内容正文:
2025—2026学年第一学期期末教学质量监测
八年级英语(人教版)
注意事项:
1. 本试卷共8页,满分120分,考试时长120分钟。
2. 答题前,考生务必将姓名、考号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。
3. 答选择题时,用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;答非选择题时,须用黑色字迹的签字笔书写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分听力(共四节,满分30分)
第一节 听句子,选择最佳答语(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
1. A. On land. B. The blue whale. C. Many years ago.
2. A. I’m taller. B. Really? C. Mike.
3. A. Five. B. Cut them up. C. Let’s try them.
4. A. Yes, they will. B. All right. C. That’s OK.
5. A. It was fine. B. Sounds good. C. Sure.
第二节 听对话和问题,选择正确答案(共13小题;每小题1分,满分13分)
6. What is Mum making?
A. B. C.
7. Where does the conversation take place?
A. B. C.
8. What did Sam do this morning?
A. He went to a park. B. He visited the palace. C. He visited Red Square.
9. When will Sam come back?
A. This Sunday. B. Next Monday. C. Next Tuesday.
10. Where is Ann going?
A. To the paint shop. B. To the flower shop. C. To the book shop.
11. What colour do Ann’s grandparents love?
A. Green. B. Blue. C. White.
12. What will Mike help to do?
A. Paint the room. B. Buy flowers. C. Cook dinner.
13. What is Henry reading?
A. A story about hobbies. B. A story about a girl. C. A story about future.
14. What kind of flowers do bees like?
A. Sweet flowers. B. Small flowers. C. Bright flowers.
15. What will Tina do to protect bees?
A. Help them store honey. B. Make home for them. C. Grow flowers for them.
16. What can help students see their classmates and teachers?
A. Special glasses. B. Special TVs. C. Special computers.
17. Why won’t people worry about being late for work?
A. Because there will be more taxis.
B. Because there will be flying cars.
C. Because people will work at home.
18. Who will do housework?
A. Parents. B. Students. C. Robots.
第三节 听短文和问题,选择正确答案(共7小题;每小题1分,满分7分)
19. How did Li Xia go to Qingdao?
A. By bus. B. By car. C. By train.
20. Where was the hotel?
A. Near the sea. B. Beside a park. C. Behind a museum.
21. Why did Li Xia like Qingdao?
A. Because the air was fresh.
B. Because the food was delicious.
C. Because the scenery was beautiful.
22. How many potatoes do we need?
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
23. What is the first step to cook the dish?
A. Wash the vegetables. B. Heat some oil. C. Cut up the beef.
24 When do we take the potatoes out?
A. When they are soft. B. When they get dark. C. When they smell good.
25. How long do we cook it after turning the fire to low?
A. For 2 hours. B. For an hour. C. For half an hour.
第四节 听短文填空(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
Judie’s Dreams
Dream job:
26. a(n) _____________
The place I often visit:
27. the _____________
Place to live:
28. a small _____________
The pet to keep:
29. a _____________
Dream life:
30 _____________ and relaxing
第二部分 语言运用(共两节,满分25分)
第一节 完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Do you know body language (肢体语言)? When you ____1____ others, you can use words and body language together. Body language can help you to show your feelings and ideas.
Learning body language is like learning a language. It has to do with ____2____. In different cultures, body language is different. Sometimes, the differences in body language can ____3____ misunderstanding in communication. For example, how far should we stand when we talk to others? In some ____4____, people like to stand close when they talk. But in other countries, standing close is ____5____.
People everywhere ____6____ body language, but the same action can have different meanings in different places. For example, in most countries, when people say “hello” or “goodbye”, they may wave (挥动) their hands. But in Greece (希腊), people ____7____ do it because showing hands to someone is impolite. There is another ____8____. The “OK” sign is good in many countries. However, in Brazil (巴西), it is a ____9____ sign. People think showing such a sign is like saying a dirty word.
So, ____10____ you meet people from other cultures, try to understand their body language. It will help you communicate better with them.
1. A. care about B. look for C. fight against D. communicate with
2. A. journey B. culture C. health D. dream
3. A. cause B. change C. find D. cover
4. A. villages B. cities C. islands D. countries
5. A. boring B. impolite C. amazing D. relaxing
6. A. use B. take C. forget D. write
7. A. usually B. never C. sometimes D. often
8. A. story B. plan C. example D. way
9. A. bad B. simple C. strong D. positive
10. A. because B. until C. if D. although
第二节 短文填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或填入括号内单词的正确形式。
Li Lin is my friend. She is kind and helpful, so she’s one of the ____11____ (popular) girls in my class. She likes painting. Her ____12____ (picture) are very beautiful. Last month, she ____13____ (take) part in the art festival and won a prize. Li Lin wants to be a ____14____ (paint). Some people say it’s difficult, ____15____ she believes she will succeed as long as she tries her best. She says she ____16____ (live) in Dalian in the future. It’s a nice city with beautiful scenery. To make her dream come true, she plans ____17____ (have) art lessons and practice her painting skills every day.
Li Lin has a brother. ____18____ (He) name is Li Yang. He is different ____19____ Li Lin. He has a round face. He is ____20____ strong boy. He likes sports and he lives ____21____ (healthy). He often plays basketball ____22____ friends. Besides sports, Li Yang also ____23____ (enjoy) cooking. He can make cakes ____24____ (well) than anyone I know. Last year, at Li Lin’s birthday party, Li Yang made a birthday cake and I tried some. It was the ____25____ (one) time I had tasted such a delicious cake. What a great cook!
第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Doing housework is an important part of life. Three students are sharing what they do to help at home.
He Lin
I am a student of Grade 9. This year, I have no time to do chores on school days because I’m busy with my schoolwork. But on weekends, I go to the supermarket with my mother and help to take everything home. I think doing chores makes me more responsible (有责任心的) and independent (独立的).
Li Ying
I live with my parents and grandparents. My parents get home too late from Monday to Friday, so I help to cook dinner after school. On Saturday morning, I clean the house with my grandfather. I enjoy doing chores. If I can do more chores, my parents will be more relaxed.
Judy
I live with my parents and younger brother. Every morning, I make my bed. After school, I take out the rubbish. On weekends, I water the plants and walk the dog. I think doing housework is not only parents’ work. Sharing housework brings my family closer together.
26. Why doesn’t He Lin do chores on school days?
A. Because he’s too busy to do chores. B. Because his mother does all the chores.
C. Because he lives at school on school days. D. Because he doesn’t like to do any chores.
27. What does Li Ying help to do on Saturday?
A. B. C. D.
28. What does Judy think of doing chores?
A. It brings her happiness and joy. B. It makes her parents more relaxed.
C. It brings her family closer together. D. It makes her responsible and independent.
B
I had a good time on my trip to Chongqing. I went with my teachers and classmates. I missed my family at the beginning but later, I didn’t want to go home!
On my favourite day, we went on a really long walk in the mountains. We had to carry all our things in bags. It was hard work, but we didn’t feel bored because we talked happily all the time. We had a rock climbing (攀岩) lesson just before our picnic (野餐) lunch. Later that afternoon, we arrived at a lake and put up the tent there for the night. Three of the others tried to fish, but they failed. I helped to make the fire. The teachers and two of the students made dinner, then we sat around the fire and sang songs. We also made wishes in the dark.
At eleven, all of us still stayed outside the tents, watching the stars and telling interesting stories. The teachers said it was too late, so we had to go to sleep.
I’ll never forget that day!
29. How did the writer feel at the beginning of the trip?
A. She felt bored. B. She missed her family.
C. She felt a little afraid. D. She was very nervous.
30. Where did they put up the tent for the night?
A. By the lake. B. In the park. C. In the forest. D. In a small village.
31. What did all of them do at eleven at night?
A. They sang around the fire. B. They tried to fish.
C. They told interesting stories. D. They made wishes in the dark.
C
Wu Qian is a famous Chinese piano teacher. In the piano competition (比赛) in Vienna (维也纳) in August, 2025, Miss Wu’s students won nineteen prizes.
Wu opened her “Wu Qian’s Music Classroom” and began teaching students to play the piano in 2018. Her students are from China, Germany, the UK, the US and a few other countries. She is popular with piano learners (学习者) because of her excellent teaching experience. Her students won the prizes in many kinds of piano competitions in the world.
“As a piano teacher, the most important thing is to love the students. I enjoy teaching students. ” Wu added, “My students practice the piano very hard. As a result, the hard-working students improve a lot. Also, I am glad that the students’ parents trust me. I will try my best to teach my students to play the piano well. ”
32. How many prizes did Miss Wu’s students win in Vienna in August, 2025?
A. Eight. B. Ten. C. Eighteen. D. Nineteen.
33. Why is Wu so popular with piano learners?
A. Because she can play the piano well. B. Because she loves her students a lot.
C. Because she has hard-working students. D. Because she has rich teaching experience.
34. What is the most important thing for a piano teacher according to Wu?
A. To love the students. B. To believe the students.
C. To show thanks to the parents. D. To be helpful and straightforward.
35. Which might be Wu’s student’s parent?
A. My daughter’s piano teacher is very strict. She hates students who are lazy and shy. She drives them away.
B. My son’s piano teacher is interested in teaching. I trust her because she tries her best to teach students.
C. My daughter’s piano teacher is excellent. She loves children. She only teaches students from China.
D. My son won a prize in October in Vienna with his piano teacher’s help.
D
In today’s English class, Mr Miller asked us to think about the life in 50 years.
“Climate change and other pollution problems will get worse and influence the world badly,” Sam said. Mr Miller asked us what we could do to make our planet better. Emma said, “We can start from small things, like saving water, turning off lights when we leave rooms, using both sides of paper.”
After hearing Emma’s words, Mr Miller smiled and said, “Good job! Every small act counts. Scientists are also working hard to solve the pollution problems. ”
Another boy, Peter, said, “In the future, we will live better. We will have robots at home. They can help us do housework such as cooking, washing and cleaning. They can be a tutor (家庭教师) to teach us. They can also tell us how to solve our health problems. ”
Judie said, “People will live longer in the future. Some scientists are testing medicine (药) to help people live longer. By 2050, people may live to be over 100 years old. ”
Mr Miller was pleased with our answers. He smiled and asked us to work hard for the bright future.
36. What is Emma’s opinion on protecting our planet?
A. Stop cutting down trees. B. Move to the outer space.
C. Use one side of paper. D. Turn off lights when leaving rooms.
37. What can’t robots do according to Peter?
A. They can’t sense our feelings. B. They can’t cook dinner for us.
C. They can’t teach kids to learn anything. D. They can’t help us solve health problems.
38. What is Judie’s idea about the future?
A Robots will replace humans. B. Pollution problems will get worse.
C. People will move to another planet by 2050. D. We will live longer with the help of scientists.
39. Which word is close to the underlined word “pleased”?
A. Angry. B. Happy. C. Ready. D. Bored.
40. What is the best title for the text?
A. Jobs in the Future B. Robots in the Future
C Dream about the Future D. Learn More Skills for the Future
第二节 阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,简略回答问题。
Judy and Lily are best friends. They got to know each other last year. At that time, Judy just moved to Lily’s community. Judy had no friends. When she stayed alone in the garden, Lily came to greet her. Later, they knew that they were in the same school. From then on, they went to school together every morning and became good friends.
Judy and Lily always share a lot. They both love watching movies. After watching a new movie, they spend hours talking about it. Also, they are both interested in badminton and good at it. They play badminton together every Saturday afternoon. Besides these, they have the same values (价值观). They think being honest is the most important in a friendship.
However, they also have differences. They love the differences because they make their friendship more interesting. Judy is quieter and more serious. She likes to plan something carefully before she does it. Lily is more outgoing. She can make friends with others easily. She always encourages Judy to try new things. With her help, Judy joined the school drama club this year.
In short, Judy is like a planner, while Lily is like an explorer. Together, they are a perfect team.
41. When did Judy get to know Lily?
_____________________________________________
42. What are they good at?
_____________________________________________
43. What do they think is the most important in a friendship?
_____________________________________________
44. Why do they like the differences between them?
_____________________________________________
45. Who do you want to make friends with, Judy or Lily? Why?
_____________________________________________
第四部分 情景交际(满分10分)
补全对话(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据下面的对话情景,在空白处填入一个适当的句子,使对话的意思连贯、完整。
(Bob and Sam are talking during the class break. )
Sam: Hi, Bob. What are you doing now?
Bob: I’m reading a novel.
Sam: ________46________
Bob: It’s about life in 2050.
Sam: Wow, it’s a sci-fi novel. There will be a new sci-fi film coming out this Sunday. Would you like to see it with me?
Bob: ________47________ Which cinema shall we go to?
Sam: What about the Hongguang Cinema? It’s the nearest.
Bob: Great. ________48________
Sam: Let’s meet at 4:00 p.m. The film starts at 4:30 p.m.
Bob: OK. How will you get there?
Sam: By bike. ________49________
Bob: I’ll also go there by bike.
Sam: OK. See you at the cinema.
Bob: Great. ________50________
第五部分 写作(满分15分)
书面表达
51. 新年将至,英语老师邀请大家一起布置“新年新目标”展示墙。请根据提示,用英文写下你的新年计划,向同学们展示你的新年目标。
My New Year resolutions
·keep healthy
·take up a new hobby
·…
注意:
(1) 文中须包括所有信息 (含需要补充的一处内容),可适当发挥;
(2) 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名和地名;
(3) 词数70个左右 (开头已给出,不计入总词数)。
The new year is coming. It’s the perfect time to make resolutions for the next year.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2025—2026学年第一学期期末教学质量监测
八年级英语(人教版)
注意事项:
1. 本试卷共8页,满分120分,考试时长120分钟。
2. 答题前,考生务必将姓名、考号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。
3. 答选择题时,用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;答非选择题时,须用黑色字迹的签字笔书写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分听力(共四节,满分30分)
第一节 听句子,选择最佳答语(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
1. A. On land. B. The blue whale. C. Many years ago.
2. A. I’m taller. B. Really? C. Mike.
3. A. Five. B. Cut them up. C. Let’s try them.
4. A. Yes, they will. B. All right. C. That’s OK.
5. A. It was fine. B. Sounds good. C. Sure.
第二节 听对话和问题,选择正确答案(共13小题;每小题1分,满分13分)
6. What is Mum making?
A. B. C.
7. Where does the conversation take place?
A. B. C.
8. What did Sam do this morning?
A. He went to a park. B. He visited the palace. C. He visited Red Square.
9. When will Sam come back?
A. This Sunday. B. Next Monday. C. Next Tuesday.
10. Where is Ann going?
A. To the paint shop. B. To the flower shop. C. To the book shop.
11. What colour do Ann’s grandparents love?
A. Green. B. Blue. C. White.
12. What will Mike help to do?
A. Paint the room. B. Buy flowers. C. Cook dinner.
13. What is Henry reading?
A. A story about hobbies. B. A story about a girl. C. A story about future.
14. What kind of flowers do bees like?
A. Sweet flowers. B. Small flowers. C. Bright flowers.
15. What will Tina do to protect bees?
A. Help them store honey. B. Make home for them. C. Grow flowers for them.
16. What can help students see their classmates and teachers?
A. Special glasses. B. Special TVs. C. Special computers.
17. Why won’t people worry about being late for work?
A. Because there will be more taxis.
B. Because there will be flying cars.
C. Because people will work at home.
18. Who will do housework?
A. Parents. B. Students. C. Robots.
第三节 听短文和问题,选择正确答案(共7小题;每小题1分,满分7分)
19. How did Li Xia go to Qingdao?
A. By bus. B. By car. C. By train.
20. Where was the hotel?
A. Near the sea. B. Beside a park. C. Behind a museum.
21. Why did Li Xia like Qingdao?
A. Because the air was fresh.
B. Because the food was delicious.
C. Because the scenery was beautiful.
22. How many potatoes do we need?
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
23. What is the first step to cook the dish?
A. Wash the vegetables. B. Heat some oil. C. Cut up the beef.
24. When do we take the potatoes out?
A. When they are soft. B. When they get dark. C. When they smell good.
25. How long do we cook it after turning the fire to low?
A. For 2 hours. B. For an hour. C. For half an hour.
第四节 听短文填空(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
Judie’s Dreams
Dream job:
26. a(n) _____________
The place I often visit:
27. the _____________
Place to live:
28. a small _____________
The pet to keep:
29. a _____________
Dream life:
30. _____________ and relaxing
第二部分 语言运用(共两节,满分25分)
第一节 完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
【1~10题答案】
【答案】1. D 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. C
第二节 短文填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
【11~25题答案】
【答案】11. most popular
12. pictures
13. took 14. painter
15. but 16. will live
17. to have
18. His 19. from
20. a 21. healthily
22. with 23. enjoys
24. better 25. first
第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【26~28题答案】
【答案】26. A 27. C 28. C
B
【29~31题答案】
【答案】29. B 30. A 31. C
C
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32. D 33. D 34. A 35. B
D
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. D 37. A 38. D 39. B 40. C
第二节 阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
【41~45题答案】
【答案】41. Last year.
42. Badminton.
43. Being honest.
44. Because the differences make their friendship more interesting.
45. I want to make friends with Judy because I also like planning carefully and we can learn from each other’s quiet strength.
第四部分 情景交际(满分10分)
补全对话(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
【46~50题答案】
【答案】46. What is it about?
47. Sure. / Yes, I’d love to. / Of course.
48. When shall we meet? / What time shall we meet?
49. What about you? / How will you get there?
50. See you then. / See you.
第五部分 写作(满分15分)
书面表达
【51题答案】
【答案】
范文:
The new year is coming. It’s the perfect time to make resolutions for the next year.
First, I plan to keep healthy by exercising three times a week and eating more vegetables. Second, I want to take up a new hobby, such as learning to play the guitar. Finally, I hope to improve my English by reading English books every day.
I believe if I work hard, I can make all my resolutions come true. Let’s encourage each other and make progress together!
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