河北冀州中学2025-2026学年高三上学期10月月考英语试题

2025-2026学年上学期月二考试 高三年级英语试题 时间：120分钟 总分：150分 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 注意，听力部分答题时请先将答案标在试卷上，听力部分结束前你将有两分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What club will Jack join? A. The reading club. B. The singing club. C. The basketball club. 2. What does the man advise? A. Changing a partner. B. Staying in the situation. C. Reporting to the manager. 3. What is the purpose of Anna’s call? A. To seek assistance. B. To extend an invitation. C. To make recommendations. 4. Why does the man apologize? A. For the overcharge. B. For the wrong dish. C. For the terrible food. 5. What are the speakers doing? A. Doing shopping. B. Doing laundries. C. Hanging curtains. 第二节(共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Who had an accident? A. Thompson. B. Johnson. C. David. 7. What does David want Mrs.Thompson to do? A. Offer tips on an essay. B. Recommend a doctor. C. Investigate an accident. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What might Grandpa be doing now? A. Fishing by the river. B. Hiking in the mountain. C. Driving on the highway. 9. Where does the conversation most likely take place? A. In the park. B. In Jim’s house. C. In a grocery store. 听第8段材料，回答第10至13题。 10. What are the speakers talking about? A. A musical film. B. A dance performance. C. A stage play. 11. What does the woman like best about this work? A. Its music. B. Its plot. C. Its actors. 12. What do they think of Katherine Lamb? A. She overacts. B. She’s wooden. C. She’s amusing. 13. When does the man plan to enjoy it? A. From 8:30 a.m. to 10:30 a.m. B. From 2:00 p.m. to 4 p.m. C. From 4:40 p.m. to 6:40 p.m. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Fellow workers. B. Old classmates. C. Husband and wife. 15. What led to Jeff moving to New York? A. His marriage. B. His promotion. C. His job change. 16. What was Jeff’s first job after graduation? A. Directing. B. Writing. C. Teaching. 17. What does a dialogue editor do? A. Acting different scenes. B. Working with spoken words. C. Creating lines for films 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What are Catherine Heathrow? A. A travel writer. B. A radio host. C. A tour guide. 19. What can people do in the first place? A. Admire architectural wonders. B. Visit the Potatso National Park. C. Hang about at the night market. 20. What is the third place like? A. It suits nature lovers. B. It’s a city that never sleeps. C. It mixes tradition and modernity. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Summer may well be the favourite season of classical music lovers, with numerous festivals spanning all genres and composers taking place worldwide. And what’ş better than enjoying a live performance of your favourite piece? Enjoying it in the great outdoors, of course! Verbier Festival, Switzerland Nestled in the breathtaking Swiss Alps at 1500 metres altitude is a picturesque little village called Verbier. Its magical two-week celebration festival has become known for attracting the biggest soloists in the world, and this year, marking its 30th anniversary, is no exception with its all-star cast : Chinese pianist Yuja Wang, the young superstar cellist Sheku-Kanneh Mason and many others. July 14-July 30, verbierfestival. com Granada International Festival, Spain Since 1952, the International Festival of Music and Dance of Granada has taken up residence in Alhambra Palace and its gardens during the months of June and July, to showcase classical music, opera ballet, Spanish dance and flamenco. The outdoor Generalife Theatre presents the visual spectaculars of the Spanish National Ballet, Hamburg Ballet and Spain’s National Dance Company. Legendary singer-songwriter Bob Dylan will also draw crowds to the breathtaking. Generalife. June 21-July 19, grandafestival. org Edinburgh International Festival, Scotland With the Edinburgh International Festival around every corner, there’s a wonderful atmosphere on the historic streets of Edinburgh in August. Historic squares become circles as people gather to watch miraculous performers. This year, it welcomes violinist Nicola Benedetti as festival director with a fresh programme that invites international guests including the Alvin Ailey from American Dance Theatre, and South Korea’s KBS Symphony Orchestra in their first ever UK performance. August 4-August 27, eif.co.uk Grand Tet on Music Festival, USA Located at the base of the Tet on mountain range in Wyoming and within easy reach of Yellowstone National Park, the Grand Teton Music Festival offers unrivalled access to the natural world as well as eight weeks of music. The programme will open with a cycle of Beethoven piano concertos with local pianist Garrick Ohlsson and close with concert performances of Puccini’s La boheme. July 3-August 27, gtmf. org 1. Which festival is suitable for ballet enthusiasts? A. Verbier Festival. B. Grand Teton Music Festival. C. Granada International Festival. D. Edinburgh International Festival. 2. What do these four festivals have in common? A. They are all held in mountains. B. They are all over three weeks long. C. They all offer outdoor venues to enjoy music. D. They all invite famous musicians from home and abroad. 3. Where is the text most probably taken from? A. A music magazine. B. A travel brochure. C. A commercial advertisement. D. An art guidebook. B My wife and I enjoy a well-built home with a large yard. Our electricity comes from a pole in the street, our water from the city water company, and our natural gas from the natural gas supply company. We live in South Texas, the energy center of the world, so what’s there to worry about? That’s what a lot of people thought until a devastating winter storm hit Texas. Many people were left without water, power or gas. Temperatures inside even the best-built homes were dangerously low. Luckily, our electricity and gas stayed on. Even if they hadn’t, we were prepared for the worst. If we had lost our power and gas, we might have been uncomfortable, but we would have made it through thanks to our active preparation and my self-sufficient(自给自足的)skill set. My knowledge of getting through that type of situation comes from a lifetime of surviving in difficult environments. I grew up on a farm in Arkansas, where my family was almost totally self-sufficient. Later in life, I lived for three years in Fairbanks, Alaska, where living off the grid(电网)was a normal lifestyle and basic survival skills were a practiced necessity. So, although my wife and I are currently on the grid, I’m familiar with what it takes to live a comfortable lifestyle when the power is cut off. Perhaps the most important thing you can do to ensure your success living off the grid is to develop an energy-conscious(节能意识的)habit. Living off the grid doesn’t have to be a simple lifestyle like the kind I lived on the farm, but some of the same rules hold true, such as putting an end to using a clothes dryer and planning your wash days around the weather. 4. What does the underlined word “devastating” in paragraph 2 mean? A. Demanding. B. Disastrous. C. Delightful. D. Developing. 5. What would the writer do if he lost electricity and gas after the storm? A. Ask the government for help. B. Make active preparations. C. Improve self-sufficient skills. D. Lead a relatively normal life. 6. How did the writer know about living through bad situations? A. By growing up on a farm. B. By studying from the books. C. By suffering natural disasters. D. By learning from his experience. 7. What is the best way to live off the grid? A. To pay attention to saving energy. B. To live a simple life. C. To wash clothes on a rainy day. D. To buy a high- quality clothes dryer. C In a world of music streaming services, access to almost any song is just a few clicks away. Yet, the live performance lives on. People still fill sweaty basements, muddy fields and gilded concert halls to hear their favourite musicians play. And now neuroscientists might know why—live music engages the brain’s emotion centres more than its recorded counterpart. Concerts are immersive (沉浸式的) social experiences in which people listen to and feel the music together through crescendos, key changes and rhythmic drops. Moreover, they are dynamic — artists can adapt their playing according to the crowd’s reaction. It was this last difference that led neuroscientists, based at the Universities of Zurich and Oslo, to study the brain responses of people listening to music. In the “live” experiment, participants lay in an MRI scanner listening to the music through earphones, while a pianist was positioned outside the room. The pianist was shown the participant’s real-time brain activity as a form of feedback. In the recorded condition, participants listened to pre-recorded versions of the same tunes. The scientists were interested in how live music affected the areas of the brain responsible for processing emotions, particularly the amygdala, an area deep inside the brain. The results, just published in the journal PNAS, revealed that live music had a significantly greater emotional impact. Whether the music conveyed happiness or sadness, dynamic live performances led to increased activity not only in the amygdala but also other parts of the brain’s emotion processing network. The researchers also found that participants’ brain activity tracked the acoustic (声学的) features of the music, like tempo and pitch, far more closely when it was played live. While the study didn’t fully recreate the live concert experience, the findings suggest that artists’ ability to adjust their performance in real time contributes to the emotional resonance (共鸣) of live music. Some musical acts now attempt to recreate live concerts, such as ABBA Voyage, an immersive pre-recorded VR concert, but without artists’ capacity to read audience’s mood and respond accordingly, it will never quite match the real thing. 8. Why do people attend live shows despite music streaming services? A. Because they prefer being with friends at a concert. B. Because they enjoy the process of finding popular music. C. Because they intend to meet their favorite musicians in person. D. Because they value the emotional connection live music brings. 9. The role of the pianist play in the “live” experiment is to _______. A. observe the participants’ brain activity as feedback B. compare the effectiveness of live performances and recorded ones C. provide live accompaniment to participants inside the MRI scanner D. demonstrate their ability to read and respond to the audience’s mood 10. What did the study published in PNAS find about the impact of live music on the brain? A. Live music affected only the amygdala of the brain. B. The brain responded more intensely to acoustic features of live music. C. Live music had a reduced emotional impact compared to recorded music. D. The participants’ brain activity was especially sensitive to dynamic music. 11. What does the author suggest by mentioning ABBA Voyage in the last paragraph? A. It fails to create a perfect performing atmosphere. B. It matches the sound quality of live performances. C. It greatly stirs up the audience’s emotional response. D. It lacks artists’ response based on audience’s feedback. D Four-legged robots like Boston Dynamics’ Spot and Cheetah owe almost all their quickness to fancy footwork. In biology, however, a four-legged animal’s movement, flexibility, and complex motor functions come almost entirely from its spine (脊柱). If artificial spines could be put into such designs, engineers could find entirely new approaches to accurate mobility. Now, engineers are reportedly a few steps further towards spine-centric, four-legged bots thanks to a research team’s rat-inspired robot. NeRmo is a biomimetic and four-legged robot that depends on an innovative motor-tendon (运动肌腱的) structure to move around environments. As far as looks go, NeRmo mirrors a mouse’s bone system. The robot’s solid front half houses its electronics systems, while its latter half functions much as an actual flexible spine would. Artificial tendons passing through the spine as well as the robot’s arm and knee joints allow NeRmo even more mouselike movements alongside quicker turning times. NeRmo’s tendon system prevented the need for any muscle while still allowing for smooth bending capabilities, i. e. side-to-side, and up-and-down. To test their new design, the team ran NeRmo through a series of four experiments to demonstrate balancing, straight-line walking, quick turning, and maze navigation. Each trial included two rounds — one with the spinal system engaged, and the other with it disabled. Across the board, NeRmo performed the tasks better, faster, and more accurately when it combined the spine with its movements. Maze navigation, however, was NeRmo’s true shining moment. With its spine engaged, the mouse-bot completed its maze runs much faster than simply wandering through without spinal support. Although still in its early stages, researchers believe further design involving the spinal systems in future four-legged robots could vastly improve their functionality. If NeRmo wasn’t proof enough, think of it this way — MIT’s Cheetah can run 13 feet per second with just one joint copying the bending of the spine forward and backward. NeRmo, meanwhile, has eight joints. 12. What is the limitation of Boston Dynamics’ Spot and Cheetah? A. Having an unattractive appearance. B. Referring to few biological bases. C. Having a strict range of applications. D. Lacking spine-based moving accuracy. 13. Which of the following makes NeRmo move more like mice? A. The tendon system. B. The bone system. C. The muscle system. D. The knee joint. 14. What did the four testing experiments find? A. NeRmo had a great sense of direction. B. The spinal system bettered NeRmo’s movement. C. NeRmo without an artificial spine lost control easily. D. Artificial spines gave hope to disabled animals. 15. What can be inferred from the last paragraph? A. Putting NeRmo into use has difficulties in practice. B. Reducing the number of joints in robots is necessary. C. Applying spinal systems to robots has a promising outlook. D. Creating more four-legged robots is a matter of time. 第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Want to encourage more of your students to continue their history studies to GCSE? We’ve highlighted five great reasons to study history — all five are transferable skills that future employers will value highly. It will make them more critical thinkers. One of the greatest gifts that history gives students is critical thinking. Those on either side often view historical events differently, and students will learn this. And they will learn that even historians looking back on events in the past will have their own biases (偏见). ____16____ This skill is significant for life and will provide great value to employers and students themselves. It will help them to understand the world around them. They’ll understand the impact of history on society, develop a greater appreciation of other cultures and develop perspective. ____17____ This helps them become open-minded global citizens who value diversity and inclusivity, which is increasingly important to employers. It will make them better communicators. Students studying history must reflect on the way language is used. They must also look for bias in language used to present historical events. ____18____. They will have a deep understanding of how and why different opinions and perspectives exist. ____19____. History will help your students to develop their data handling and processing skills. They’ll be able to analyze the data in front of them to reach an evidence-based conclusion. It will make them better at time management. Students will have lots of opportunities to improve their time management skills through research, coursework, and essay questions in exams. There’s no doubt that history requires a lot of work. ____20____. These skills are important in all aspects of life. A. But managing their workload now will help develop time management skills for adulthood. B. It will make them better at processing data. C. It will make them avoid making the same mistakes again. D. These detailed language studies sharpen students’ skills for precise communication. E. Therefore, it’s important to find different viewpoints and form their own opinions. F. Then this poster is for you. G. Finally, they’ll have a better understanding of why the world is as it is right now. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分55分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Mid-Autumn Festival, a typical agricultural harvest and get-together festival, falls on lunar August 15. I disliked it not because it’s _____21_____ commercialized but because I’m an orphan (孤儿). However, a(n) ____22____ in my college changed my view. Last year, finding I had little in common with my classmates, I felt ____23____. With Mid-Autumn Festival ____24____, my class decided to hold a Middle-Autumn Festival Eve Party. After all, this was a(n) _____25_____ occasion for them. On that day, we dressed up in beautiful custume, setting off to the _____26_____ together. To be frank, seeing the classroom _____27_____ with fancy lanterns, everyone seemed happy except me. After having moon-cakes, puddings and roast turkey, many activities ranging from singing to guessing riddles, went off. Everyone _____28_____ and clapped when the performers performed wonderfully. Later, in spite of my unwillingness, I was still invited to ____29____ my group to join in the wrestling match. Unbelievably, I won. Given ______30______, I was absolutely pleased. I was grateful to the organizers, taking advantage of this chance to express my _____31_____ to them. From then on, I began to make friends with others. As time ______32______, I had more faith in myself. In brief, I ______33______ Mid-Autumn Festival now. I always _____34_____ on joyful moments and merry atmosphere of that night, holding the belief that life’s _______35_______. 21. A. originally B. immediately C. previously D. horribly 22. A. experience B. atmosphere C. belief D. joy 23. A. romantic B. lonely C. capable D. selfish 24. A. disappearing B. harvesting C. passing D. approaching 25. A. significant B. inner C. medium D. autonomous 26. A. church B. wedding C. classroom D. branch 27. A. awarded B. decorated C. removed D. observed 28. A. rolled B. battled C. surfed D. cheered 29. A. represent B. greet C. figure D. prove 30. A. features B. envelopes C. regions D. congratulations 31. A. talent B. impact C. respect D. philosophy 32. A. settled down B. marched on C. broke away D. gave up 33. A. charge B. cure C. enjoy D. defend 34. A. click B. reflect C. press D. depend 35. A. beautiful B. effective C. generous D. legal 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.0分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 During the National Day and Mid-Autumn Festival holidays, many tourists in Fuzhou are choosing ___36___ unique cultural experience by dressing in traditional Chinese costumes and embarking on night cruises along the Minjiang River, ___37___ (refer) to as Fujian’s “Mother River”. These cruises (巡航) offer stunning views of the full moon and the illuminated riverbanks. The cruise ships ___38___ (design) with local cultural elements, ___39___ (feature) architectural styles reminiscent of Fuzhou’s renowned Three Lanes and Seven Alleys, as well as ___40___ (decorate) like oil-paper umbrellas and jasmine flowers. During the 50-minute round trip, that costs 128 yuan ($18) for the diesel boat and 158 yuan for the electric boat, passengers can engage in activities such as reading ancient poetry and practicing calligraphy, with dedicated areas ___41___ (equip) with brushes and ink. In recent years, the growing interest among young Chinese in traditional culture ___42___ (urge) tourism operators to develop various culturally themed products. Romantic Chinese-style night tours have become a trend during the Mid-Autumn Festival and National Day holidays. Ye Minhui, deputy marketing manager of Fujian Bafang Maritime Passenger Transport Co, said that more young people are becoming interested in the cultural heritage of their country, ___43___ (part) due to China’s increasing development and strength. The cultural tourism industry is continuously exploring and integrating unique Chinese cultural elements, ___44___ includes intangible cultural heritage projects, into tourism experiences, making once-distant traditions accessible ____45____ the public, she said. 第四部分 写作(满分40分) 第一节：应用文(满分15分) 46. 假定你是李华，上周五观看了一场校英文歌曲大赛。请给你的英国好友Alan写封邮件分享这一听觉盛宴，内容包括： 1.比赛情况简介； 2.你印象最深的一首歌曲。 注意：1.写作词数应为80个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Alan, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 第二节 读后续写(满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Dee, my best friend, and I were both nominated (提名) for the National Junior Honor Society. For every student in our school, becoming a member was the biggest dream. Now, we were only one step away. That weekend, Dee and I sat together in the library, filling out the application forms. We both worked hard to prove we possessed all the required qualities: scholarship, leadership, service, and character. I wrote about the effort I put into my honors math and science classes. He listed his experience of baking cookies to raise money for the community. We poured our hearts into those applications, convinced that we would pass this test — together. The next day, we submitted the paperwork to the advisor and tried to put it out of our minds. Months later, a letter arrived. I tore it open, only to feel a sharp stab (刺痛) of disappointment. They had not chosen me. At that very moment, I saw Dee rushing toward me from a distance, his face lit up with a bright smile, a letter in his hand. I knew immediately that his news was the opposite of mine. Without a second thought, I turned away. I knew he wanted to share his joy and had probably even planned for us to celebrate together. But I just couldn’t face him. That afternoon, I stepped off the school bus without even a glance or a goodbye to Dee. I hurried home, handed the letter to my mom, and finally let the tears roll down my cheeks. How could the world be so unfair? I was completely blinded by my own anger and disappointment. 注意： 1.续写词数应为150左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 From that day on, I didn’t talk to Dee. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Mom talked with me a week later, pointing out Dee wasn’t the one to blame. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025-2026学年上学期月二考试 高三年级英语试题 时间：120分钟 总分：150分 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 注意，听力部分答题时请先将答案标在试卷上，听力部分结束前你将有两分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What club will Jack join? A. The reading club. B. The singing club. C. The basketball club. 2. What does the man advise? A. Changing a partner. B. Staying in the situation. C. Reporting to the manager. 3. What is the purpose of Anna’s call? A. To seek assistance. B. To extend an invitation. C. To make recommendations. 4. Why does the man apologize? A. For the overcharge. B. For the wrong dish. C. For the terrible food. 5. What are the speakers doing? A. Doing shopping. B. Doing laundries. C. Hanging curtains. 第二节(共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Who had an accident? A. Thompson. B. Johnson. C. David. 7. What does David want Mrs.Thompson to do? A. Offer tips on an essay. B. Recommend a doctor. C. Investigate an accident. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What might Grandpa be doing now? A. Fishing by the river. B. Hiking in the mountain. C. Driving on the highway. 9. Where does the conversation most likely take place? A. In the park. B. In Jim’s house. C. In a grocery store. 听第8段材料，回答第10至13题。 10. What are the speakers talking about? A. A musical film. B. A dance performance. C. A stage play. 11. What does the woman like best about this work? A. Its music. B. Its plot. C. Its actors. 12. What do they think of Katherine Lamb? A. She overacts. B. She’s wooden. C. She’s amusing. 13. When does the man plan to enjoy it? A. From 8:30 a.m. to 10:30 a.m. B. From 2:00 p.m. to 4 p.m. C. From 4:40 p.m. to 6:40 p.m. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Fellow workers. B. Old classmates. C. Husband and wife. 15. What led to Jeff moving to New York? A. His marriage. B. His promotion. C. His job change. 16. What was Jeff’s first job after graduation? A. Directing. B. Writing. C. Teaching. 17. What does a dialogue editor do? A. Acting different scenes. B. Working with spoken words. C. Creating lines for films 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What are Catherine Heathrow? A. A travel writer. B. A radio host. C. A tour guide. 19. What can people do in the first place? A. Admire architectural wonders. B. Visit the Potatso National Park. C. Hang about at the night market. 20. What is the third place like? A. It suits nature lovers. B. It’s a city that never sleeps. C. It mixes tradition and modernity. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. C 3. A B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. B 5. D 6. D 7. A C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. C 10. B 11. D D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. D 13. A 14. B 15. C 第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. E 17. G 18. D 19. B 20. A 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分55分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. A 30. D 31. C 32. B 33. C 34. B 35. A 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.0分，满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. a 37. referred 38. are designed 39. featuring 40. decorations 41. equipped 42. has urged 43. partly 44. which 45. to 第四部分 写作(满分40分) 第一节：应用文(满分15分) 【46题答案】 【答案】Dear Alan, I’m writing to tell you an exciting event I attended last Friday — the annual English Singing Competition held at our school. About 20 contestants from different grades participated, each showcasing their unique voices. The crowd cheered wildly, and the judges provided encouraging feedback, highlighting both vocal skills and emotional expression. What impressed me most was Lily’s performance of You Raise Me Up, a well-known English song. Her soft yet powerful voice with emotions filled the competition hall and reminded me of my parents’ love for me. How I wish you’d been there! Let me know about your school events! Yours, Li Hua 第二节 读后续写(满分25分) 【47题答案】 【答案】 From that day on, I didn’t talk to Dee. Every time I thought of Dee or saw Dee, the stab of sadness caused by refusal returned, making me feel bitter and angry. I noticed Dee tried to do something to mend it. One day, he even left me a note. But I looked at him coldly, tearing it into pieces. I yelled rudely. “Don’t show off” Dee attempted to explain but I stopped him by saying “Leave me alone.” He left, obviously annoyed and upset. We became stranger, even worse than that, enemies. What I did might have made Dee think he had robbed me of that precious chance. Mom talked with me a week later, pointing out Dee wasn’t the one to blame. “You should have congratulated your friend on this instead of feeling pitiful for yourself,” she said seriously. At that instant, I suddenly realized I treated Dee unfairly. In fact, Dee made all the efforts to stick with me. It was I who hurt him. Seized by guilt, I apologized to Dee, for my selfishness and rudeness. Dee hugged me, tears in eyes. I felt so grateful and lucky he should have forgiven me. And I also learnt a life lesson: Never forget to applaud your friend’s making it to the peak even though when you are still at the foot of the mountain. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $