福建南平市邵武市2025-2026学年第一学期七年级期末质量抽测 英语试卷

2025-2026学年第一学期七年级期末质量抽测 英语试题参考答案及评分说明 评分说明： 1. 选择题部分所提供的答案均为唯一答案； 2. 非选择题部分提供一种或几种参考答案，如考生的答案与所提供的答案不同。请根据考查内容比照评分标准酌情评分； 3. 书面表达按不同档次的标准进行评分，各档的细化量分可参照评分标准制定相应的细则。第一至五档最低赋分值为0.5分。 I. 听力（每小题1.5分，满分30分） 1-5 ABAAC 6-10 ACCBB 11-15 BCAAB 16. 10/Ten 17. big 18. Happy 19. climb 20. friends ★ 评分标准：16—20小题凡与提供的答案不符均不得分。 II. 单项选择 (每小题1分，满分10分) 21-25 CABAB 26-30 CCACB III. 完形填空（每小题1.5分，满分15分） 31-35 ABBAC 36-40 CABCA IV. 阅读理解（共三部分，满分50分） 第一节（每小题2分，满分30分） 41-45 BDBDA 46-50 BCAAB 51-55 BACCD 第二节（每小题2分，满分10分） 56-60 DFCBE 第三节（每小题2分，满分10分） 61. On Lunar August 15th. 62. Yes, it is. 63. Mooncakes. 64. It’s round and bright. / It’s full and bright. 65. I often enjoy the moon.(言之有理即给分) V. 补全对话（每小题2分，满分10分） 66-70 BEGFA VI. 看图写话（每小题2分，满分10分） 71. The boy/He likes singing. 0.5分 1分 0.5分 72. The girl/She usually goes to school on foot / walks to school. 0.5分 0.5分 0.5分 0.5分 0.5分 0.5分 73. There are two boxes on the table. 0.5分 1分 0.5分 74. They are flying a kite now. 0.5分 1分 0.5分 75. Teachers’ Day is on September 10th. 0.5分 0.5分 1分 ★ 评分标准：每小题能写出一个符合图意的完整、正确的句子，得2分；能基本说明图意，写出主要句子结构，得1—1.5分；能传递个别信息，得0.5分。 VII. 短文填词（每小题1分，满分10分） 76. different 77. in 78. and 79. swimming 80. is 81. a 82.snowmen 83. keep 84. really 85. your ★ 评分标准：按以上所提供的答案给分。 VIII. 书面表达（满分15分） One possible version: Dear David, Hi! I’m glad that you want to know about my school life. My school life is very colorful. Classes start at 8:00 a.m. and end at 5:30 p.m. We learn different subjects like Chinese, math, art and English. English is my favorite. After school, I often join in activities. There are many interesting after-school activities. My favorite activity is playing basketball. I usually play it with my friends on the playground. It’s good for my health. I really love my school life! Do you like my school life? What about yours? Yours, Li Hua 书面表达评分标准 第五档13—15分 包含所有信息，内容完整，语句通顺，意思连贯。没有或基本没有语法、拼写错误，书写规范，词数符合要求。 第四档10—12分 包含大部分信息，内容较完整，表达基本清楚，语句较通顺，有少量语法、拼写错误。书写规范，词数基本符合要求。 第三档7—9分 写出基本信息，语句基本通顺，但句子较简单，表达不够清楚，有部分语法、拼写错误。书写基本规范。 第二档4—6分 写出部分信息，表达不清楚，有较多语法和拼写错误。 第一档0.5—3分 仅能传递个别信息，通篇只有个别句子可读。 0分 只字未写，或写的内容与所要求的内容无关。 七年级英语试卷标答 第1页 （共2页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025-2026学年第一学期七年级期末质量抽测 英语试题听力材料 I. 听句子 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。（每个句子读两遍） 1. My brother often plays football after school. 2. It’s 9 o’clock now. It’s time for class. 3. Xiao Ya’s favorite subject is geography. 4. The weather in Nanping is sunny today. 5. There is an elephant in the zoo. II. 听对话 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍） 听第1段对话，回答第6小题。 M: What class are you in, Kate? W: I’m in Class 14, Grade 7. 听第2段对话，回答第7小题。 M: Is your father a policeman, Sally? W: No, he isn’t. He is a doctor. 听第3段对话，回答第8小题。 W: Excuse me, how do you usually go to school, Tom? M: My home is far from school. I never come to school by bike or on foot, I often take a bus. 听第4段对话，回答第9小题。 M: Sarah, today is January 1st. Happy New Year! W: Happy New Year, Wang Junfeng! And tomorrow is my birthday. 听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。 M: Hi, Lingling! Is this a photo of your family? W: Yes, it is! Here’s my family: my grandparents, my parents, my elder sister, and me. M: So, there are six people in your family! W: That’s right. We live together. M: It must be fun! So, who cooks meals for everyone? W: My parents usually cook for us. They are great cooks! My sister and I sometimes help, too. M: Wow, you have a happy family. 听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。 M: Hi, Lily! The weather is so nice today. What’s your favorite season? W: Well, I like autumn best. I think it’s a beautiful and cool season. What about you, Kangkang? M: Spring is my favorite. I often go fishing with my father by the lake. It’s very quiet and relaxing. Do you like fishing, Lily? W: Not really, I love having picnics in autumn! Maybe we can go out for a picnic together one day! M: That’s a great idea! 听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。 M: Hi, Lucy! What are you reading? W: I am reading a book about trees. M: That sounds interesting. What does it say? W: It is about how important trees are to people and animals. They make the air clean and provide homes for animals. People need them for many things. M: You are right. We should do something to protect them. W: Yes. We need to tell more classmates about this. M: Good idea. Let’s make a poster about protecting trees together. W: Great! Let’s start now. III. 听短文 根据你所听到的短文内容, 完成下面表格，每空填一词。（短文读三遍） Look at this picture. This is our star, Menglan. Menglan is a lovely panda in Beijing Zoo. He is 10 years old now. Menglan is black and white. He has big and round eyes. Many people like him. His favorite food is bamboo. He often sits and eats it for hours. Menglan is a happy panda and he is very friendly, too. Menglan loves to play with his toys and climb high in a tree. He loves making friends. Many birds often visit his home to eat the bamboo with him. He can’t talk, but when people call him Menglan, he can understand it. It is great fun to watch him. So next time if you visit Beijing Zoo, please say hello to this cute panda! 七年级英语听力材料 第1页 （共2页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025-2026学年第一学期七年级期末质量抽测 英 语 试 题 （考试时间：120分钟，其中听力30分钟，笔试90分钟；满分：150分） 说明：1. 本试卷仅供选用学校使用。 2. 所有答案都必须填在答题卡相应的位置上，答在试卷上一律无效。 I. 听力（共三节，20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分） 第一节 听句子 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。（每个句子读两遍） 1. A. B. C. 2. A. B. C. 3. A. B. C. 4. A. B. C. ( 七年级 (4) 班 ) 5. A. B. C. 第2节 听对话 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍） 听第1段对话，回答第6小题。 6. What class is Kate in? A. Class 14, Grade 7. B. Class 4, Grade 7. C. Class 14, Grade 4. 听第2段对话，回答第7小题。 7. What does Sally’s father do? A. A driver. B. A teacher. C. A doctor. 听第3段对话，回答第8小题。 8. How does Tom usually go to school? A. By bike. B. On foot. C. By bus. 听第4段对话，回答第9小题。 9. When is Sarah’s birthday? A. On January 1st. B. On January 2nd. C. On January 3rd. 听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。 10. How many people are there in Lingling’s family? A. 5. B. 6. C. 7. 11. Who usually cooks meals for the family? A. Lingling’s sister. B. Lingling’s parents. C.Lingling’s grandparents. 听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。 12. What is Lily’s favorite season? A. Spring. B. Summer. C. Autumn. 13. What does Kangkang often do in his favorite season? A. He goes fishing. B. He goes hiking. C. He has picnics. 听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。 14. What’s the relationship (关系) between the two people in the conversation? A. Classmates. B. Mother and son. C. Brother and sister. 15. What will they do next? A. Plant trees. B. Make a poster. C. Read more books. 第三节 听短文 根据所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。（短文读 三遍) Menglan, a Panda Age 16 years old Living place Beijing Zoo Food Bamboo Looks Black and white with 17 and round eyes Character 18 and friendly Likes ◇ To play with his toys ◇ To 19 high in a tree ◇ To make 20 II. 选择填空 （共10小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 21. 下列画线部分发音与其他两项不同的选项是：________。 A. cold B. home C. come 22. Henry is good ________ playing the guitar. A. at B. to C. for 23. Miss Zhang is a kind teacher. We all love ________. A. she B. her C. hers 24. Mandy likes drawing pictures. Every Friday, she goes to the ________ club. A. art B. music C. science 25. Tree Planting Day is in March, the ________ month of the year. A. second B. third C. fourth 26. Spring ________ us warm weather and beautiful flowers. A. makes B. takes C. brings 27. My grandfather uses glasses to read. They are very _______ for him. A. interesting B. lovely C. helpful 28. — Do you have _________ colorful pencils, Bruce? — Yes, I have _________. ( （背面还有试题） ) A. any, some B. some, any C. some, some 29. — Mom, math is too hard for me. — Don’t ________. Just try your best! A. put up B. warm up C. give up 30. — ________ do many animals live in the rainforest? — Because there is enough food and water for them in it. A. What B. Why C. When III．完形填空 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。 The Sound of Music is one of the most popular(受欢迎的)movies. It takes us to a wonderful world full of music and love. There is a young woman named Maria in the movie. She goes to a big house to 31 seven children. The children lost their mother, so the family are unhappy. Maria 32 to do something for them. She teaches the children to sing and dance. One of the 33 in the movie is Do-Re-Mi. It is 34 to learn. When you hear the song, you’ll want to sing 35 out. With the help of Maria, the quiet and cold house fills with happiness. The movie shows us big green mountains. We can see that Maria often takes the children 36 picnics there. They play in the sunshine. All of these things make the days warm and sunny. 37 you are watching this movie, you can also feel very happy. Maria is 38 kind and nice. She helps the family 39 happiness again. The wonderful movie tells us a(n) 40 lesson: live with love and music, and do our best to find the good things in life. 31. A. look after B. look for C. look at 32. A. stops B. wants C. remembers 33. A. stories B. songs C. mountains 34. A. easy B. hard C. right 35. A. them B. one C. it 36. A. have B. having C. to have 37. A. When B. Before C. After 38. A. seldom B. always C. sometimes 39. A. buy B. end C. find 40. A. important B. exciting C. difficult IV. 阅读理解 （共三节，25小题；满分50分 ） 第一节 阅读下列短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） A International Milk Day is on June 1st every year. People drink milk together and they also eat delicious milk-made food. Milk is good for us because it helps make us strong. It’s important for us to drink milk every day to keep healthy. We all love this fun and healthy day. International Children’s Day is on June 1st. It is a happy day for boys and girls all around the world. They often get small gifts from their parents and enjoy fun activities at school, like singing and drawing. It is a special(特别的)time for every child to feel loved and happy. This day shows we should always care for all children. International Day of Families lets us know about the importance of families. On May 15th, many families spend time together. They may have a meal, talk, or play games at home. It’s also a time to say “thank you” and show love to parents, brothers and sisters. Let’s enjoy our family time. 41. When is International Milk Day? A. On May 1st. B. On June 1st. C. On May 15th. D. On June 15th. 42. Why is milk good for us? A. It makes us feel happy. B. It helps make us thin. C. It makes us study well. D. It helps make us strong. 43. What do children often do on International Children’s Day? A. They spend time with families. B. They get gifts and enjoy fun activities. C. They drink milk and eat milk-made food. D. They say “thank you” to parents, brothers and sisters. 44. Why do we celebrate International Day of Families? A. To teach us to care for children. B. To learn more about housework. C. To tell us to drink milk every day. D. To know about the importance of families. 45. Where may we read this text? A. In a poster. B. In a map. C. In a letter. D. In a timetable. B Suzy Sheep is Peppa Pig’s best friend. She is also 4 years old. They love to do many things together, such as going to school and playing in the garden. Today, Suzy Sheep comes to visit Peppa. Mummy Pig asks them to play in Peppa’s bedroom. George wants to play, too. But he can’t join the first game, because it’s for girls. Then they play a new game. Suzy wants to be a nurse. Peppa wants to be a doctor. But they need a patient (病人). So Peppa asks him to be the patient. Peppa looks at George and says that his heart (心脏) is not right. She puts a plaster(创可贴)on it. When Daddy Pig sees George and asks why he has a plaster. Peppa tells him it is just a game. Then Mummy Pig gives George some cookies(饼干)to help him get well. Then Daddy Pig says he doesn’t feel well. Peppa tells him to have cookies, too. They all eat the cookies together. It is a fun day for everyone. 46. How old is Peppa Pig? A. 3. B. 4. C. 5. D. 6. 47. Where are they playing today? A. In the kitchen. B. In the garden. C. In Peppa’s bedroom. D. In the living room. 48. What does Peppa want to be in the new game? A. A doctor. B. A teacher. C. A nurse. D. A cook. 49. What does the underlined(划线)word “it” refer to (指代)? A. George’s heart. B. The plaster. C. A game. D. A cookie. 50. What can we learn from the story? A. George’s heart is not right today. B. Everyone has a good time today. C. Daddy Pig doesn’t like the game. D. George plays in the two games today. C The Amazon Rainforest is the largest rainforest on Earth. It is in South America, mostly in Brazil. It’s not in just one country. It’s in nine countries in South America! It is very hot and wet there. This forest is home to many animals and plants. You can find snakes, monkeys, and many beautiful birds there. No other place in the world has as many different plants and animals as the Amazon Rainforest. The Amazon River runs through(流经)the forest. It is the second longest river in the world. Over 30,000,000 people live in the Amazon. They have lived there for over 11,200 years! The Amazon is very important for our earth. It has more than half of all the rainforests on Earth! There are over 16,000 kinds of trees there. It makes a lot of oxygen(氧气). That’s why it is called the “lungs(肺)of the Earth.” It also helps to make a difference to the world’s weather. ( insects ) But now, people are doing something bad for the rainforests like cutting down lots of trees. With no trees, the animals die(死亡). So we must do something good for it. 51. The Amazon rainforest is in ________ countries. A. one B. nine C. ten D. ninety 52. What’s the weather like in the Amazon Rainforest? A. Hot and wet. B. Cold and wet. C. Cold and rainy. D. Warm and rainy. 53. Which is mentioned(提及)in Paragraph 2? a. a river b. plants c. the weather d. animals A. abc. B. acd. C. abd. D. bcd. 54. What’s the main idea of Paragraph 3? A. What the Amazon Rainforest is. B. Where the Amazon Rainforest is. C. How important the Amazon Rainforest is. D. Why the rainforest is called “lungs of the Earth”. 55. What can we learn from the text? A. No one is living in the Amazon Forest. B. The Amazon River is the longest in the world. C. The Amazon Rainforest has 16,000 kinds of animals and trees. D. The Amazon Rainforest has the most kinds of plants and animals. 第二节 阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的六个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯，意思完整。选项中有一项为多余选项。（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） D Baduanjin is a special Chinese exercise. It usually has eight main parts. 56 When you do Baduanjin, you move your body slowly and gently(缓慢且轻柔地). Sometimes you put your arms out. 57 These ways keep your blood(血液)moving and make your body strong. Now many young people like Baduanjin. 58 It is not only a kind of exercise but also a way to learn about Chinese culture. Baduanjin is special because you don’t need any things. 59 When you feel tired at home or at school, 10 to 15 minutes of Baduanjin can make you feel better. It’s an easy way to keep healthy. If you want to try a new healthy activity, Baduanjin is a great way. It helps keep your body and mind healthy. 60 More and more people are starting to do it! ( A. And they have no time to do it. B. You can do it at any time and in any place. C. Lots of schools in China teach it in P.E. classes. D. Each part has a different way and is good for us. E. Do it often, and you will see good changes ( 改变 ) . F. Sometimes you put your legs down or turn your body. ) 第三节 阅读表达 阅读下面短文，根据材料内容回答问题。（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） E The Mid-Autumn Festival falls on Lunar August 15th. It is the second most important traditional(传统的)festival in China after the Spring Festival. The festival has a history of over 3,000 years. It’s a holiday for families to get together. On the Mid-Autumn Festival, families have dinner together at night. People eat mooncakes to celebrate it. They are round like the moon, and they are the most important food for the festival. People often give mooncakes as presents to their relatives(亲戚)and friends. After dinner, Chinese people usually go outside to enjoy the full moon. It is round and bright on the night of the Mid-Autumn Festival. Many people light lanterns and hang them in trees. When people meet friends during the festival, they often give best wishes to each other. Everyone enjoys the nice and beautiful night very much. 61. When is the Mid-Autumn Festival in China? 62. Is the festival a holiday of family time? ( （背面还有试题） ) 63. What is the most important food for the festival? 64. How is the moon on the night of the festival? 65. What do you often do after dinner on the Mid-Autumn Festival? V. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 A: What can I do for you? B: I can’t find my schoolbag. A: I’m sorry to hear that. What color is it? B: 66 A: I see. What’s your name, please? B: My name is Li Xiang. 67 You can see my name on it. A: That’s helpful. 68 B: There is a math book and a science book. Mmm... 69 A: Let me have a look in my office. (After one minute) This is your schoolbag. I find it next to the computer. B: 70 A: You’re welcome. ( A. Th ank you. B. It’s yellow. C. I like red best. D. What’s your favorite book? F. There is also a pencil-box in it. E. My name card is in my schoolbag. G. What other things are there in your schoolbag? G. Would you like to ride a bike with me this weekend? ) VI. 看图写话 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。 71. like 72. usually 73. There be 74. now 75. be, on 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. VII. 短文填空 （共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，根据语境或所给单词的提示，在每个空格内填入一个恰当的词，要求所填的词意义准确、形式正确，使短文意思完整、行文连贯。 There are four seasons in a year — spring, summer, autumn and winter. I love each season because I can do 76 (difference) things. In spring, the weather is warm. I often ride my bike in the park 77 the morning. The trees have new leaves 78 the flowers come out — it’s so beautiful. Summer is hot. I enjoy 79 (swim) in the pool. Sometimes I eat ice-cream with my friends, and it 80 (be) nice and cool. Autumn is cool. I pick apples on the farm. They are big and red. My family always have a picnic on weekends. It’s a good way for us to have 81 rest. Winter is cold, but I still love it. When it snows, I often make 82 (snowman) with my brother. We usually wear thick coats to 83 (keep) warm. Each season brings me fun. I 84 (real) enjoy my life. What about you? Do you have any special plans for 85 (you) favorite season? Please tell me. VIII. 书面表达（满分15分） 86. 假定你是李华，你的外国笔友David想了解你的校园生活, 请结合以下提示，用英语给他写一封信，词数70左右。 My School Life Classes start at 8:00 a.m. end at 5:30 p.m. Subjects Chinese, math... favorite: English Favorite after-school activity basketball reasons(理由): ＊ ...with friends ＊ be good for 注意事项： 1. 必须包含所有提示信息，可适当发挥，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数； 2. 意思清楚，表达通顺，行文连贯，书写规范； 3. 请勿在文中使用真实的姓名、校名和地名。 Dear David, Hi! I’m glad that you want to know about my school life. Do you like my school life? What about yours? Yours， Li Hua 七年级英语试题 第10页 （共12页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $2025-2026学年第一学期七年级期末质量抽测 英语试题参考答案及评分说明 评分说明： 1.选择题部分所提供的答亲均为唯一答东； 2.非选择题部分提供一种或几种参考答案，如考生的答案与所提供的答案不同。清根据考查内容比照评分 标准的情评分； 3.书面表达炫不同档次的标准进行评分，各档的细化量分可参照秤分标准制定相应的细刚。第一至五档最 低赋分值为0.5分。 I.听力（每小题1.5分，满分30分) 1-5ABAAC 6-10ACCBB 11-15 BCAAB 16.10/Ten 17.big 18.Happy 19.climb 20.friends ★评分标准：16一20小题凡与提供的答案不符均不得分。 Ⅱ.单项选择（每小题1分，满分10分） 21-25 CABAB 26-30 CCACB II.完形填空（每小题1.5分，满分15分） 31-35 ABBAC 36-40 CABCA IV.阅读理解（共三部分，满分50分) 第一节（每小题2分，满分30分） 41-45 BDBDA 46-50 BCAAB 51-55 BACCD 第二节（每小题2分，满分10分) 56-60 DFCBE 第三节（每小题2分，满分10分) 61.On Lunar August 15th. 62.Yes,it is. 63.Mooncakes. 64.It's round and bright./It's full and bright. 65.I often enjoy the moon.(言之有理即给分) V.补全对话（每小题2分，满分10分) 66-70 BEGFA Ⅵ.看图写话（每小题2分，满分10分) 71.The boy/He likes singing 0.5分1分0.5分 72.The girl/She usually goes to school on foot/walks to school. 0.5分 0.5分0.5分 0.5分 0.5分0.5分 73.There are two boxes on the table 0.5分 1分 0.5分 74.They are flying a kite now. 0.5分1分 0.5分 75.Teachers'Day is on September 10th 0.5分 0.5分 1分 七年级英语试卷标答第1页（共2页） ★评分标准：每小题能写出一个符合图意的完整、正确的句子，得2分；能基本说明图意，写出主要句 子结构，得1一1.5分g能传递个别信息，得0.5分。 VII.短文填词（每小题1分，满分10分） 76.different 77.in 78.and 79.swimming 80.is 81.a 82.snowmen 83.keep 84.really 85.your 黄评分标准：按以上所提供的答案给分。 IIⅡ.书面表达（满分15分） One possible version: Dear David, Hi!I'm glad that you want to know about my school life. My school life is very colorful.Classes start at 8:00 a.m.and end at 5:30 p.m.We learn different subjects like Chinese,math,art and English.English is my favorite. After school,I often join in activities.There are many interesting after-school activities.My favorite activity is playing basketball.I usually play it with my friends on the playground.It's good for my health.I really love my school life! Do you like my school life?What about yours? Yours, LiHua 书面表达评分标准 包含所有信息，内容完整，语句通顺，意思连贯。没有或基本没 第五档13一15分 有语法、拼写错误，书写规范，词数符合要求。 包含大部分信息，内容较完整，表达基本清楚，语句较通顺，有 第四档10一12分 少量语法、拼写错误。书写规范，词数基本符合要求。 写出基本信息，语句基本通顺，但句子较简单，表达不够清楚， 第三档7一9分 有部分语法、拼写错误。书写基本规范。 第二档4一6分 写出部分信息，表达不清楚，有较多语法和拼写错误。 第一档0.5-3分 仅能传递个别信息，通篇只有个别句子可读。 0分 只字未写，或写的内容与所要求的内容无关。 七年级英语试卷标答第2页（共2页)