四川省眉山市2025-2026学年八年级上学期1月期末英语试题

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2026-01-23
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八年级上期末监测英语试卷2026.01 第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面五段短对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does Mike want to be when he grows up? A. An artist. B. A teacher. C. A doctor. 2. Where did Jenny go on vacation? A. To the mountains. B. To the beach. C. To the park. 3. When will the man go to a movie? A. Tomorrow afternoon. B. Tomorrow morning. C. Tomorrow night. 4. How will the woman go to Landon? A. By train. B. By plane. C. By boat. 5. Why does the woman think Steve should get the job? A. Because he’s more hard-working. B. Because he is smarter. C. Because he is more shy. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面五段长对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟,听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段对话,回答第6至7小题。 6. What is Mike’s first resolution about? A. Physical health. B. Self-improvement. C. Personal skills. 7. What’s probably the relationship(关系)between the two speakers? A. Classmates. B. Mother and son. C. Teacher and student. 听第7段对话,回答第8至10小题。 8. What is the main topic of Jenny’s homework? A. Her school life. B. Her family members. C. The meaning of home. 9. What personal story did Jenny write about? A. Her family dinner. B. The change of her room. C. Her hard times. 10. What advice does Mr Smith give to Jenny? A. Write about her school life. B. Talk about home changes as she grows older. C. Describe her favourite housework. 听第8段对话,回答第11至13小题。 11. What is Doubao AI? A. A talking robot. B. An app. C. A new video game. 12. What can Doubao AI do? A. Answering questions. B. Cooking meals. C. Doing housework. 13 What does the boy think of Doubao AI? A. It’s perfect. B. It’s terrible. C. It has good and bad sides. 听第9段对话,回答第14至16小题。 14. Who taught the boy to cook fish? A. His grandpa. B. His grandma. C. His mother. 15. How many steps does the boy mention about cooking fish? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. 16. What do we know about the girl? A. She wants to cook fish for her father. B. She likes cooking very much. C. She doesn’t like onions. 听下面一段独白,回答第17至20小题。 17. What will Jack’s clothes be like in 20 years? A. Colourful and warm. B. Dark and cool. C. Comfortable and cool. 18. Where will Jack spend his vacation? A. In the mountains. B. In space or under the sea. C. In the city. 19. Why will Jack make friends with people around the world? A. To play sports with them. B. To learn cultures from them. C. To watch TV with them. 20. What does Jack mainly tell us about in 20 years? A. Travel. B. Food. C. Life. 第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Young Plan Writer of the Year Are you a good planner and a good writer? If so, then this is your time to shine. The Week Junior is hosting the “Young Plan Writer of the Year” competition (比赛). What to do Write a short passage about your plan or resolution. What’s your plan or resolution? Why do you make it? How will you finish it? Share your story! Who can join Students aged 18 and under. There are three age groups with different word limits (限制): 10 and under: about 250 words 11-14: about 500 words 15-18: about 750 words What the rules are ●Count the words and write the number at the end. ●Write down your name, age, and your parents’ phone numbers. ●Send us your story by 30th January, 2026. What you can win ●A £100 book token (代金券). ●A year’s subscription (订阅) to The Week Junior magazine. 1. 8-year-old Henry will join the competition. How many words may he write? A. 150 words. B. 260 words. C. 500 words. D. 750 words. 2. What information must the competitors show? ①Their plans. ②Their parents’ names. ③The word count of their story. ④Their parents’ phone numbers. A. ②③④ B. ①②④ C. ①②③ D. ①③④ 3. What is the main purpose of the text? A. To teach children how to plan. B. To ask people to buy the magazine. C. To introduce a writing competition. D. To wish people to read the magazine. B During the Spring Festival Gala (春晚) of the Year of the Snake, some robots performed a Yangge dance. The dance was directed by Zhang Yimou, and 16 robots were dressed in Chinese style clothes. They danced together with human dancers. The humanoid (仿人的) robots can not only dance well, but also twirl handkerchiefs (手帕), showing highly skillful actions. The innovative (创新的) dance surprised many overseas netizens. “Watching the full dance and the way the robots turn those handkerchiefs is really exciting,” one netizen said. “I truly think it’s kind of cool. The more you mix technology with life, the easier it is to get people to love it,” another one said. “In the Spring Festival Gala, there was a surprising robot dance show. They danced so well! The handkerchief could be turned, thrown out and returned to its original (原来的) position correctly! AI and robots are in the next level now. We should start and don’t get behind!” a netizen from America said. It was Unitree H1, a humanoid robot product of Unitree, that put on the dance on the stage of the Spring Festival Gala. Unitree said they named this model of robots “Fuxi”, a homophone (同音词) for a mythical ancestor (祖先) of the Chinese nation, symbolizing the best wishes brought by technology. 4. What’s the main idea of Paragraph 1? A. How the robots performed. B. Who created the dancing robots. C. Why the robots were named “Fuxi”. D. What people thought of the robots. 5. What can we learn from overseas netizens’ words? A. They are dance lovers. B. They like the robots’ dance. C. They want to buy the robots. D. They would like to visit China. 6. Why did Unitree give the robot the name “Fuxi”? A To sell Chinese clothes. B. To make it sound easier. C. To respect a dancer in history. D. To connect tradition with technology. 7. Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. The great change of Unitree robots B. Robot dance show at the Spring Festival Gala C. The story of Fuxi: a mythical ancestor D. The Spring Festival Gala of the Year of the Snake C When it comes to delicious food, nothing beats our grandma’s cooking, maybe except more grandmas’ cooking in the same kitchen. It is what goes on at Enoteca Maria, an Italian restaurant in New York City. The restaurant hires grandmas from all over the world, instead of actual cooks. The owner of the restaurant, Jody Scaravella, came up with the wonderful idea. After losing his mother, grandmother and sister, Jody missed sitting down with family for home-cooked meals. He wanted to create a place to go out for a home-cooked meal and Enoteca Maria was born in 2007. The first grandma cooks of the restaurant came from different parts of Italy. They would take turns to cook their own special dishes. Sometimes, they would have friendly competitions of whose dish was best. Over time, Jody decided to invite grandmas worldwide. Today, the restaurant has grandmas from around 30 countries, like Brazil, China and Japan. They take turns to work in the kitchen. The restaurant is only open three days a week: Friday, Saturday, and Sunday. Its website lists the menu for each of these days. Half of the menu is fixed, and it’s all Italian dishes. The other half changes daily and it includes dishes from around the world. Each night, one of the grandmas designs a fresh menu. It usually includes traditional dishes from her home country and the food she loves best. How do people like the food? Well, the restaurant is full of people on most nights. As the grandmas happily work in the kitchen, business is running at full speed at this restaurant! 8. Why did Jody open the restaurant? A. To realize his childhood dream. B. To create a place with the taste of home. C. To put more grandmas to work. D. To remember his family. 9. What does the underlined word “fixed” in Paragraph 4 mean? A. Old. B. Fresh. C. Simple. D. Unchanging. 10. What can we learn from the last paragraph? A. Enoteca Maria has high prices of dishes. B. Enoteca Maria offers fast food. C. Enoteca Maria is very popular. D. Enoteca Maria is very quiet. 11. What’s the passage mainly about? A. A clever owner of an Italian restaurant. B. Different food cultures around the world. C. A special restaurant in New York City. D. Grandmas’ traditional dishes. D Can plants talk? Modern research has found something amazing—they do communicate with each other. It has been known for some time that plants use chemicals (化学物质) to communicate with each other. This happens when a plant gets attacked (攻击) by insects. The plant gives out chemicals from the leaves that are being eaten. This is like a warning (警报), or a call for help: I’m being attacked! These chemicals can’t be noticed by people but can be picked up by other plants. When another plant gets the chemicals, it starts to give out its own different chemicals. Some of these chemicals drive insects away. Others attract the wasps (黄蜂)! The wasps kill the insects that are eating the plants. That’s why the first plant is usually found hurt while the neighbours stay well. Scientists hope to learn more about this plant warning system (系统) so that we can use it to grow more crops. More surprisingly, plants also use sound to communicate. People can’t hear these sounds, but plants are making them. Some plants make noises with their roots. Corn and chili plants do this. Some trees make clicking noises when there is not enough water. Most surprisingly of all, plants have an amazing system of communication that can connect nearly every plant in a forest. Scientists call this system the “wood wide web”. The wood wide web is connected underground by fungi (真菌). It connects the roots of different plants to each other. It is in some ways similar to the Internet we use. Scientists are learning more every day about the secret ways in which plants talk to each other. Maybe one day we will know enough about plant communication to be able to talk with them ourselves. 12. What will plants do when they are being attacked by insects? A. They will kill the insects by themselves. B. They will control the wasps to kill the insects. C. They will let people know what’s happening. D. They will produce chemicals to drive the insects away. 13. How does the writer’s “surprise” about the plant communication develop? A. B. C. D. 14. In which part of the newspaper can we see this passage? A. Culture. B. Sports. C. Nature. D. Health. 15. Which is the right structure of the passage? (①=Para.1 ②=Para.2 ③=Para.3 ④=Para.4 ⑤=Para.5 ) A. ①/②③④/⑤ B. ①/②/③④⑤ C. ①②③/④/⑤ D. ①②/③④/⑤ 第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。 Sometimes our friends can do things that make us upset, and we might want to talk to them about it. ___16___ Here are some tips. Have good evidence (证据). The evidence should be something that you both agree on. Once you have evidence, you can explain how it affects you. ___17___ For example, saying “I feel hurt that you spend less time with me.” is less accusatory (谴责的) than “You never spend time with me!” Stay calm during the talk. If you get angry, it might lead to a fight. You can tell your friend that this talk makes you feel a little nervous. ___18___ Let go of being right. It’s important to listen to your friend’s opinion. Don’t just focus on proving yourself right. You can try to understand how he or she feels. Listen and plan. ___19___ Many experts suggest planning what you want to say, so you can say it in a way that doesn’t create trouble. But don’t plan so much that you can’t be flexible (可变的) in the talk. ___20___ Remember that difficult problems can’t be solved in just one talk. Think about what is possible to achieve in one discussion. This will help you set realistic goals for what you can achieve. A. Be realistic (实事求是的). B. But how can we make these talks easier? C. Describe problems with “I”. D. In this way, your friend will understand you better. E. Ask others for help when it is necessary. F. You can lower the chances of arguing by listening carefully to your friend. 第三部分 语言知识运用(一)(共两节,满分25分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) A: Hi, Li Hui. ____21____ B: Yes. I took a trip to Mount Huangshan. A: ____22____ How was the trip? B: Fantastic! But climbing Mount Huangshan is different from climbing Mount Huashan. A: Really? ____23____ B: Well, Mount Huashan is very steep (陡峭的), and the path to the top is almost straight up, but that makes the climb so exciting! A: ____24____ B: Mount Huangshan is easier to climb, so we can have more time to enjoy the beautiful scenery. A: Which mountain is better? B: ____25____ Both mountains are amazing in their own way. A: Exactly. They are both so famous! A. Lucky you! B. That’s hard to say! C How are they different? D. How about climbing Mount Huangshan? E. Did you do anything interesting during the holiday? 第二节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 All the colours thought that they were the best and most beautiful. One day they started to ___26___. Green said, “ ___27___ I am the most important. I am the sign of life and hope. I’m the colour of ___28___, trees and grass. ___29___ me, all animals would die.” ___30___ interrupted (插嘴), “Don’t just think about the earth. What is the colour of the sky and the sea? Isn’t water the most ___31___ thing for life?” Yellow laughed “You are both so serious. I ___32___ laughter and happiness into the world. Every time people look at a yellow sunflower, they start to ___33___. Without me, there would be no fun.” Orange said loudly, “I am the colour of health and strength. I carry the most important vitamins (维生素). Think of carrots and oranges. ___34___ I fill the sky at sunrise or sunset, everyone is amazed at my beauty and ___35___ thinks of any of you.” Red couldn’t stand it any longer, so he shouted, “I am the colour of passion (激情) and courage (勇气). I bring fire into people’s blood.” Purple ___36___ and said proudly, “I am the colour of power. Kings have always chosen me.” Indigo (靛蓝色) spoke, “I am the colour of ___37___. Keeping silent is gold.” Their voices became louder and louder. Suddenly the rain started to pour down. The colours were so scared that they stayed close to each other. Then the rain began to say, “Stop arguing, you ___38___ colours. Don’t you know that all of you ___39___ an important part? Join hands and follow me.” They did so and together ___40___ the most beautiful rainbow. 26. A. reply B. share C. imagine D. argue 27. A. Hardly B. Clearly C. Possibly D. Luckily 28. A. leaves B. flowers C. apples D. bananas 29. A. Except B. For C. Without D. Including 30. A. Blue B. Green C. Orange D. Red 31. A. important B. beautiful C. interesting D. successful 32. A. get B. drive C. bring D. take 33. A. dream B. sleep C. chat D. smile 34. A. Until B. When C. Unless D. Though 35. A. everybody B. somebody C. anybody D. nobody 36. A. gave up B. rose up C. woke up D. grew up 37. A. laughter B. kindness C. confidence D. silence 38. A. lazy B. foolish C. careless D. shy 39. A. make B. play C. take D. offer 40. A. led B. found C. touched D. made 第四部分 语言知识运用(二)(共三节,满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 根据句意和首字母、音标提示,将相应单词的正确形式完整地填写在答题卡上(每空一词)。 41. Tony got up late this morning, so he f________ to catch the early bus. 42. It’s i________ to ask someone’s age, weight, or other personal information. 43. —I will fly to France for vacation next week. —Don’t forget to bring your p________ and have a good time 44. We should know that our parents always stand by us wherever and w________ we meet problems. 45. Bamboo shoots are delicious, and we like to eat them ________ /’æktʃʊəli/. 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 In a small town by the sea, there lived two friends, Sarah and Emily. They had lots of ___46___ (similarity) and they always played together, laughed together, and shared their dreams. One summer, they played on the beach and ___47___ (find) a shiny seashell (贝壳). They both loved it and agreed to share it, each keeping it for six months at a time. Years passed, and their lives changed. Sarah moved to a big city for her job, while Emily stayed in ___48___ hometown to develop her interest in art. One day, Sarah got some bad news. She might lose her job, and it’s ___49___ (challenge) for her to find a new job in the city. The seashell reminded Sarah ___50___ Emily, so Sarah called her. Immediately Emily arrived with the seashell. Emily encouraged Sarah ___51___(follow) her dreams. Sarah felt stronger and ___52___ (hopeful). With Emily’s support, Sarah started her business by ___53___ (she). One of Emily’s most beautiful artworks, The Seashell, was hung in her new office, showing their strong friendship. Sarah believes she ___54___ (succeed) if she sticks to her dream and friendship. The seashell is no longer just something they share but a symbol of their unbreakable friendship. ___55___ the saying goes, “A true friend reaches for your hand and touches your heart.” 第三节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 阅读下面短文,根据短文内容,完成表格中所缺信息。每空限填一词。 It’s the day before an exam, and you haven’t studied for it. As a result, you spend hours reading your textbook and going over your notes at night. This learning way is called “cramming (临时抱佛脚)”—trying to learn everything at the last minute. Dr. Robert Bjork, a psychologist (心理学家), explains that cramming works only for short-term memory. “You remember just enough for an easy exam,” he says, “and you quickly forget most of what you ‘learned’ that night.” This is especially bad for subjects like maths or languages. If you forget the basic knowledge, it will be much harder to understand new lessons later. What are the better learning ways? A study shows that two ways—spaced-out learning (间隔学习) and interleaving (交叉学习)—are much more helpful than cramming. Spaced-out learning means studying the same thing several times with breaks. For example, instead of studying history for three hours the night before a test, you can study for one hour on Monday, Wednesday and Friday. This improves long-term memory. A study found that 90% of students remembered more by spaced-out learning than cramming. Interleaving is also a smart learning way. This means trying to learn different things every time you study. For example, you can spend 30 minutes on maths, practise English for 20 minutes, and then write a short article. After that, go back to maths. Then you can remember the information better and for a longer time. Next time you have an exam, start studying early, space out study time, and mix up subjects. Remember: studying wisely is better than studying hard at the last minute. learning ___56___ Definitions Advantages Disadvantages Comments Cramming Try to learn at the last minute. It’s OK to prepare for an easy exam. Students can only get short-term memory and have ___57___ learning new lessons. It’s ___58___ to study wisely than to study hard at the last minute. Spaced-out learning Study, wait and study again. Students can remember more information by taking ___59___. Interleaving Mix up ___60___ things together. Students can have a long-term memory for the information. 第五部分 写作(满分25分) 书面表达(满分25分) 61. 愉快的寒假即将开始,这是一个放松身心,学习新知,陪伴家人,体验生活的好时机!你想要如何利用这段宝贵的时光呢?假如你是李华,请你根据以下思维导图提示写一篇短文,在英语课上分享你的假期计划。 Life skills (Housework): 1. ... 2. ... 3. ... Relaxation: 1. ... 2. ... Self-improvement: 1. ... 2. ... 3. ... Winter vacation Relationship: parents and friends 要求:1. 要点齐全,可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯; 2. 文中不能出现真实的学校名和姓名; 3. 词数:100词左右(开头已给出,不计入总词数)。 As the term ends, the happy winter vacation is coming. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 八年级上期末监测英语试卷2026.01 第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面五段短对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does Mike want to be when he grows up? A. An artist. B. A teacher. C. A doctor. 2. Where did Jenny go on vacation? A. To the mountains. B. To the beach. C. To the park. 3. When will the man go to a movie? A. Tomorrow afternoon. B. Tomorrow morning. C. Tomorrow night. 4. How will the woman go to Landon? A. By train. B. By plane. C. By boat. 5. Why does the woman think Steve should get the job? A. Because he’s more hard-working. B. Because he is smarter. C. Because he is more shy. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面五段长对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟,听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段对话,回答第6至7小题。 6. What is Mike’s first resolution about? A. Physical health. B. Self-improvement. C. Personal skills. 7. What’s probably the relationship(关系)between the two speakers? A. Classmates. B. Mother and son. C. Teacher and student. 听第7段对话,回答第8至10小题。 8. What is the main topic of Jenny’s homework? A. Her school life. B. Her family members. C. The meaning of home. 9. What personal story did Jenny write about? A. Her family dinner. B. The change of her room. C. Her hard times. 10. What advice does Mr Smith give to Jenny? A. Write about her school life. B. Talk about home changes as she grows older. C. Describe her favourite housework. 听第8段对话,回答第11至13小题。 11. What is Doubao AI? A. A talking robot. B. An app. C. A new video game. 12. What can Doubao AI do? A. Answering questions. B. Cooking meals. C. Doing housework. 13. What does the boy think of Doubao AI? A. It’s perfect. B. It’s terrible. C. It has good and bad sides. 听第9段对话,回答第14至16小题。 14. Who taught the boy to cook fish? A. His grandpa. B. His grandma. C. His mother. 15. How many steps does the boy mention about cooking fish? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. 16. What do we know about the girl? A. She wants to cook fish for her father. B. She likes cooking very much. C. She doesn’t like onions. 听下面一段独白,回答第17至20小题。 17. What will Jack’s clothes be like in 20 years? A. Colourful and warm. B. Dark and cool. C. Comfortable and cool. 18. Where will Jack spend his vacation? A. In the mountains. B. In space or under the sea. C. In the city. 19. Why will Jack make friends with people around the world? A. To play sports with them. B. To learn cultures from them. C. To watch TV with them. 20. What does Jack mainly tell us about in 20 years? A. Travel. B. Food. C. Life. 第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. D 3. C B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. A 5. B 6. D 7. B C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. B 9. D 10. C 11. C D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. D 13. C 14. C 15. A 第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. C 18. D 19. F 20. A 第三部分 语言知识运用(一)(共两节,满分25分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 【21~25题答案】 【答案】21. E 22. A 23. C 24. D 25. B 第二节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【26~40题答案】 【答案】26. D 27. B 28. A 29. C 30. A 31. A 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. D 36. B 37. D 38. B 39. B 40. D 第四部分 语言知识运用(二)(共三节,满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 根据句意和首字母、音标提示,将相应单词的正确形式完整地填写在答题卡上(每空一词)。 【41题答案】 【答案】failed##ailed 【42题答案】 【答案】impolite##mpolite 【43题答案】 【答案】passport##assport 【44题答案】 【答案】whenever##henever 【45题答案】 【答案】actually 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分) 【46~55题答案】 【答案】46. similarities 47. found 48. their 49. challenging 50. of 51. to follow 52. more hopeful 53. herself 54. will succeed 55. As 第三节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分) 【56~60题答案】 【答案】56. ways 57. difficulty##trouble 58. better 59. breaks 60. different 第五部分 写作(满分25分) 书面表达(满分25分) 【61题答案】 【答案】例文 As the term ends, the happy winter vacation is coming. I have made a good plan for it. First, I will learn some life skills by doing housework. I will cook simple meals, clean my room, and wash my clothes. Second, I plan to relax by reading interesting books and watching some movies with my family. Third, for self-improvement, I will practice English every day, learn a new song on the guitar, and exercise three times a week. Also, I want to spend more quality time with my parents and friends. I will help my parents more and chat with my friends online. I believe this plan will make my vacation both fun and meaningful. 第1页/共1页 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $

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四川省眉山市2025-2026学年八年级上学期1月期末英语试题
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四川省眉山市2025-2026学年八年级上学期1月期末英语试题
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四川省眉山市2025-2026学年八年级上学期1月期末英语试题
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