This shows anything is possible when we join _____45_____, ” she says. “It’s not just about paint; it’s about building a happier home for everyone.”
31. A. into B. past C. under D. from
32. A. led B. started C. saved D. protected
33. A. neighbors B. students C. friends D. workers
34. A. building B. sharing C. cleaning D. painting
35. A. learn B. teach C. rest D. help
36. A. if B. unless C. but D. because
37. A. pride B. life C. hope D. skill
38. A. laugh B. find C. think D. point
39. A. quiet B. ugly C. dangerous D. expensive
40. A. suddenly B. lately C. probably D. importantly
41. A. ourselves B. herself C. itself D. themselves
42 A. luck B. peace C. beauty D. manner
43. A. messages B. symbols C. ideas D. rules
44. A. should B. can C. need D. must
45. A. hands B. pictures C. brushes D. tools
第三节 阅读填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In ancient China, there was a young man named Xue Tan who loved singing. He became a student of Qin Qing, a great ____46____ (music) known for his magical voice. After practicing for a few months, Xue Tan became proud. “I think I ____47____ (learn) everything!” he told his teacher. “I’m ready to leave and perform on my own!”
Instead of getting angry, Qin Qing smiled and held ____48____ goodbye party for him on a quiet hillside. As the sun set, Qin Qing began to sing. His voice started ____49____ (smooth), like a gentle breeze (微风). Then it grew ____50____(loud) and stronger, shaking the trees around them. The clouds in the pink evening sky seemed to freeze in place. Birds ____51____ (stop) flying to listen, and even the wind went silent. Xue Tan’s face turned red with shame. He realized his teacher’s singing was like a roaring ocean, ____52____ his own voice was just a tiny stream (溪流). He fell to his knees and cried, “I was wrong to think I knew everything! Please let me keep learning ____53____ you.” Qin Qing kindly helped him up. “True skill isn’t about showing off,” he said. “It’s about listening to the world, to your heart, and to those who came before you.”
From that day on, Xue Tan decided ____54____ (practice) hard. He imitated (模仿) the rhythm of rainstorms and learned melodies (旋律) from bird songs. Years later, when his talent _____55_____ (praise) by people, he always said, “I’m still just Qin Qing’s student.”
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 情境运用(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据所提供的图片,用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
56.
A: ___________________?
B: It belongs to Carla.
57.
A: ___________________?
B: Yes it is.
58.
A: What are people supposed to do when they meet for the first time?
B: ___________________
59.
A: How do you feel about soft music?
B: ___________________.
60.
A: What can we do to cut down air pollution?
B: ___________________.
第二节 作文(满分25分)
61. 假定你是李华,你校英语社团发起了“绿色校园,行动有我”主题论坛活动。请你根据思维导图提示,选择两种你认为最有效的校园环保活动,并用英语写一篇文章,发表在论坛上。
内容包括:
1. 你的选择;
2. 陈述理由;
3. 发出倡议。
注意:
1 词数100左右,标题已给出,不计入总词数;
2. 可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
3. 不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
Actions for Our Green School
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2025~2026学年度第一学期期末质量检测
九年级英语
(2026. 01)
本试卷共10页,满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项:
1. 答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2. 回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,用0. 5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听录音,从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. A. He loves rabbits. B. They have interesting lyrics. C. I remember being a volunteer.
2. A. It can’t be a plane. B. I didn’t want to stay here. C. She won’t feel left out.
3. A. Did you use to be shy? B. Is there a gift in your bag? C. Do you have special memories?
4. A. What a cool story! B. What a great jacket! C. How delicious the food is!
5. A. Who has helped you most? B. Where did you go on vacation? C. What’s senior high school like?
第二节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. When was the car invented?
A. In 1876. B. In 1885. C. In 1971.
7. What are the two speakers talking about?
A. A story. B. A film. C. A novel.
8. What kind of music does Alex like?
A. Soft music. B. Rock music. C. Light music.
9. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. On the street. B. In the hospital. C. In the school.
10. What happened to Mark?
A. He was late for the party. B. He went to the wrong place. C. He made a dressing mistake.
第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. When do people open a gift in Peter’s family?
A. Right away. B. The next day. C. In private.
12. What is Chen Jie’s birthday gift?
A. A dictionary. B. An English textbook. C. A calendar.
13. Why does Chen Jie accept a gift with both hands?
A. It shows her surprise. B. It is a western custom. C. It is a polite way in her culture.
14. How many Spring Festival customs does Chen Jie mention?
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.
15. What is the conversation mainly about?
A. Birthday wishes. B. Different customs. C. Western traditions.
第四节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. What’s Liang Qichao’s job?
A. A school teacher. B. A thinker. C. A doctor.
17. How did Liang teach his children?
A. By strict orders. B. By asking questions. C. By his words and actions.
18. Why did Liang write letters to his children?
A. To tell stories. B. To give advice. C. To ask for help.
19. What was Liang like in his children’s eyes?
A. Quiet but serious. B. Strict but fair. C. Both a teacher and a friend.
20. What is the speaker probably doing?
A. Giving a speech. B. Making a call. C. Reading a notice.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~5题答案】
【答案】1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B
B
【6~10题答案】
【答案】6. D 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. D
C
【11~15题答案】
【答案】11 B 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. C
D
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. D
第二节 阅读七选五(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
【21~25题答案】
【答案】21. D 22. A 23. F 24. G 25. E
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分35分)
第一节 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
【26~30题答案】
【答案】26. B 27. D 28. C 29. A 30. D
第二节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
【31~45题答案】
【答案】31. B 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. D 36. C 37. A 38. D 39. B 40. D 41. D 42. C 43. C 44. B 45. A
第三节 阅读填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
【46~55题答案】
【答案】46. musician
47. have learned
48. a 49. smoothly
50. louder 51. stopped
52. but 53. from
54. to practice
55. was praised
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 情境运用(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
【56~60题答案】
【答案】56. Whose volleyball is this
57. Is the shirt made of cotton
58. They are supposed to shake hands when they meet for the first time.
59. It makes me sleepy/It makes me feel sleepy
60. We can take the bus
第二节 作文(满分25分)
【61题答案】
【答案】
例文:
Actions for Our Green School
To build a green school, I think sorting waste and saving energy are the two most effective actions. Sorting waste helps us recycle reusable materials like paper and plastic, which reduces pollution and protects our environment. Saving energy is also important—we can turn off lights and computers when leaving classrooms, and use natural light instead of electric lights during the day. These small steps cut down on energy waste and lower our school’s carbon footprint.
Let’s take action now! Every small effort will make our school a cleaner and more eco-friendly place.
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