内容正文:
2024-2025学年第二学期八年级学业质量监测
英语试题
本试卷共10页,满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分)
第一节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听录音,在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. I haven’t seen the film.
B. Lily didn’t catch the bus.
C. Bob can’t play tennis.
【答案】B
【解析】
【原文】Lily didn’t catch the bus.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. How exciting the movie is!
B. What a lovely baby!
C. How fast Amy runs!
【答案】C
【解析】
【原文】How fast Amy runs!
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Where did you meet Tina?
B. When will the class start?
C. How can we reach there?
【答案】C
【解析】
【原文】How can we reach there?
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Remember to bring keys.
B. Let’s go to the park.
C. Please pass me the salt.
【答案】B
【解析】
【原文】Let’s go to the park.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Could I borrow that book?
B. Did they have a fight?
C. Will Ken camp in the mountains?
【答案】A
【解析】
【原文】Could I borrow that book?
第二节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. What is Tom going to do this weekend? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Go to the cinema. B. Visit the museum. C. Climb the mountain.
【答案】C
【解析】
【原文】W: Hi, Tom. What are you going to do this weekend?
M: I plan to climb the mountain with my friends.
7. Where is Alex’s science book? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. In the kitchen. B. In the living room. C. In the bedroom.
【答案】B
【解析】
【原文】M: Mom, have you seen my science book. I can’t find it anywhere.
W: Oh, Alex. Check the living room. You left it on the sofa yesterday.
8. How old is Bob? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. 12. B. 13. C. 14.
【答案】A
【解析】
【原文】M: Hello, Lucy. Are you the youngest in your class?
W: No, I’m already thirteen, but Bob is a year younger than me.
9. Whose umbrella is red? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Lucy’s. B. Ann’s. C. May’s.
【答案】B
【解析】
【原文】M: Excuse me, is this your umbrella, Lucy?
W: No, maybe it’s Ann’s. Hers is red.
10. What is the relationship between the speakers? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Classmates. B. Doctor and patient. C. Teacher and student.
【答案】C
【解析】
【原文】M: Miss Smith. I’m sorry I didn’t finish my homework on time. I had a fever last night.
W: It’s OK. Take care of yourself first. Just hand it in tomorrow.
第三节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
听对话,回答以下各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
11. Where is David going this weekend?
A. To a mountain. B. To a lake. C. To a park.
12. How will David’s family get there?
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. By car.
13. Who is David borrowing the tent from?
A. His uncle. B. His neighbor. C. His friend.
14. What will the weather be like this weekend?
A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Cloudy.
15. What should David be careful about?
A. The deep areas. B. The cold water. C. The strong sunlight.
【答案】11. B 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. A
【解析】
【原文】W: Hey, David. You look excited. What’s up?
M: Hi Amy I’m planning a weekend trip to green lake with my family.
W: Cool. I went there last summer. How are you planning to get there?
M: At first my mom wanted to take the bus. But we decided to drive.
W: Yeah, driving is faster.
M: We are even borrowing a big tent from uncle Tom because we may stay overnight.
W: Stay overnight. That means you need to take more than just the food. What else are you taking?
M: Mom is getting the sleeping bags and warm clothes ready.
W: But have you checked the weather? It rained heavily last week.
M: Yes, the weather report says it will be sunny all weekend.
W: That will be perfect for swimming but you should watch out for the deep parts.
M: Thanks for the advice.
第四节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
听短文,回答以下各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
16. What problem did Emma’s grandmother always have?
A. She lost her phone. B. She had a sore back. C. She couldn’t find her glasses.
17. What did Emma invent?
A. A special sound. B. A small tool. C. Smart glasses.
18. How long did it take Emma to finish the invention?
A. For a week. B. For two weeks. C. For three weeks.
19. Why did Emma make the invention?
A. To make money. B. To win a prize. C. To help people.
20. What do we know about Emma?
A. She is creative. B. She is brave. C. She is careless.
【答案】16. C 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. A
【解析】
【原文】Hello, everyone. Let me tell you about a smart invention by a middle school student named Emma. Last month Emma noticed that her grandmother always had trouble finding her glasses. Sometimes the glasses were on the sofa. And other times they were under newspapers. As a result her grandmother often felt upset and wasted a lot of time searching for them. Emma decided to solve this problem. She came up with an idea to make smart glasses. She used a small tool and matched it to her grandma’s phone through an APP. It took Emma two weeks to finish the invention. With this invention her grandmother could press a key on the phone. And the glasses would make a sound. Now her grandmother no longer spends hours looking for her glasses. She can quickly find them whenever she needs. Making her daily life much easier. Emma’s grandmother was so happy and proud of her. When her classmates heard about it, they were amazed. Emma said, “ I just want to improve people’s lives with my invention.”
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节 阅读理解(共20个小题:每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Railway Future Design Competitions
If you love trains, railways or enjoy designing (设计) things, have a go at one of these great competitions.
The competitions aim to celebrate the 200-year anniversary (纪念日) of the first passenger trip on the Stockton and Darlington railway. This journey, in 1825, was widely seen as the birth of modern railway. If you’d like to shape the future of rail travel and begin with a chance to win some fantastic prizes, enter one of the competitions.
Design a uniform for the future
Ages 7 to 11
Design a uniform for the railway workers of the future. Make sure it has strong pockets for tools and looks smart.
Winner’s Prize
A real uniform made according to your winning design, and first class train tickets for you and your family.
Design a train for the future
Ages 12 to 17
Design a train for the future. Consider both the outside and inside of the train to make it beautiful and comfortable.
Winner’s Prize
A golden ticket to visit a real train factory! You will be able to watch how trains are made and even meet engineers.
How to join: Competition closes on 30 September 2025. Visit www.railwaytrack.com to learn more information and submit (提交) your design. Good luck!
21. Why are Railway Future Design Competitions held?
A. To encourage more passengers to travel by train.
B. To help the development of railway technology.
C. To educate people about the history of the railway.
D. To celebrate the birth of the first passenger railway.
22. When was the first passenger trip on the Stockton and Darlington railway?
A. In 1805. B. In 1825. C. In 1850. D. In 2025.
23. Who can take part in Railway Future Design Competitions?
A. Ages 7 to 17. B. Ages 6 to 11.
C. Kids aged 12 to 19. D. Only children over 10.
24. What is the prize for the winner of “Design a train for the future”?
A. A self-designed school uniform. B. Lots of money and golden tickets.
C. The chance to visit a train factory. D. First class train tickets for the family.
25. What can people do to get more information about the competition?
A. Make a call. B. Send an email. C. Text a worker. D. Visit a website.
【答案】21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D
【解析】
【导语】本文介绍了“铁路未来设计竞赛”的背景、组别设置及参与方式。
【21题详解】
细节理解题。根据“The competitions aim to celebrate the 200-year anniversary (纪念日) of the first passenger trip on the Stockton and Darlington railway.”可知,竞赛是为了纪念Stockton和Darlington铁路首次载客200周年。故选D。
【22题详解】
细节理解题。根据“This journey, in 1825, was widely seen as the birth of modern railway.”可知,首次载客时间是1825年。故选B。
【23题详解】
细节理解题。根据“Ages 7 to 11”及“Ages 12 to 17”可知,表格中列出两个竞赛组别:设计未来制服(Ages 7 to 11)和设计未来列车(Ages 12 to 17),因此覆盖的年龄范围是7-17岁。故选A。
【24题详解】
细节理解题。根据“A golden ticket to visit a real train factory!”可知,奖品是参观真实列车工厂的金票。故选C。
【25题详解】
细节理解题。根据“How to join: Competition closes on 30 September 2025. Visit www.railwaytrack.com to learn more information and submit (提交) your design.”可知,访问网站可以获得更多信息。故选D。
B
There was once a wise old man named Derek. One day his young nephew (侄子) Gary came to visit him. Gary was sad about his little progress in learning the guitar. He tried hard, but he just couldn’t improve.
Gary asked his uncle for some advice. “Follow me,” said Derek, leading Gary up to the high hills around the village. As they got higher, Derek said that he needed to go to the top of the highest hill where he had never been to. Gary couldn’t believe his ears but decided to help his uncle.
With much difficulty, Gary helped his uncle climb the hill. Sometimes he even carried the old man on his back. At the top, sweating (流汗), he put his uncle back on the ground and laughed with joy.
“When you were a little boy, sometimes you returned home with tears in your eyes,” said Derek. “The other children laughed at you. Do you remember why? ”
Gary looked around and nodded. He remembered that as a child he often played on the hills with other children. They called this hill “Mount Impossible”, because small children couldn’t reach its top. “At that time I was unable to get there,” said Gary. “The bigger kids had no problem.”
“And today,” said Derek, “you not only climbed here, but also pulled me up.”
“I’ve become bigger and stronger.”
“Instead of climbing Mount Impossible every day, you played on the smaller hills and became better at climbing. You got stronger,” said Derek. “Mount Impossible became possible for you to climb while you weren’t even thinking about it. So just work towards things one step at a time.”
26. Why was Gary sad when he visited his uncle Derek?
A. He lost his favorite guitar by accident. B. He was laughed at by his best friends.
C. He has little progress in learning math. D. He was unhappy about his guitar learning.
27. How does Gray feel when Derek decided to go to the top of the highest hill?
A. Excited. B. Surprised. C. Interested. D. Worried.
28. What did Gary do to help Derek during the climb?
A. Hold his hand all the time. B. Find an easier road for him.
C. Carry him on his back sometimes. D. Encourage him with beautiful songs.
29. Why did children call the hill “Mount Impossible”?
A. Because it was hard to get to its top. B. Because there were wild animals on it.
C. Because it was too far from the village. D. Because it was covered with thick forests.
30. What lesson did Derek want Gary to learn?
A. Only practice what you are already good at. B. Try to keep away from difficult challenges.
C. Ask for help whenever facing a big challenge. D. Achieve your life goals by working step by step.
【答案】26. D 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. D
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文,讲述了Derek通过带领侄子Gary攀登“不可能之山”的经历,向他传递了循序渐进实现目标的道理。
【26题详解】
细节理解题。根据文章第1段“Gary was sad about his little progress in learning the guitar.”可知,他因吉他学习进展不顺感到沮丧。故选D。
【27题详解】
推理判断题。根据文章第2段“Gary couldn’t believe his ears”可推断,他对叔叔的决定感到惊讶。故选B。
【28题详解】
细节理解题。根据文章第3段“Sometimes he even carried the old man on his back.”可知,Gary在攀登过程中曾背着叔叔。故选C。
【29题详解】
细节理解题根据文章第5段“They called this hill ‘Mount Impossible’, because small children couldn’t reach its top.”可知,山因难以攀登得名。故选A。
【30题详解】
推理判断题。根据文章最后一段Derek的话“So just work towards things one step at a time.”可知,他教导Gary通过循序渐进实现目标。故选D。
C
Red is more than just a colour. It is also a symbol of traditional Chinese culture. When it comes to red, we have to mention a great dynasty in our history—the Tang Dynasty.
Most women in the world have fallen in love with red makeup (妆容) since ancient times, but the women of the Tang Dynasty were the only ones who took the preference for red makeup to the extreme (极致) . Many great makeup styles (样式) appeared. After thousands of years, the beauty of women in the age of red makeup can still be seen today.
If we go beyond the times and come back to the red colour itself, we’ll find that in our traditional culture, bright red is always a necessary and important colour in wedding ceremonies (婚礼仪式) . “Wearing red”, also known as “wearing coloured silk”, as a custom (风俗) full of the meaning of good luck, is not only an important custom in the history of ancient Chinese marriage ceremonies but also a custom that the ancients would follow on many important events.
Besides, ancient people would also “wear red” on important events such as when the top scholars became the “first” on the imperial examination lists. As the poem says, “On a fine spring day, on a galloping horse, one riding high could enjoy all flowers in Chang’an in one day. ” With the great joy of “becoming famous overnight”, “wearing red” became one of the necessary parts of ceremony for them.
We’ve got so many colours on the land but the Chinese people’ s love for red is deep into the bone. Especially wherever our national flag is, there is a lighthouse of belief. If belief has a colour, it must be the Chinese red. We believe that every Chinese has a touch of proud (自豪的) Chinese red in his heart.
31. What did Tang Dynasty women do with red makeup?
A. They had less love for it. B. They seldom used it in daily life.
C. They only choose red makeup. D. They made red makeup popular.
32. How many examples are given to show the custom of wearing red?
A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.
33. What does the underlined word “galloping” mean in paragraph 4?
A. Running fast. B. Walking tiredly.
C. Sitting straight. D. Standing proudly.
34. What is the meaning of “Chinese red” today?
A. It shows people’s love for ancient makeup styles. B. It just stands for the colour of the national flag.
C. It stands for belief, pride, and cultural character. D. It is more popular for weddings than other events.
35. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. Ancient makeup styles. B. Traditional Chinese culture.
C. Wearing red—A Chinese custom. D. Red—A colour symbol of China.
【答案】31 D 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. D
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文,主要讲述了红色在中国传统文化中的象征意义及其在不同场合的应用,如唐代女性的红妆、婚礼习俗、科举高中等,并强调红色作为中国信仰和自豪的象征。
【31题详解】
细节理解题。根据文章第2段“the women of the Tang Dynasty were the only ones who took the preference for red makeup to the extreme”和第2段“Many great makeup styles appeared”可推知,唐代女性将红妆推向极致并使其流行。故选D。
【32题详解】
细节理解题。根据文章第3段“wedding ceremonies”和第4段“top scholars became the ‘first’ on the imperial examination lists”可推知,文中提到婚礼和科举高中两个例子。故选B。
【33题详解】
词句猜测题。根据文章第4段“On a fine spring day, on a galloping horse”及上下文“骑马一日看尽长安花”的意境,可推知“galloping”意为“快速奔跑”。故选A。
【34题详解】
推理判断题。根据文章最后一段“If belief has a colour, it must be the Chinese red”和“every Chinese has a touch of proud Chinese red in his heart”可推知,中国红象征信仰、自豪和文化特质。故选C。
【35题详解】
最佳标题题。全文围绕红色作为中国文化的象征展开,涵盖历史、习俗和现代意义。选项D“Red—A colour symbol of China”最全面概括主题。故选D。
D
Having trouble getting out of bed for school on Monday mornings? This year’s World Sleep Day on March 21 has brought more attention to the problem of teenagers not getting enough sleep.
Many teenagers feel sleepy during the day. Homework, after-school activities and using electronic devices (电子设备) are all reasons. Take homework as an example. Students may have to stay up late to finish it and may not sleep well as a result. According to USA Facts, 77.3 percent of high school students in the US do not get enough sleep.
Good sleep is important for everyone, and it is especially important for teenagers. They need nine to ten hours of sleep each day—more than adults, said the US National Institute of Health (NIH). This is because adolescence (青春期) is a time of deep mental, physical and social change. For students, sleep plays a key role in doing well in school. It helps improve focus, memory and thinking skills.
Sleep also helps teenagers become more creative. This relationship was first studied in the late 20th century, when scientists at Loughborough University in the UK did a test. They compared the creative performance of people who didn’t sleep well and those who sleep well. The first group did worse on the Torrance Tests of Creative Thinking. They kept making the same mistakes and were unable to come up with new ideas.
More recently, in 2023, the US Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) found that “sleep onset (开始)” is especially helpful for creativity. This special sleep stage happens when we are just starting to fall asleep. If people are guided to dream about a certain task during sleep onset, they can do that task more creatively after waking up, according to MIT News. Next time you go to bed, make sure your bedroom is quiet and dark so you can sleep well and have more creative ideas when you wake up.
36. What is the purpose of Paragraph 1?
A. To ask a question. B. To give some advice.
C. To lead in the topic. D. To tell the difference.
37. What is Paragraph 2 mainly about?
A. The study of students’ sleep hours. B. The importance of getting enough sleep.
C. Why homework causes sleep problems. D. Why teenagers feel sleepy in the daytime.
38. According to the NIH, how many hours of sleep do teenagers need each day?
A. 7-8 hours. B. 8-9 hours. C. 9-10 hours. D. 10-11 hours.
39. What did the scientists at Loughborough University find?
A. People who slept poorly could do better. B. People who slept well were more creative.
C. People who slept well made more mistakes. D. People who slept poorly had more new ideas.
40. Which is true according to the text?
A. Adults don’t need as much sleep as teenagers.
B. Electronic devices help teenagers to sleep well.
C. Sleep onset is the most important stage for creativity.
D. Students who don’t get enough sleep can’t study at all.
【答案】36. C 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. A
【解析】
【导语】本文探讨了青少年睡眠不足的问题及其成因,强调青少年需要足够的睡眠以支持青春期身心发展,并论述睡眠对学业表现、专注力、记忆力和创造力的积极影响。
【36题详解】
推理判断题。根据“Having trouble getting out of bed for school on Monday mornings?”可知,第一段开头用提问吸引读者注意,是为了引入要介绍的话题。故选C。
【37题详解】
主旨大意题。根据“Many teenagers feel sleepy during the day.”以及通读第二段可知,本段主要是解释青少年白天困倦的原因。故选D。
【38题详解】
细节理解题。根据“They need nine to ten hours of sleep each day—more than adults”可知,青少年需要9-10小时的睡眠。故选C。
【39题详解】
细节理解题。根据“They compared the creative performance of people who didn’t sleep well and those who sleep well. The first group did worse on the Torrance Tests of Creative Thinking. They kept making the same mistakes and were unable to come up with new ideas.”可知,对比睡眠好与差的人的创造力表现,发现睡眠好的人创造力更强。故选B。
【40题详解】
细节理解题根据“They need nine to ten hours of sleep each day—more than adults”可知,成人所需睡眠少于青少年。故选A。
第二节 阅读七选五(共5个小题:每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How many close friends do you have? And does the number of friends you have play a role in your life?
Researchers in Australia studied 1, 500 people over 70 and found that those with strong friendships live longer. ____41____ For example, people with close friends are more likely to exercise, eat well, and feel good about themselves.
Friendships also influence wealth (财富) . An American study of 10, 000 students, over a period of 35 years, found that if you make more friends at school, you’ll make more money in later life. People need good social skills at work to communicate with people and work in a team successfully. ____42____
Online networks make it easy to stay in touch. On average, teenagers have 500 online “friends,” while adults have 130. But according to Oxford Professor Robin Dunbar, people regularly (定期) communicate with only about 150. He suggests we typically have five very close friends, ten more we contact (联系) sometimes, 35 we share hobbies with, and 100 we don’t know well. ____43____
However, having too many online friends might be harmful (有害的). ____44____ Seeing others’ “perfect lives” can make people feel bad, and being popular online can cause social stress.
If you have a lot of online “friends”, try this: first take away all the people you can’t remember. ____45____ And finally take away friends who you wouldn’t care if you lost touch with. How many do you have left? How many of these people are good friends? According to the research, these are the only people that really matter.
A. More than this, relationships become less meaningful.
B. The more online friends we have, the happier we will be.
C. These are the same skills we use to make friends at school.
D. One key reason is that good friends encourage healthy habits.
E. Then take away those you haven’t been in touch with for a year.
F. So it’s not necessary to share everything with your close friends.
G. A study found that highly sociable users experienced more worries.
【答案】41. D 42. C 43. A 44. G 45. E
【解析】
【导语】本文讨论了朋友数量对生活的影响,包括健康、财富、在线朋友等方面。最终,文章强调真正深厚的友谊比朋友数量更重要。
【41题详解】
根据“Researchers in Australia studied 1, 500 people over 70 and found that those with strong friendships live longer. ”及“For example, people with close friends are more likely to exercise, eat well, and feel good about themselves. ”可知,空前提到有强大友谊的人活得更长,空后举例说明为什么,因此空处应该解释为什么友谊能让人活得更长。选项D“一个关键原因是好朋友鼓励健康习惯”解释了原因,符合上下文语境。故选D。
【42题详解】
根据“Friendships also influence wealth (财富).”可知,整个段落是关于友谊对财富的影响。选项C“这些是我们在学校用来交朋友的相同技能。”这里的these skills应该指前一句的good social skills,而make friends at school与前面的内容一致。故选C。
【43题详解】
空前描述了Dunbar的数字,关于不同层次的友谊。整个段落是关于在线朋友的数量和实际沟通的。选项A“超过这个数量,关系变得不那么有意义”与全文内容相匹配。故选A。
【44题详解】
根据“However, having too many online friends might be harmful”可知,此处说太多在线朋友可能有害,空后举例说明如何有害;因此空处应该具体说明有害的原因或一个研究。选项G“一项研究发现,高度社交的用户经历更多担忧”符合上文语境。故选G。
【45题详解】
根据“If you have a lot of online “friends”, try this: first take away all the people you can’t remember.”以及“And finally take away friends who you wouldn’t care if you lost touch with.”可知,空前是第一步:移除记不住的人。空后是最后一步:移除不在乎失去联系的人。因此空处应该是中间步骤。选项E“然后移除那些一年没联系的人”符合上下文语境。故选E。
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分35分)
第一节 补全对话(共5个小题:每小题1分,满分5分)
阅读下面对话,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
Tom: Hi, Lucy! I heard you went to the new science and technology fair.
Lucy: Yes. ____46____
Tom: Wow! Have you tried the 4D movie there?
Lucy: ____47____ But I tried the 3D space simulation (模拟). It felt like I was flying in space!
Tom: That sounds fantastic! I heard there are AI-drawing robots too.
Lucy: Yeah, one robot drew a picture of me in a few minutes. It looked just like me!
Tom: Really? ____48____ I’ve always expected to learn how to draw on the computer.
Lucy: You should go this weekend! They’re having a “Digital Art Workshop for Teens”.
Tom: That’s great! ____49____
Lucy: It’s free, but you need to book online before Friday.
Tom: OK. ____50____
Lucy: Sure! Let’s meet at the hall at 10 o’clock.
46.
A. I can’t stand it. B. It is cloudy.
C. I don’t think so. D. It was so cool!
47. A. Not yet. B. No problem. C. I’m sorry. D. Thank you.
48.
A. I wish I could try that. B. I hope to visit next time.
C. I like drawing by hand. D. I am going to be an artist.
49.
A. What time does it start? B. Where can I get a ticket?
C. How much is the ticket? D. How do you buy the ticket?
50.
A. Would you like to have a try? B. Can you come with me?
C. Why not draw it by yourself? D. Did you book it online?
【答案】46. D 47. A 48. A 49. C 50. B
【解析】
【导语】本文是Tom和Lucy关于科技展览会的对话,主要讨论了4D电影、3D太空模拟、AI绘画机器人以及数字艺术工作坊等内容。
【46题详解】
根据“I heard you went to the new science and technology fair. ”以及“Yes.”可知,Lucy对科技展览会的评价应该是积极的。根据“太酷了!”符合语境,表达兴奋之情。故选D。
【47题详解】
根据“Wow! Have you tried the 4D movie there? ”以及“But I tried the 3D space simulation.”可知,Lucy还未尝试4D电影,但体验了3D太空模拟。根据“还没有。”符合语境。故选A。
【48题详解】
根据“I’ve always expected to learn how to draw on the computer.”可知,Tom对AI绘画机器人很感兴趣,希望尝试。根据“我真希望能试试。”符合语境。故选A。
【49题详解】
根据“It’s free, but you need to book online before Friday.”可知,Tom询问的是工作坊的费用。根据“门票多少钱?”符合语境。故选C。
【50题详解】
根据“Sure! Let’s meet at the hall at 10 o’clock.”可知,Tom邀请Lucy同行。根据“你能和我一起去吗?”符合语境。故选B。
第二节 完形填空(共15个小题:每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
It was 8:00 am. Some students got out of my car to make a ____51____ in the park. As the driver, my job was to stay nearby so that I could ____52____ them if they need.
I could have two or three hours’ free time, so I decided to go somewhere and do some ____53____. I found a beautiful park bench (长椅). A man was sitting on one end, but there was plenty of ____54____ for more than two more bodies. Walking over, I sat on it to have a rest.
The man on the other end looked at me but didn’t move. I quickly ____55____ that he may spend the night on the bench. His clothes were dirty, his hair was ____56____, and soon I caught a bad smell of body sweat. I looked at him and ____57____, and he smiled back with a mouth of blacked-out teeth.
We both sat there for over an hour quietly. I was reading. He was watching the video making. He then stood up, walked in front of me and bowed. In a little trembling (颤抖的) but clear ____58____, he said, “Thank you!” I looked up at him ____59____.
“For what? ” I asked.
He looked at the ground, “Usually, people won’t even look at me, let alone sit by me. Thank you for treating (对待) me as a ____60____.”
Hearing his words, I just sat there silently ____61____ I really didn’t know what to say as he quickly walked away. I did ____62____ special to him. I just shared a public bench with a stranger to me.
To me, he was just someone who wanted a place to ____63____. That’s exactly what I wanted. There were no differences between him and me. I finally got to know that my actions ____64____ meant something to this poor homeless man. So, treating others in an equal (平等的) way can also make a(n) ____65____ to the world.
51. A. kite B. toy C. video D. camp
52. A. help B. cheer C. lead D. hurt
53. A. cleaning B. reading C. shopping D. washing
54. A. sign B. sand C. mess D. space
55. A. accepted B. received C. refused D. realized
56. A. untidy B. special C. bright D. popular
57. A. argued B. replied C. shouted D. smiled
58. A. noise B. mind C. voice D. sound
59. A. in fear B. in surprise C. with anger D. with joy
60. A. man B. worker C. writer D. loser
61. A. but B. so C. because D. when
62. A. something B. everything C. anything D. nothing
63. A. rest B. study C. fix D. wait
64. A. wisely B. truly C. normally D. suddenly
65. A. interest B. success C. difference D. decision
【答案】51. C 52. A 53. B 54. D 55. D 56. A 57. D 58. C 59. B 60. A 61. C 62. D 63. A 64. B 65. C
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了作者在公园里和一位落魄的男人分享一张长椅,而得到意外的感谢的故事。
【51题详解】
句意:一些学生从我的车里出来,在公园里拍摄视频。
kite风筝;toy玩具;video视频;camp露营。根据下文“He was watching the video making.”可知,是在公园拍视频。故选C。
【52题详解】
句意:作为司机,我的工作就是待在附近,这样如果他们需要的话,我可以帮助他们。
help帮助;cheer欢呼;lead带领;hurt受伤。根据“if they need”可知,如果学生们需要帮助的话,可以提供帮助。故选A。
53题详解】
句意:我可以有两三个小时的空闲时间,所以我决定去某个地方读点书。
cleaning打扫;reading阅读;shopping购物;washing洗。根据下文“I was reading”可知,作者决定看书。故选B。
【54题详解】
句意:一个男人坐在一头,但是还有很多空间容纳两个以上的人。
sign标志;sand沙子;mess脏乱;space空间。根据“for more than two more bodies”可知,but表示转折关系,表示有很多空间容纳两个以上的人。故选D。
【55题详解】
句意:我很快意识到他可能会在长椅上过夜。
accepted接受;received收到;refused拒绝;realized意识到。根据“The man on the other end looked at me but didn’t move.”和“His clothes were dirty, his hair...”可知,此处表示作者意识到他会在长椅上过夜。故选D。
【56题详解】
句意:他的衣服很脏,头发很乱,很快我就闻到了一股难闻的汗味。
untidy不整洁的;special特殊的;bright明亮的;popular流行的。根据“His clothes were dirty...and soon I caught a bad smell of body sweat.”可知,此处表示头发也很凌乱。故选A。
【57题详解】
句意:我看着他笑了笑,他也笑了笑,露出一嘴乌黑的牙齿。
argued争吵;replied回复;shouted喊叫;smiled微笑。根据“and he smiled back with a mouth of blacked-out teeth.”可知,是作者也向这个人微笑。故选D。
【58题详解】
句意:他用有点颤抖但清晰的声音说:“谢谢你!”
noise噪音;mind头脑;voice声音,人声;sound声,泛指自然界的声音。根据“In a little trembling (颤抖的) but clear...he said, ‘Thank you!’ ”可知,是颤抖的声音说。故选C。
【59题详解】
句意:我惊讶地抬头看着他。
in fear恐惧地;in surprise吃惊地;with anger愤怒地;with joy高兴地。根据“‘For what?’ I asked.”可知,作者不清楚为什么这个人跟他道谢,所以很吃惊。故选B。
【60题详解】
句意:谢谢你把我当成一个男人。
man男人;worker工人;writer作家;loser失败者。根据“Usually, people won’t even look at me, let alone sit by me.”可知,此处描述其他人没有正眼看这个男人,但是作者对他微笑,因此是说作者把他当成一个真正的人。故选A。
【61题详解】
句意:听到他的话,当他转身迅速走开时,我只是静静地坐在那里,因为我真的不知道该说什么。
but但是;so因此;because因为;when当……的时候。根据“I really didn’t know what to say”可知,作者因为不知道说什么,所以沉默地坐着,前果后因,用because引导原因状语从句。故选C。
【62题详解】
句意:我对他没做什么特别的事。
something某事;everything一切;anything任何事;nothing没有事。根据“I was shocked and moved at his words. I did...special to him.”以及上文可知,作者对这个男人的话既震惊又感动,因为他没有做什么特殊的事情。故选D。
【63题详解】
句意:对我来说,他只是一个想要休息的人。
rest休息;study学习;fix修理;wait等待。根据“he was just someone who wanted a place to...”可知,对于作者来说,这个人只是一个想在长椅上休息的人。故选A。
【64题详解】
句意:我终于知道我的行为对这个可怜的无家可归者来说确实有意义。
wisely明智地;truly真地;normally正常地;suddenly突然。根据“So, treating others in an equal (平等的) way can also make a(n)…to the world.”可知,作者终于意识到自己对那个男人给予平等的尊重,对他来说确实是有意义的,用truly来强调。故选B。
【65题详解】
句意:所以,用平等的方式对待他人也能让世界有所不同。
interest兴趣;success成功;difference不同;decision决定。make a difference“有所不同,有产生作用”。故选C。
第三节 阅读填空(共10个小题:每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
I went through an accident two years ago. While I ____66____ (travel), I fell down and broke my legs unluckily. I went from using a wheelchair to trying ____67____ (walk) a block (街区), and finally I can walk a few miles. Physical activity became even ____68____ (important) in my life. So why not make it enjoyable? I ____69____ (want) to learn to skateboard since I was a kid. In my opinion, skating was ____70____ (actual) very similar to dancing.
For a long time, I tried to learn skating ____71____ myself. Because I couldn’t control my body well, I always felt shy when many strangers saw me skating. That fear of being watched often stopped me from just getting out there for practice.
One day, my friend Monica and I met some of the members of GRLSWIRL, ____72____ skating club. They were so friendly that we wanted to be part of it. This club was amazing. Although everyone there was better than me, they were happy to help me and to see me defeat many ____73____ (challenge) in excitement. There, I became more confident day by day.
For me, a big part of skating was defeating my fear. Falling is a huge part of skating, but because of that accident, it was really hard for me to overcome (克服) it. However, the more I skated, the more balanced (平衡的) ____74____ (I) body and mind felt. Although my practice of skating was full of difficulties, I never imagined it would ____75____ (open) up a new world of wonder and possibilities for me.
【答案】66. was travelling##was traveling
67. to walk
68. more important
69. have wanted
70. actually
71. by 72. a
73. challenges
74. my 75. open
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文,主要讲述了作者在经历事故后通过滑板运动克服恐惧、重获自信的故事。
【66题详解】
句意:当我正在移动时,不幸摔倒并摔断了腿。根据上下文可知,此处描述过去某个时间正在进行的动作,需用过去进行时be+动词ing。主语是I,be动词用was;travel的现在分词为travelling或traveling。故填was travelling/was traveling。
【67题详解】
句意:我从使用轮椅到尝试步行一个街区,最后我能够走几英里。try to do为固定搭配,表示“尝试做某事”。故填to walk。
【68题详解】
句意:体育活动在我的生活中变得更加重要。根据“even”及语境,此处需用比较级表示重要性提升。故填more important。
【69题详解】
句意:我从小时候起就一直想学滑板。“since I was a kid”表明动作从过去持续到现在,用现在完成时。故填have wanted。
【70题详解】
句意:在我看来,滑板运动实际上很像跳舞。需用副词“actually”修饰形容词“similar”。故填actually。
【71题详解】
句意:很长一段时间里,我尝试自学滑板。“by myself”为固定搭配,表示“独自地”。故填by。
【72题详解】
句意:一天,我和朋友遇到了GRLSWIRL(一个滑板俱乐部)的成员。首次提到“skating club”,需用不定冠词“a”表示泛指。故填a。
【73题详解】
句意:尽管这里的每个人都比我更好,但是他们很乐意帮助我,并很兴奋地看到我克服了许多挑战。“many”后接可数名词复数形式。故填challenges。
【74题详解】
句意:然而,我滑得越多,我的身心感觉更加平衡。需用形容词性物主代词“my”修饰“body and mind”。故填my。
【75题详解】
句意:尽管我在练习滑板的过程中充满了困难,但我从未想过它会为我打开一个充满奇迹和可能性的新世界。“would”后接动词原形,构成过去将来时。故填open。
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 情境运用(共5个小题:每小题2分,满分10分)
根据所提供的图片,用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76. A: What’s the matter with Jim?
B: ________________________.
77. A: Tom. ________________________?
B: Sure, mom. I’ll do it at once.
78. A: Linda, where were you when I called you this morning?
B: At the bus stop. ________________________,
79. A: ________________________?
B: The Sahara. It’s about 9, 000, 000 square kilometers in size.
80. A: ________________________?
B: Yes, I have. I went there last summer vacation.
【答案】76. He has a stomachache
77. Could you take out the rubbish
78. I was waiting for the bus
79. What’s the largest desert in the world
80. Have you ever been to Shandong Museum
【解析】
【76题详解】
根据“What’s the matter with Jim?”以及图片可知,此处应回答“他肚子痛”。He“他”,作主语;has a stomachache“肚子痛”,动词短语,作谓语。故填He has a stomachache。
【77题详解】
根据“Sure, mom. I’ll do it at once.”以及图片可知,此处应为一般疑问句,询问Tom能否倒垃圾。Can“能”,情态动词,放在句首;you“你”,主语;take out the rubbish“倒垃圾”,作谓语,其中rubbish意为“垃圾”,不可数名词,作宾语。故填Can you take out the rubbish。
【78题详解】
根据“Linda, where were you when I called you this morning? ”以及图片可知,此处应回答“我正在等公交车”,时态为过去进行时be+动词ing。I“我”,作主语,be动词用was;wait for the bus“等公交车”,动词短语。故填I was waiting for the bus。
【79题详解】
根据“The Sahara. It’s about 9, 000, 000 square kilometers in size.”以及图片可知,此处询问“世界上最大的沙漠是什么”。What“什么”,特殊疑问句,放在句首;the largest desert“最大的沙漠”;in the world“在世界上”。故填What’s the largest desert in the world。
【80题详解】
根据“Yes, I have. I went there last summer vacation.”以及图片可知,此处询问“你是否去过山东博物馆”,用现在完成时。have been to“去过”,ever“曾经”,Shandong Museum“山东博物馆”。故填Have you ever been to Shandong Museum。
第二节 作文(满分25分)
81. 暑期将至,学校社团精心策划了一系列丰富多彩的社会实践活动,如社区公益服务、爱心捐赠活动、“跳蚤”市场、文化探访和读书分享会等(也可自拟活动)。请根据个人兴趣选择其中一至两项活动,用英语给你的笔友Lisa写一封电子邮件,向她介绍你想要参与的实践活动并阐述理由。
内容包括:
1. 简要说明活动的主要内容;
2. 阐述你的选择理由及活动意义。
注意:
1. 词数100左右。短文首句仅供选择使用,不计入总词数。
2. 可适当加入细节,使内容充实、行文连贯;
3. 不得出现真实姓名、校名等相关信息。
Dear Lisa,
How’s everything going? I’m writing to tell you about the school clubs’ summer activities.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
【答案】例文
Dear Lisa,
How’s everything going? I’m writing to tell you about the school clubs’ summer activities. I’m interested in the community service and the book sharing activity.
In the community service, we’ll visit the old people’s home, clean their rooms and perform shows. This allows me to care for others and practice communication skills. The book sharing activity lets us exchange favorite books and discuss ideas, which can broaden my horizons and cultivate reading habits.
Both activities help me grow while giving back to society. I believe they’ll make my summer meaningful.
Yours,
Li Hua
【解析】
【详解】[总体分析]
①题材:本文是一篇电子邮件;
②时态:时态为“一般现在时”和“一般将来时”;
③提示:写作要点已给出,应注意不要遗漏提示的要点,在每个要点下要适当增加细节,使表述内容更完整。
[写作步骤]
第一步,作文开头已给出,应领悟首句内容衔接好下文;
第二步,根据提示材料,选择自己喜欢的活动内容进行介绍;
第三步,总结上文,表达自己的感悟。
[亮点词汇]
①be interested in对……感兴趣
②allow sb to do sth允许某人做某事
③give back to society回馈社会
[高分句型]
①The book sharing activity lets us exchange favorite books and discuss ideas, which can broaden my horizons and cultivate reading habits. (非限制性定语从句)
②I believe they’ll make my summer meaningful. (宾语从句)
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2024-2025学年第二学期八年级学业质量监测
英语试题
本试卷共10页,满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分)
第一节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听录音,在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. I haven’t seen the film.
B. Lily didn’t catch the bus.
C. Bob can’t play tennis.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. How exciting the movie is!
B. What a lovely baby!
C. How fast Amy runs!
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Where did you meet Tina?
B. When will the class start?
C. How can we reach there?
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Remember to bring keys.
B. Let’s go to the park.
C Please pass me the salt.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Could I borrow that book?
B. Did they have a fight?
C Will Ken camp in the mountains?
第二节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. What is Tom going to do this weekend? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Go to the cinema. B. Visit the museum. C. Climb the mountain.
7. Where is Alex’s science book? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. In the kitchen. B. In the living room. C. In the bedroom.
8. How old is Bob? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. 12. B. 13. C. 14.
9. Whose umbrella is red? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Lucy’s. B. Ann’s. C. May’s.
10. What is the relationship between the speakers? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Classmates. B. Doctor and patient. C. Teacher and student.
第三节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
听对话,回答以下各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
11. Where is David going this weekend?
A. To a mountain. B. To a lake. C. To a park.
12. How will David’s family get there?
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. By car.
13. Who is David borrowing the tent from?
A. His uncle. B. His neighbor. C. His friend.
14. What will the weather be like this weekend?
A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Cloudy.
15. What should David be careful about?
A. The deep areas. B. The cold water. C. The strong sunlight.
第四节(共5个小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
听短文,回答以下各小题【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
16. What problem did Emma’s grandmother always have?
A. She lost her phone. B. She had a sore back. C. She couldn’t find her glasses.
17. What did Emma invent?
A. A special sound. B. A small tool. C. Smart glasses.
18. How long did it take Emma to finish the invention?
A. For a week. B. For two weeks. C. For three weeks.
19. Why did Emma make the invention?
A. To make money. B. To win a prize. C. To help people.
20. What do we know about Emma?
A. She is creative. B. She is brave. C. She is careless.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节 阅读理解(共20个小题:每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Railway Future Design Competitions
If you love trains, railways or enjoy designing (设计) things, have a go at one of these great competitions.
The competitions aim to celebrate the 200-year anniversary (纪念日) of the first passenger trip on the Stockton and Darlington railway. This journey, in 1825, was widely seen as the birth of modern railway. If you’d like to shape the future of rail travel and begin with a chance to win some fantastic prizes, enter one of the competitions.
Design a uniform for the future
Ages 7 to 11
Design a uniform for the railway workers of the future. Make sure it has strong pockets for tools and looks smart.
Winner’s Prize
A real uniform made according to your winning design, and first class train tickets for you and your family.
Design a train for the future
Ages 12 to 17
Design a train for the future. Consider both the outside and inside of the train to make it beautiful and comfortable.
Winner’s Prize
A golden ticket to visit a real train factory! You will be able to watch how trains are made and even meet engineers.
How to join: Competition closes on 30 September 2025. Visit www.railwaytrack.com to learn more information and submit (提交) your design. Good luck!
21. Why are Railway Future Design Competitions held?
A. To encourage more passengers to travel by train.
B. To help the development of railway technology.
C. To educate people about the history of the railway.
D. To celebrate the birth of the first passenger railway.
22. When was the first passenger trip on the Stockton and Darlington railway?
A. In 1805. B. In 1825. C. In 1850. D. In 2025.
23. Who can take part in Railway Future Design Competitions?
A. Ages 7 to 17. B. Ages 6 to 11.
C. Kids aged 12 to 19. D. Only children over 10.
24. What is the prize for the winner of “Design a train for the future”?
A. A self-designed school uniform. B. Lots of money and golden tickets.
C. The chance to visit a train factory. D. First class train tickets for the family.
25. What can people do to get more information about the competition?
A. Make a call. B. Send an email. C. Text a worker. D. Visit a website.
B
There was once a wise old man named Derek. One day his young nephew (侄子) Gary came to visit him. Gary was sad about his little progress in learning the guitar. He tried hard, but he just couldn’t improve.
Gary asked his uncle for some advice. “Follow me,” said Derek, leading Gary up to the high hills around the village. As they got higher, Derek said that he needed to go to the top of the highest hill where he had never been to. Gary couldn’t believe his ears but decided to help his uncle.
With much difficulty, Gary helped his uncle climb the hill. Sometimes he even carried the old man on his back. At the top, sweating (流汗), he put his uncle back on the ground and laughed with joy.
“When you were a little boy, sometimes you returned home with tears in your eyes,” said Derek. “The other children laughed at you. Do you remember why? ”
Gary looked around and nodded. He remembered that as a child he often played on the hills with other children. They called this hill “Mount Impossible”, because small children couldn’t reach its top. “At that time I was unable to get there,” said Gary. “The bigger kids had no problem.”
“And today,” said Derek, “you not only climbed here, but also pulled me up.”
“I’ve become bigger and stronger.”
“Instead of climbing Mount Impossible every day, you played on the smaller hills and became better at climbing. You got stronger,” said Derek. “Mount Impossible became possible for you to climb while you weren’t even thinking about it. So just work towards things one step at a time.”
26. Why was Gary sad when he visited his uncle Derek?
A. He lost his favorite guitar by accident. B. He was laughed at by his best friends.
C. He has little progress in learning math. D. He was unhappy about his guitar learning.
27. How does Gray feel when Derek decided to go to the top of the highest hill?
A. Excited. B. Surprised. C. Interested. D. Worried.
28. What did Gary do to help Derek during the climb?
A. Hold his hand all the time. B. Find an easier road for him.
C. Carry him on his back sometimes. D. Encourage him with beautiful songs.
29. Why did children call the hill “Mount Impossible”?
A. Because it was hard to get to its top. B. Because there were wild animals on it.
C. Because it was too far from the village. D. Because it was covered with thick forests.
30. What lesson did Derek want Gary to learn?
A. Only practice what you are already good at. B. Try to keep away from difficult challenges.
C. Ask for help whenever facing a big challenge. D. Achieve your life goals by working step by step.
C
Red is more than just a colour. It is also a symbol of traditional Chinese culture. When it comes to red, we have to mention a great dynasty in our history—the Tang Dynasty.
Most women in the world have fallen in love with red makeup (妆容) since ancient times, but the women of the Tang Dynasty were the only ones who took the preference for red makeup to the extreme (极致) . Many great makeup styles (样式) appeared. After thousands of years, the beauty of women in the age of red makeup can still be seen today.
If we go beyond the times and come back to the red colour itself, we’ll find that in our traditional culture, bright red is always a necessary and important colour in wedding ceremonies (婚礼仪式) . “Wearing red”, also known as “wearing coloured silk”, as a custom (风俗) full of the meaning of good luck, is not only an important custom in the history of ancient Chinese marriage ceremonies but also a custom that the ancients would follow on many important events.
Besides, ancient people would also “wear red” on important events such as when the top scholars became the “first” on the imperial examination lists. As the poem says, “On a fine spring day, on a galloping horse, one riding high could enjoy all flowers in Chang’an in one day. ” With the great joy of “becoming famous overnight”, “wearing red” became one of the necessary parts of ceremony for them.
We’ve got so many colours on the land but the Chinese people’ s love for red is deep into the bone. Especially wherever our national flag is, there is a lighthouse of belief. If belief has a colour, it must be the Chinese red. We believe that every Chinese has a touch of proud (自豪的) Chinese red in his heart.
31. What did Tang Dynasty women do with red makeup?
A. They had less love for it. B. They seldom used it in daily life.
C. They only choose red makeup. D. They made red makeup popular.
32. How many examples are given to show the custom of wearing red?
A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.
33. What does the underlined word “galloping” mean in paragraph 4?
A. Running fast. B. Walking tiredly.
C. Sitting straight. D. Standing proudly.
34. What is the meaning of “Chinese red” today?
A. It shows people’s love for ancient makeup styles. B. It just stands for the colour of the national flag.
C. It stands for belief, pride, and cultural character. D. It is more popular for weddings than other events.
35. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. Ancient makeup styles. B. Traditional Chinese culture.
C. Wearing red—A Chinese custom. D. Red—A colour symbol of China.
D
Having trouble getting out of bed for school on Monday mornings? This year’s World Sleep Day on March 21 has brought more attention to the problem of teenagers not getting enough sleep.
Many teenagers feel sleepy during the day. Homework, after-school activities and using electronic devices (电子设备) are all reasons. Take homework as an example. Students may have to stay up late to finish it and may not sleep well as a result. According to USA Facts, 77.3 percent of high school students in the US do not get enough sleep.
Good sleep is important for everyone, and it is especially important for teenagers. They need nine to ten hours of sleep each day—more than adults, said the US National Institute of Health (NIH). This is because adolescence (青春期) is a time of deep mental, physical and social change. For students, sleep plays a key role in doing well in school. It helps improve focus, memory and thinking skills.
Sleep also helps teenagers become more creative. This relationship was first studied in the late 20th century, when scientists at Loughborough University in the UK did a test. They compared the creative performance of people who didn’t sleep well and those who sleep well. The first group did worse on the Torrance Tests of Creative Thinking. They kept making the same mistakes and were unable to come up with new ideas.
More recently, in 2023, the US Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) found that “sleep onset (开始)” is especially helpful for creativity. This special sleep stage happens when we are just starting to fall asleep. If people are guided to dream about a certain task during sleep onset, they can do that task more creatively after waking up, according to MIT News. Next time you go to bed, make sure your bedroom is quiet and dark so you can sleep well and have more creative ideas when you wake up.
36. What is the purpose of Paragraph 1?
A. To ask a question. B. To give some advice.
C. To lead in the topic. D. To tell the difference.
37. What is Paragraph 2 mainly about?
A. The study of students’ sleep hours. B. The importance of getting enough sleep.
C. Why homework causes sleep problems. D. Why teenagers feel sleepy in the daytime.
38. According to the NIH, how many hours of sleep do teenagers need each day?
A. 7-8 hours. B. 8-9 hours. C. 9-10 hours. D. 10-11 hours.
39. What did the scientists at Loughborough University find?
A. People who slept poorly could do better. B. People who slept well were more creative.
C. People who slept well made more mistakes. D. People who slept poorly had more new ideas.
40. Which is true according to the text?
A. Adults don’t need as much sleep as teenagers.
B. Electronic devices help teenagers to sleep well.
C. Sleep onset is the most important stage for creativity.
D. Students who don’t get enough sleep can’t study at all.
第二节 阅读七选五(共5个小题:每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How many close friends do you have? And does the number of friends you have play a role in your life?
Researchers in Australia studied 1, 500 people over 70 and found that those with strong friendships live longer. ____41____ For example, people with close friends are more likely to exercise, eat well, and feel good about themselves.
Friendships also influence wealth (财富) . An American study of 10, 000 students, over a period of 35 years, found that if you make more friends at school, you’ll make more money in later life. People need good social skills at work to communicate with people and work in a team successfully. ____42____
Online networks make it easy to stay in touch. On average, teenagers have 500 online “friends,” while adults have 130. But according to Oxford Professor Robin Dunbar, people regularly (定期) communicate with only about 150. He suggests we typically have five very close friends, ten more we contact (联系) sometimes, 35 we share hobbies with, and 100 we don’t know well. ____43____
However, having too many online friends might be harmful (有害的). ____44____ Seeing others’ “perfect lives” can make people feel bad, and being popular online can cause social stress.
If you have a lot of online “friends”, try this: first take away all the people you can’t remember. ____45____ And finally take away friends who you wouldn’t care if you lost touch with. How many do you have left? How many of these people are good friends? According to the research, these are the only people that really matter.
A. More than this, relationships become less meaningful.
B. The more online friends we have, the happier we will be.
C. These are the same skills we use to make friends at school.
D. One key reason is that good friends encourage healthy habits.
E. Then take away those you haven’t been in touch with for a year.
F. So it’s not necessary to share everything with your close friends.
G. A study found that highly sociable users experienced more worries.
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分35分)
第一节 补全对话(共5个小题:每小题1分,满分5分)
阅读下面对话,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
Tom: Hi, Lucy! I heard you went to the new science and technology fair.
Lucy: Yes. ____46____
Tom: Wow! Have you tried the 4D movie there?
Lucy: ____47____ But I tried the 3D space simulation (模拟). It felt like I was flying in space!
Tom: That sounds fantastic! I heard there are AI-drawing robots too.
Lucy: Yeah, one robot drew a picture of me in a few minutes. It looked just like me!
Tom: Really? ____48____ I’ve always expected to learn how to draw on the computer.
Lucy: You should go this weekend! They’re having a “Digital Art Workshop for Teens”.
Tom: That’s great! ____49____
Lucy: It’s free, but you need to book online before Friday.
Tom: OK. ____50____
Lucy: Sure! Let’s meet at the hall at 10 o’clock.
46.
A. I can’t stand it. B. It is cloudy.
C. I don’t think so. D. It was so cool!
47. A. Not yet. B. No problem. C. I’m sorry. D. Thank you.
48.
A. I wish I could try that. B. I hope to visit next time.
C. I like drawing by hand. D. I am going to be an artist.
49.
A. What time does it start? B. Where can I get a ticket?
C. How much is the ticket? D. How do you buy the ticket?
50.
A. Would you like to have a try? B. Can you come with me?
C. Why not draw it by yourself? D. Did you book it online?
第二节 完形填空(共15个小题:每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
It was 8:00 am. Some students got out of my car to make a ____51____ in the park. As the driver, my job was to stay nearby so that I could ____52____ them if they need.
I could have two or three hours’ free time, so I decided to go somewhere and do some ____53____. I found a beautiful park bench (长椅). A man was sitting on one end, but there was plenty of ____54____ for more than two more bodies. Walking over, I sat on it to have a rest.
The man on the other end looked at me but didn’t move. I quickly ____55____ that he may spend the night on the bench. His clothes were dirty, his hair was ____56____, and soon I caught a bad smell of body sweat. I looked at him and ____57____, and he smiled back with a mouth of blacked-out teeth.
We both sat there for over an hour quietly. I was reading. He was watching the video making. He then stood up, walked in front of me and bowed. In a little trembling (颤抖的) but clear ____58____, he said, “Thank you!” I looked up at him ____59____.
“For what? ” I asked.
He looked at the ground, “Usually, people won’t even look at me, let alone sit by me. Thank you for treating (对待) me as a ____60____.”
Hearing his words, I just sat there silently ____61____ I really didn’t know what to say as he quickly walked away. I did ____62____ special to him. I just shared a public bench with a stranger to me.
To me, he was just someone who wanted a place to ____63____. That’s exactly what I wanted. There were no differences between him and me. I finally got to know that my actions ____64____ meant something to this poor homeless man. So, treating others in an equal (平等的) way can also make a(n) ____65____ to the world.
51. A. kite B. toy C. video D. camp
52. A. help B. cheer C. lead D. hurt
53. A. cleaning B. reading C. shopping D. washing
54. A. sign B. sand C. mess D. space
55. A. accepted B. received C. refused D. realized
56. A. untidy B. special C. bright D. popular
57. A. argued B. replied C. shouted D. smiled
58. A. noise B. mind C. voice D. sound
59. A. in fear B. in surprise C. with anger D. with joy
60. A. man B. worker C. writer D. loser
61. A. but B. so C. because D. when
62 A. something B. everything C. anything D. nothing
63. A. rest B. study C. fix D. wait
64. A. wisely B. truly C. normally D. suddenly
65. A. interest B. success C. difference D. decision
第三节 阅读填空(共10个小题:每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
I went through an accident two years ago. While I ____66____ (travel), I fell down and broke my legs unluckily. I went from using a wheelchair to trying ____67____ (walk) a block (街区), and finally I can walk a few miles. Physical activity became even ____68____ (important) in my life. So why not make it enjoyable? I ____69____ (want) to learn to skateboard since I was a kid. In my opinion, skating was ____70____ (actual) very similar to dancing.
For a long time, I tried to learn skating ____71____ myself. Because I couldn’t control my body well, I always felt shy when many strangers saw me skating. That fear of being watched often stopped me from just getting out there for practice.
One day, my friend Monica and I met some of the members of GRLSWIRL, ____72____ skating club. They were so friendly that we wanted to be part of it. This club was amazing. Although everyone there was better than me, they were happy to help me and to see me defeat many ____73____ (challenge) in excitement. There, I became more confident day by day.
For me, a big part of skating was defeating my fear. Falling is a huge part of skating, but because of that accident, it was really hard for me to overcome (克服) it. However, the more I skated, the more balanced (平衡的) ____74____ (I) body and mind felt. Although my practice of skating was full of difficulties, I never imagined it would ____75____ (open) up a new world of wonder and possibilities for me.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 情境运用(共5个小题:每小题2分,满分10分)
根据所提供的图片,用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76. A: What’s the matter with Jim?
B: ________________________.
77 A: Tom. ________________________?
B: Sure, mom. I’ll do it at once.
78. A: Linda, where were you when I called you this morning?
B: At the bus stop. ________________________,
79. A: ________________________?
B: The Sahara. It’s about 9, 000, 000 square kilometers in size.
80. A: ________________________?
B: Yes, I have. I went there last summer vacation.
第二节 作文(满分25分)
81. 暑期将至,学校社团精心策划了一系列丰富多彩的社会实践活动,如社区公益服务、爱心捐赠活动、“跳蚤”市场、文化探访和读书分享会等(也可自拟活动)。请根据个人兴趣选择其中一至两项活动,用英语给你的笔友Lisa写一封电子邮件,向她介绍你想要参与的实践活动并阐述理由。
内容包括:
1. 简要说明活动的主要内容;
2. 阐述你的选择理由及活动意义。
注意:
1. 词数100左右。短文首句仅供选择使用,不计入总词数。
2. 可适当加入细节,使内容充实、行文连贯;
3. 不得出现真实姓名、校名等相关信息。
Dear Lisa,
How’s everything going? I’m writing to tell you about the school clubs’ summer activities.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
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$$八年级学业质量监测英语听力测试现在开始。第一节听录音,在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子,每个句子读一遍。One, lily didn't catch the bus. Too, how fast amy runs. Three, how can we reach there? For let's go to the park. Five, could I borrow that book? 第二节在录音中你将听到5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题ABC中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案,每段对话读两遍。Six, hi tom. What are you going to do this weekend? I plan to climb the mountain with my friends. Hi, tom. What are you going to do this weekend? I plan to climb the mountain with my friends. Seven, mom, have you seen my science book? I can't find IT anywhere. Oh, alex, check the living room. You left IT on the sofa yesterday. Mom, have you seen my science book? I can't find IT anywhere. Oh, alex, check the living room. You left IT on the sofa yesterday. eight. Hello, Lucy, are you the Youngest in your class? No, i'm already thirteen, but bob is a year Younger than me. Hello, Lucy, are you the Youngest in your class? No, i'm already thirteen, but bob is a year Younger than me. Nine, excuse me, is this your umbrella? Lucy. no, maybe it's, and hers is red. Excuse me, is this your umbrella? Lucy? No, maybe it's and hers is red. Ten, miss smith, i'm sorry I didn't finish my homework on time. I had a favor last night. It's okay. Take care of yourself first. Just handed in tomorrow. Miss smith, i'm sorry I didn't finish my homework on time. I had a favor last night. It's okay. Take care of yourself first. Just handed in tomorrow. 第三节在录音中你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题ABC中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前你将有40秒钟的读题时间,听完后你将有40秒钟的答题时间,对话读两遍。Hey, David, you look excited. What's up? Hi amy. I'm planning a weekend trip to Green lake with my family. cool. I went there last summer. How are you planning to get there? At first, my mom wanted to take the bus, but we decided to drive. Yeah, driving is faster. We are even borrowing in a big tent from uncle town because we may stay overnight. Stay overnight, that means you'll need to take more than just the food. What else are you taking? Mom is getting the sleeping bags and warm clothes ready. But have you checked the weather? IT rained heavily last week. Yes, the weather report says IT will be Sunny all weekend. That will be perfect for swimming, but you should watch out for the deep parts. Thanks for the advice. Hey, David, you look excited. What's up? Hi amy. I'm planning a weekend trip to Green lake with my family. cool. I went there last summer. How are you planning to get there? At first, my mom wanted to take the bus, but we decided to drive. Yeah, driving is faster. We are even borrowing in a big tent from uncle tom because we may stay overnight. Stay overnight, that means you'll need to take more than just the food. What else are you taking? Mom is getting the sleeping bags and warm clothes ready. But have you checked the weather? IT rained heavily last week. Yes, the weather report says IT will be Sunny all weekend. That will be perfect for swimming, but you should watch out for the deep parts. Thanks for the advice. 第四节在录音中你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题ABC中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前你将有40秒钟的读题时间,听完后你将有40秒钟的答题时间,短文读两遍。Hello, everyone, let me tell you about a smart invention by a middle school student named emma. Last month, emma noticed that her grandmother always had trouble finding her glasses. Sometimes the glasses were under sofa and other times they were under newspapers. As a result, her grandmother often felt upset and wasted a lot of time searching for them. Ema decided to solve this problem. SHE came up with an idea to make smart glasses. SHE used a small tool and matched IT to her grandma's phone through an APP. IT took him a two weeks to finish the invention. With this invention, her grandmother could Price a key on the phone, and the glasses would make a sound. Now her grandmother no longer spend hours looking for her glasses. SHE can quickly find them whenever he needs, making her daily life much easier. I, my grandmother was so happy and proud of her. When her classmates heard about IT, they were amazed, ama said. I just want to improve people's lives with my invention. Hello, everyone, let me tell you about a smart invention by a middle school student named emma. Last month, emma noticed that her grandmother always had trouble funding her glasses. Sometimes the glasses were on the sofa and other times they were under newspapers. As a result, her grandmother often felt upset and wasted a lot of time searching for them. Emma decided to solve this problem. SHE came up with an idea to make smart . glasses. He used a small tool and match IT to her grandmother's phone through an APP. IT took emma two weeks to finish the invention. With this invention, her grandmother could press a key on the phone, and the glasses would make a sound. Now her grandmother no longer spend hours looking for her glasses. SHE can quickly find them whenever he needs, making her daily life much easier. Amman's grandmother were so happy and proud of her. When her classmates heard about IT, they were amazed. I'm a said, I just want to improve people's lives with my invention. 听力测试到此结束,请做必答题。