内容正文:
成都石室中学2024-2025学年度下期高2026届零诊模拟
英语试卷
本试卷分第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分。考试用时120分钟,满分150分。
第Ⅰ卷(选择题,共95分)
第一部分:听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the man looking for?
A. A book. B. His iPhone. C. A pay phone.
2. Where is the woman going next?
A To a snack bar. B. To a movie theater. C. To her friend Simon's house.
3. What will the man do next?
A. Fill out another form.
B. Correct his mistaken on the form.
C. Tell the woman his medical history.
4. When will the man most likely get home?
A. At 7:00. B. At about 7:30. C. After 8:00.
5. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. On a farm. B. At a fruit market. C. At customs.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. What relation is the woman to George?
A. His mother. B. His teammate. C. His coach.
7. What does the woman think is more important?
A. Becoming the best player. B. Being a team player. C. Impressing the parents.
听第7段材料,回答第8至9题。
8. What does the man want to do at the restaurant at first?
A. Hold a party. B. Watch the big game. C. Book a table.
9. Why does the woman suggest the man try the bar?
A. The restaurant is all booked.
B. They have a different menu there.
C. There is room for five people.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. When does the woman have to hand in her essay?
A. This afternoon. B. Tomorrow. C. In a couple days.
11. What is the woman having trouble in?
A. Ending her paper. B. Rewriting her essay. C. Giving more thoughts.
12. How will the man help the woman?
A. By correcting her mistakes.
B. By showing her some examples.
C. By reading what she has written.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. Who do the woman's parents probably cheer for?
A. England. B. Portugal. C. Spain.
14. According to the woman, what is most likely to happen tonight?
A. Spain will lose. B. Portugal will lose. C. Ronaldo will score three goals.
15. Why does the man support for Portugal?
A. He likes Ronaldo.
B. Spain is way too confident.
C. Portugal hasn't lost a single game yet.
16. How much money do the speakers agree to bet?
A. $10. B. $20. C. $40.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. How many participants are there in the festival?
A. 200. B. 700. C. 1,000.
18 What is different about this year's festival?
A. It's not free. B. There are more prizes. C. Donald Trump will be attending.
19. What is the biggest prize?
A. "The Grand Pumpkin" B. "Celebrity Pumpkin" C. "The Great Pumpkin"
20. Who might the speaker be?
A. A news reporter. B. A radio announcer. C. A participant in the festival.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Four Fascinating National Parks in the World
Fiordland National Park
Fiordland National Park on New Zealand’s South Island was built in 1952 and is part of the larger TeWahipounamu wilderness, a UNESCO World Heritage Area. Covering 12 million hectares, Fiordland National Park is home to green rain forests, crystal clear lakes and snow-capped mountains. Even on the frequent rainy days, the scenery is spectacular, with entire valley walls turning into thundering waterfalls. Highlight is the amazing Milford Sound with Mitre Peak, rising 1,692 meters above sea level and one of the most photographed peaks in the country.
Yosemite National Park
First protected in 1864 and one of the first parks in the National Park Service, California’s Yosemite is a UNESCO World Heritage site. The park’s central feature is Yosemite Valley, which is surrounded by hills, trees and spectacular waterfalls. But the park is so much more than just a great valley with waterfalls: within Yosemite’s vast wilderness area, you find deep valleys, grand grassland and more than 800 miles of spectacular hikes.
Serengeti National Park
Tanzania’s oldest and most popular National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is called a 7th worldwide wonder. The Serengeti is famous for its annual GREAT Migration, a 1,200-mile odyssey of 1.5 million wildebeest and 200,000 zebras, all of them chasing the rains in a race for life.
Namib-Naukluft National Park
One of the most thinly populated countries in the world, and it is a top destination for those who enjoy natural scenery and wildlife viewing. Nowhere is this more evident than in the Namib-Naukluft National Park, the largest game park to Africa, including part of the Namib Desert and the Naukluft mountain range.
1. What is Fiordland National Park well-known for?
A. The spectacular hikes. B. The longest history.
C. Milford Sound with Mitre Peak. D. The annual Great Migration.
2. What do the first three parks have in common?
A. They are famous for waterfalls. B. They were founded in the 1950s.
C. They belong to the same country. D. They are UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
3. Where is the largest game park in Africa located?
A. Serengeti. B. Namibia. C. Tanzania. D. Fiordland.
B
My father loved lists. Over 25 years, he recorded 539 books he read and 322 episodes of Booknotes on C-SPAN, which he watched every Sunday night. He also kept grocery lists for his mini-fridge—Pepsi, coffee, heavy cream—and daily tasks. These notes filled small notebooks, always near his reading chair. He wrote them until December 31, 2004, when cancer stopped him. After his death, I gathered the notebooks into a box. For years, I couldn’t bear to open them.
Born in 1927 in Lowell, Massachusetts, my father was the son of a leather factory worker and grandson of an Irish immigrant who cleaned horse manure from the streets. Despite his humble beginnings, he was brilliant. After a summer in the leather factory, he graduated high school at 16 and went on to Boston College. He served in World War II and later earned degrees in physics. Then he worked at MIT’s Lincoln Laboratory, moved his family from Lowell to Boston, and sent his kids to private colleges. It seemed he had left Lowell behind — but not so. Deep down, he saw himself simply as a working-class Lowell kid who had just read a lot of books.
He didn’t travel much, and didn’t feel the need. When I asked if he regretted not seeing the world, he defended himself: “I’ve sailed the Atlantic in stormy winds, climbed the Himalayas, and stared down wild animals.” Then he added, “I read.” Books were his world. From them, he learned to survive landslides, shark attacks, and even gorilla attacks. He had what he called “a rich inner life”— and it was true.
Shortly before his death, he opened a small purple notebook and began one last list. It described details from 1930s Lowell — things lost in time. Twenty years later, I found it. In his flowing handwriting, Dad reached back to Lowell — a time long gone, now captured only in memory. Lost and only in memory — that was how I was experiencing Dad now. Squinting my eyes, I saw not just the city he loved, but the quiet, extraordinary man I called Dad.
4. Why are the details of the father’s lists mentioned in Paragraph 1?
A. To imply his fear of forgetting. B. To reflect his ordered and thoughtful life.
C. To reveal his reliance on control. D. To show his love for literature and cuisine.
5. What does the underlined sentence in paragraph 2 mean?
A. He stayed humble and rooted. B. He struggled with his identity.
C. His success originated from his roots. D. He felt torn about his background.
6. What does the father’s quote in paragraph 3 mainly reveal?
A. His pride in inner journeys. B. His dream of global travel.
C. His desire for real adventure. D. His escape from physical world.
7. What is the main theme of the passage?
A. Pursuit and action. B. Loss and regret.
C Ambition and escape. D. Memory and identity.
C
Musk, Hawking, Gates — the tech giants have redoubled their warnings about how we could destroy ourselves with technology. But they’re not talking about deliberately pushing buttons to trigger disaster. They mean accidentally killing ourselves with something that we invent for our benefit.
It’s a little embarrassing to have to admit that accidental deaths are increasing in a world that our ancestors made safer for hundreds of years. Our grandparents saw the invention of the automobile, the bulldozer (推土机) and so on, and they made them all safer. However, nowadays, we put a smartphone on every hand, and now more than 1000 distraction-related crashes happen on our roads every day. Kids and pets die of heatstroke (中暑) inside cars — we are on track to set a new record for hot car deaths in 2021. We may not have to worry about AI, but our innovations are quietly outpacing our ability.
We place blind trust in complex systems that reveal little about how they work. It seems that we have superhuman abilities, and consumers seem willing to play along. They drive at a speed of 80 mph with a phone and a cup of coffee, and they are proud of their multitasks. Sure, other people on phones are dangerous, but you can smoothly switch your attention and notice when any emergency occurs, right?
When we misjudged a situation in the past, we got immediate feedback. But technology can place the consequences of our missteps at a distance. Delayed reactions, complex chain reactions — these are all part of how technology works. But having adapted to a world of new inventions, we are crazy about driver-less cars, seldom stopping to consider what could go wrong later down the road. Worse still, technology is even hacking our feedback system. We get excited when we check our phone while driving. Edith Harbaugh, whose company, Launch Darkly, specializes in the controlled release of new technology into the wild, pointed out that we’re creating a dangerously unbalanced system of actions and rewards: “We are not given ice creams every time we do something safe.”
So it is too late to worry about threatening technology, which is upon us. The modern world is breaking everything we know about staying safe. If we have any hope of staying alive with the rise of the machines, we are going to need to learn to survive the things we have today.
8. Why is the warning of tech giants mentioned in Paragraph 1?
A. To give a definition. B. To highlight their wisdom.
C. To offer background information. D. To introduce the topic.
9. Which is NOT the reason why technology is threatening?
A. We believe in complex systems blindly.
B. We create too many intelligent inventions.
C. Our ability cannot keep pace with innovations.
D. Technology can’t give us feedback instantly.
10. If the passage continues, what may be talked about?
A The rise of the machines. B. The destruction of the world.
C. The measures to deal with the problem. D. The worries about threatening technology.
11. What is the best title for the text?
A. Every Coin Has Two Sides B. Technology is Outpacing our ability
C. Technology is Killing us D. How Should We Tackle Machines
D
Hummingbirds (蜂鸟) show the most amazing energy use in the animal world, flying around with the fastest wingbeats at up to 80 beats per second. To keep up that pace, hummingbirds must get enough food without increasing fat stores. Keeping such a high metabolism (新陈代谢) is especially difficult at night. Anusha Shankar from Cornell University points out with such a high energetic demand, if hummingbirds want to survive overnight, they must either store a large amount of fat in the evening or find ways to save energy.
In a paper published in January in the Journal of Experimental Biology, Shankar and her colleagues discovered that hummingbirds have remarkable energetic flexibility during their nightly rest. They can get much colder than they do when awake, shifting between different levels of sleep.
Previous studies found hummingbirds enter a deep sleep state at night, reducing their body temperature to a mere 3°C to save energy. However, Shankar’s team observed that often hummingbirds use both deep and shallow sleep on the same night. While some other birds can enter either, only hummingbirds can do both.
To test that, Shankar and her team built clear glass boxes for individual hummingbirds at night, exposed to natural light and temperature. Each box had a thin plastic sheet over an open end, which they could lift with fishing line once the bird was asleep, so that the infrared (红外线的) camera could detect its surface temperature without interference. The team captured hummingbirds before sunset, fed them, and filmed their eye area with the infrared camera to monitor them.
Shankar is fascinated by hummingbirds’ sleep pattern and their ability to cool to 3°C and then function energetically the next day. Currently, Shankar is studying what happens physiologically in hummingbirds during deep sleep. “It’s surprising to me that no one has ever looked at gene expression in bird deep sleep.” She hopes to uncover how genes are regulated in deep sleep versus normal sleep, similar to what has been explored in mammals. Studying hummingbirds will lead to a better understanding of temperature regulation across all vertebrates (脊椎动物).
12. What is hummingbirds’ key nighttime challenge?
A. Taking enough food for wingbeat. B. Keeping body temperature steady.
C. Saving energy without extra fat. D. Staying awake against hunters.
13. Why is hummingbirds’ sleep special?
A. They desire warmth for deep sleep. B. They change sleep depth each night.
C. They cool down in shallow sleep. D. They gain energy during sleep.
14. Which aspect of the test does paragraph 4 talk about?
A. Its background. B. Its theory. C. Its process. D. Its conclusion.
15. Which word best describes Shankar’s hummingbird study?
A. Appealing B. Pioneering C. Convincing D. Challenging
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,共12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的七个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Maybe you are probably getting an earful (训斥) from your inner voice. ___16___. Here are several ways to change your self- talk script and to use your inner voices to perform better.
Listen critically to your inner critic
In high- pressure situations, self- talk is often critical. Instead of thinking deliberately and logically, our inner voices are caused by emotion. That influences everything from how we talk to ourselves to our behaviors. ___17___. And when your inner voices start to fill with words of frustration and discouragement, pause the conversation as you consider ways to change it.
Create psychological distance from yourself
One effective way to manage stress is to create psychological distance. This can be achieved by using second- or third- person pronouns when referring to the situation. Asking yourself,“ Why are you feeling so stressed?” is one way to create the psychological distance you need to regulate emotion. ___18___.
Fit your conversation to your goal
___19___. Instructional self- talk like“ shoulders back” or“ keep the left arm straight” works to improve technique. Motivational self-talk such as“ you’ve got this” or“ keep going” can help with confidence, strength, or endurance. It’s important to be aware of the type of self-talk you are using and make sure it aligns with your goals and needs.
___20___
Demeaning or negative self- talk is only going to increase your stress and hold you back. Instead, speak compassionately to yourself — just as you would to a friend. Recreate negative messages to include positive content. “I am not good at this.” can be changed to“ Relax. You are prepared for this.” “I don’t know what to say.” can be replaced by“ Remember to smile and ask good questions.”
A. Treat yourself as a friend
B. Make as many friends as possible
C. Using instructional language is appropriate
D. Different types of self- talk work best for specific goals
E. So your first step is to listen critically to what you are saying to yourself
F. Often, negative comments in your head make it difficult for you to succeed
G. This way you might find your task an interesting challenge instead of a threat
第三部分 英语知识运用(共二节,满分40分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
请认真阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
People living in the city often rush about their daily lives, barely noticing those around them. One morning, on a crowded subway train, a young woman named Lily was ____21____ her way to work. She was feeling kind of depressed, thinking about the ____22____ of her job and the never-ending tasks.
At a particular station, an elderly man leaning on a walking stick ____23____ slowly. With no seat available, he had to stand near the door, ____24____ to keep his balance. Lily couldn’t help but ____25____ at him. The man perceived her gaze and gave her a heartwarming smile, which was like a ray of sunshine in the ____26____ subway car.
Suddenly, Lily felt a ____27____ in her mood. She rose to her feet and offered her seat to the old man. The man was very ____28____ and expressed his appreciation sincerely. This simple kind gesture seemed to have transformed the situation ____29____. Other passengers nearby started to look around and became more _____30_____ of those in need. A young boy gave up his seat to a pregnant woman, and a middle-aged man helped an old lady with her heavy load. Lily realized that a small act of kindness could make a big _____31_____. She started to smile more often at strangers on the street, and she found that majority of them would _____32_____ with a smile too. It seemed as if the smile had _____33_____ a chain reaction of kindness.
One day, she had lost an important document at work and was criticized by her boss. As she walked home, feeling frustrated, a little girl approached and _____34_____ a flower to her with a big smile. Surprised and touched, she realized the _____35_____ of a smile, which can motivate people to pay kindness forward and truly brighten anyone’s day, no matter how difficult it is.
21. A. making B. finding C. feeling D. giving
22. A. significance B. sense C. stress D. payment
23. A. got on B. got off C. pulled over D. stood up
24. A. attempting B. struggling C. failing D. pretending
25. A. laugh B. point C. shout D. look
26. A. packed B. comfortable C. shabby D. messy
27. A. pain B. lift C. burden D. loss
28. A. relieved B. depressed C. grateful D. proud
29. A. slightly B. strangely C. occasionally D. magically
30. A. afraid B. aware C. ashamed D. fond
31. A. decision B. mistake C. difference D. promise
32. A. respond B. ignore C. repeat D. nod
33. A. taken up B. set off C. put off D. passed down
34. A. purchased B. sent C. presented D. delivered
35. A. advantage B. strength C. nature D. power.
第Ⅱ卷(非选择题,共55分)
第三部分 英语知识运用
第二节 短文填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
On Wednesday, UNESCO ___36___ (official) announced the Spring Festival as part of the Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage (非遗).
Spring Festival, ___37___ marks the beginning of Chinese New Year, includes practices such as wishing for good fortune, organizing family get-togethers and promoting social harmony. Such celebrations are known ___38___ guonian, or crossing the year.
Reacting to the UNESCO honor, Foreign Ministry spokesman Lin Jian said on Thursday that Spring Festival reflects the ideals of peace, harmony and unity ___39___ (value) by the Chinese people. It is not just a Chinese festival ___40___ a global one, he said, noting that so far nearly 20 countries ___41___ (recognize)the first day of the first month of the Chinese calendar as a public holiday, with about one-fifth of the world’s population participating in various ___42___(form)of celebration.
Pan Lusheng, vice-president of the China Federation of Literary and Art Circles, called the UNESCO honor an effective ___43___ (respond) to cultural spreading. ___44___ (call)for continued efforts to protect and carry forward the rich culture of Spring Festival, he strengthened the urgent need for studying and preserving traditional festivals.
The UNESCO recognition for the festival will help promote ____45____ (universe) values of peace and harmony and highlight the role of intangible cultural heritage in sustainable development
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 书面表达(满分15分)
46. 假定你是李华,你的美国笔友Jackson最近在考虑是否要出国留学,他来信征求你的意见。请你就此用英语给他写一封电子邮件,阐述你的观点,并给出理由(不少于三个)。
注意:1. 词数80左右;
2. 可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
3. 开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Jackson,
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 读后续写(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
In a poverty-stricken community of Yazoo, Ben had his life journey shaped by an old barber called Jack. As a poor boy, Ben was among those who benefited from Jack’s special offer. Every time he got a free haircut, the barber would encourage him to read storybooks, opening up a world of knowledge and imagination he had never known before.
As Ben grew up, Jack grew old, unable to do his usual job. Ben decided to take over Jack’s shop. Guided by Jack, Ben mastered the skill of cutting hair and became a popular barber in the neighborhood. He continued the tradition of providing free haircuts for poor children.
Soon Ben found that, accustomed to hanging about to kill time and having little access to books, many kids around had weak literacy. When he asked about what they learned, he would receive short and broken responses. Among them was a shy boy named Harry, his father dead and mother often ill in bed.
Determined to encourage the children to read for their future, Ben turned to Jack for advice. His idea was supported by Jack, who helped him set up a reading section in the corner of the shop. Ben filled it with all kinds of books he bought.
When Harry came for a haircut, Ben said smilingly, “Harry, there are some great storybooks waiting for you. Why not pick one to read?” Harry looked up, his eyes wide with surprise. Ben led him to the book shelves and helped him choose a book about a young hero who overcame great odds.
Harry became a regular in the reading room. He would sit in the corner, completely absorbed in a book, his lips moving slightly as he read silently. Ben noticed Harry was initially hesitant to read aloud due to his poor pronunciation. Whenever Harry mispronounced a word, Ben would assure him, “It’s okay, Harry. Try that again. You’re doing great.” With Ben’s continuous help, Harry’s reading skills gradually improved.
注意:
(1) 续写词数应为150个左右;
(2) 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
One day, Jack told Ben of a reading aloud contest in the community.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
When the big day came, Jack and Ben accompanied Harry to the contest hall.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
成都石室中学2024-2025学年度下期高2026届零诊模拟
英语试卷
本试卷分第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分。考试用时120分钟,满分150分。
第Ⅰ卷(选择题,共95分)
第一部分:听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the man looking for?
A. A book. B. His iPhone. C. A pay phone.
2. Where is the woman going next?
A. To a snack bar. B. To a movie theater. C. To her friend Simon's house.
3. What will the man do next?
A. Fill out another form.
B. Correct his mistaken on the form.
C. Tell the woman his medical history.
4. When will the man most likely get home?
A. At 7:00. B. At about 7:30. C. After 8:00.
5. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. On a farm. B. At a fruit market. C. At customs.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. What relation is the woman to George?
A. His mother. B. His teammate. C. His coach.
7. What does the woman think is more important?
A. Becoming the best player. B. Being a team player. C. Impressing the parents.
听第7段材料,回答第8至9题。
8. What does the man want to do at the restaurant at first?
A. Hold a party. B. Watch the big game. C. Book a table.
9. Why does the woman suggest the man try the bar?
A. The restaurant is all booked.
B. They have a different menu there.
C. There is room for five people.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. When does the woman have to hand in her essay?
A. This afternoon. B. Tomorrow. C. In a couple days.
11. What is the woman having trouble in?
A. Ending her paper. B. Rewriting her essay. C. Giving more thoughts.
12. How will the man help the woman?
A. By correcting her mistakes.
B. By showing her some examples.
C. By reading what she has written.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. Who do the woman's parents probably cheer for?
A. England. B. Portugal. C. Spain.
14. According to the woman, what is most likely to happen tonight?
A. Spain will lose. B. Portugal will lose. C. Ronaldo will score three goals.
15. Why does the man support for Portugal?
A. He likes Ronaldo.
B. Spain is way too confident.
C. Portugal hasn't lost a single game yet.
16. How much money do the speakers agree to bet?
A. $10. B. $20. C. $40.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. How many participants are there in the festival?
A. 200. B. 700. C. 1,000.
18. What is different about this year's festival?
A. It's not free. B. There are more prizes. C. Donald Trump will be attending.
19. What is the biggest prize?
A. "The Grand Pumpkin" B. "Celebrity Pumpkin" C. "The Great Pumpkin"
20. Who might the speaker be?
A. A news reporter. B. A radio announcer. C. A participant in the festival.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. C 2. D 3. B
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. B 5. A 6. A 7. D
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. D 9. B 10. C 11. C
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. C 13. B 14. C 15. B
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,共12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的七个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. F 17. E 18. G 19. D 20. A
第三部分 英语知识运用(共二节,满分40分)
第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
请认真阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. D 30. B 31. C 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. D
第Ⅱ卷(非选择题,共55分)
第三部分 英语知识运用
第二节 短文填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. officially
37. which 38. as
39. are valued##valued
40. but 41. have recognized
42. forms 43. response
44. Calling
45. universal
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 书面表达(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Jackson,
I’m more than delighted to share my opinion, which I hope will be of some help to you. Frankly, I hold the view that it makes good sense to study abroad. The reasons are as follows.
To begin with, exposure to a foreign language setting while we are studying abroad makes learning process engaging and effective. Moreover, bathed in a different culture of a foreign country, we can gain great insights into the world because cross-cultural experiences can give us a global perspective. Studying abroad takes us out of our comfort zone and changes us for the better, which is the most important from my perspective.
All things considered, I hope you can choose to study abroad and start a new life.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 读后续写(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】One possible version:
One day, Jack told Ben of a reading aloud contest in the community. “It’s an opportunity for the kids to shine,” Jack said. Ben immediately thought of Harry, who had built up his confidence but still shrank from presenting in public. Ben went to find Harry and told him about the contest. Harry lowered his head, his cheeks flushing. “What if I mess up?” Harry murmured. Ben patted him on the shoulder, encouraging him, “Remember how you first started? This is just another step.” Harry nodded, agreeing to give it a shot. For days, Ben set aside time to coach Harry on reading with expression and rhythm. Jack also shared tips on adding emotions to reading. Gradually, Harry’s voice sounded rhythmic and energetic.
When the big day came, Jack and Ben accompanied Harry to the contest hall. At the sight of the large audience, Harry froze. But the moment he met Ben’s and Jack’s warm smiles and thumbs-up gestures, he calmed down and walked onto the stage. His voice was steady at first, and then grew increasingly passionate. When he reached the final lines, the hall erupted into applause. Harry won second prize! Holding the certificate, he flashed a bright smile at Ben and Jack. From then on, more kids came to Ben’s reading corner. Ben and Jack felt content that their small corner was making a big difference in the children’s lives.
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