安徽省安庆市潜山市校联考2024-2025学年九年级下学期4月期中英语试题

2024-2025学年下学期期中考试九年级英语试卷 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ.短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does the girl want to be? A. B. C. 2. Where did Mary go last weekend? A. B. C. 3. Why was the woman absent from the party? A. Because she was ill. B. Because she was busy. C. Because she forgot it. 4. How does Frank keep healthy? A. By going for a run. B. By going swimming. C. By riding a bike. 5. What is the probable relationship between the two speakers? A. Guide and tourist. B. Waiter and customer. C. Doctor and patient. Ⅱ.长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。 6. Who will teach Tom the skill? A. Anna. B. Tom's mother. C. Anna's father. 7. What will Tom help Anna do? A. Make a pizza. B. Make plans. C. Repair her bike. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至 10题。 8. How long is the break time now? A. 10 minutes. B. 15 minutes. C. 20 minutes. 9. What does Julia often do during the break now? A. Chat with friends. B. Go for a walk. C. Review notes. 10. How does Mike like the change? A. Helpful. B. Doubtful. C. Unsure. Ⅲ.短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11. Where does the girl come from? A. China. B. Britain. C. America. 12 What difficulty does the girl have? A. Improving painting skills. B. Learning well at school. C. Communicating with others. 13. Who helps the girl save the day? A. Her grandpa. B. Her classmate. C. Her teacher. 14. What is shown in class during the visit to school? A. Storybooks. B. Paintings. C. Photos. 15. What is the speaker talking about? A. A painter's story. B. A children's book. C. A school competition. Ⅳ.信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 Happiness—An Important Part of Life Why It makes us feel good and gives us ________ to enjoy every day. How Spend time with loved ones Talk, ________, and share your feelings with family and friends. Do things we love Take up ________ like reading, playing sports, or listening to music in your free time. Help others It makes us feel kind and ________. what ________ we have Even small things like a sunny day or a good meal can make us happy. 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） Ⅴ.单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 1. —What a wonderful party! Everyone was singing along when the band started playing. —Yeah! You can sense the _______ feeling at the party. A. cheerful B. lonely C. sleepy D. peaceful 2. My mother always tells me to believe in _______ because that’s the secret of success. A. himself B. myself C. herself D. yourself 3. —The old man was badly ill and the doctors tried their best to _______ him. —Thanks to them! He’s much better now. A. save B. hurt C. miss D. respect 4. You can see the _______ in her eyes when she gets the birthday gift she always wanted. A. joy B. sadness C. anger D. worry 5. —I bought a second-hand bike online, and it will arrive tomorrow. —When it arrives, you need to _______ every part carefully in case of hidden problems. A. cut off B. put away C. set up D. check out 6. —I think we need a new airport to meet the passengers needs. —It’s reported that Hefei Airport _______ soon and bring us much convenience. A. has completed B. is completed C. will be completed D. completes 7. —I heard you tried the new dish last night. How did it turn out? —It was a huge success! I followed the steps _______, and the taste was just right. A. carefully B. hardly C. lazily D. easily 8. —Could I borrow your notes for a look? —Sorry. I _______ my notes to our classmate, Lily. A. was lending B. have lent C. lend D. will lend 9. —Do you remember _______ we stored the camping tools? —Check the study. They might be in the blue box. A. where B. how C. when D. why 10. —I do want to make progress in English, but I’m too tired to go any further. —_______ ! I’m sure you can make it. A. I agree B. No problem C. What a pity D. Come on Ⅵ.完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A Last summer, our school organized a tree-planting activity. ___11___, I thought it would be boring because I imagined just digging holes in the hot sun. ___12___, it was completely different. On the first day, our teacher divided us into groups. Each group got a young tree and some tools. “Teamwork is the key to ___13___,” said Mr. Wang. My friend Lily and I volunteered to carry water and we thought it was easy. But the buckets (水桶) were heavier than we ___14___, and we poured half the water on the way back. By the second day, our group learned to ___15___ tasks better. Tom dug holes quickly. Lucy carefully placed the trees and others added soil. I noticed something ___16___ —birds started singing around us, as if cheering for our work. We were all very excited. But ___17___ came. On the third day, dark clouds came. “We must finish planting the last ten trees before the rain arrived!” shouted Mr. Wang. Everyone worked faster. Suddenly, Lily ___18___ and hurt her knee. But she smiled and said, “Don’t worry! I’ll tie ribbons (丝带) on the trees to mark our progress.” Her courage made us feel energetic again. A month later, we returned. The empty field was now full of green leaves. A sense of ___19___ filled my heart. I realized that even small actions, like planting a tree, could ___20___ the world. Now, every time I see those trees, I remember Lily’s ribbons and how creative we were when facing difficulties. 11. A. At first B. In total C. After all D. For example 12. A. Besides B. Therefore C. However D. Anyway 13. A. luck B. success C. money D. safety 14. A. collected B. remained C. remembered D. expected 15. A. share B. refuse C. start D. report 16. A. noisy B. strange C. terrible D. amazing 17. A. results B. challenges C. solutions D. chances 18. A. gave in B. fell down C. woke up D. showed off 19. A. regret B. pride C. doubt D. fear 20. A. change B. control C. attack D. discover B Classics are treasures in the world of books. For years, people read them to learn. But now, more choose to ___21___ classics through short videos. A Douyin report showed that book-related videos grew quickly. The views for these videos ___22___ by 65% compared with the year before. In busy modern life, short videos help people enjoy stories in little time. “I watch them on the bus, while waiting, or before sleeping. Videos mix words, pictures, and sounds, making them more ___23___ than just reading,” said Mr. Zhang. Some people find classic books difficult to finish. This is especially ___24___ for teenagers. He Liyan, a 14-year-old student from Jiangsu, said, “Some classics are long, but I have to ___25___ them for school. ___26___ show fun parts that make me want to keep reading.” She also added that video bloggers (博主) explain stories in simple ways. Take the famous classic A Dream of Red Mansions as a(n) ___27___. It has many characters, which confuses (使困惑) young readers. “A blogger uses mind maps to ___28___ relationships among the characters, which makes it clearer,” said Shao Xinyan. However, not everyone agrees. Zhang Boren, a Beijing student, believes reading helps people imagine stories themselves. “Reading books like novels ___29___ your imagination and personal thoughts. Videos can’t show all the small details (细节) in the story,” he said. In short, videos help busy people enjoy classics quickly while traditional reading offers something special. Both have its own ___30___. We can choose different ways according to our own needs. 21. A. record B. watch C. create D. imagine 22. A. increased B. dropped C. stopped D. appeared 23. A. expensive B. tiring C. interesting D. challenging 24. A. true B. unusual C. easy D. funny 25. A. guess B. invent C. cancel D. finish 26. A. Novels B. Songs C. Videos D. Maps 27. A. question B. number C. rule D. example 28 A. hide B. show C. break D. improve 29. A. reduces B. requires C. punishes D. interviews 30. A. advantages B. prices C. excuses D. decisions Ⅶ.补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据对话内容，从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。 A: Lily, you look pale. ___31___ B: Yes. Actually, I’ve had a headache since yesterday. A: ___32___ The school doctor is working today. B: Maybe I should. ___33___ A: From 8:30 a. m. to 5:00 p. m. Do you know where the office is? B: Yes, next to the library. ___34___ I didn’t have breakfast. A: Don’t worry. ___35___ And here’s my water bottle. B: It’s very kind of you. A. Should I eat something first? B. Remember to take your temperature. C. When does he work? D. Let me get you some bread. E. Are you feeling unwell? F. You should see the doctor. G. I took some medicine this morning. 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ.阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Want to make your life easier and more fun? Check out these apps! Gentler Streak Gentler Streak wants you to see health in a more balanced way. Unlike many fitness apps that always push you hard, it encourages you to listen to your body and put well-being first. If you’re well-rested, the app might suggest pushing harder; if you’re tired, it will tell you to rest. For less active days, the “Go Gentler” choices, such as walking and yoga, are perfect. Slowly Slowly brings back people's love for traditional mail with modern technology. The app helps you make foreign pen friends by matching you with like-minded people. Create a name and avatar (头像), then send letters. The further away your pen pal lives, the longer it will take for them to get your letter. Zedge Want to make your phone special? Zedge is your best choice. It offers millions of wallpapers, live photos, cool ringtones (来电铃声) and alarm sounds—all for free. There's something interesting from famous artists. You can also describe what you want to Zedge and its AI helper will create it for you! You can also see other people’s AI works in the app. Sleep Cycle Welcome to the world of better sleep with the Sleep Cycle app! All you need to do is turn the app on before bed and place your phone somewhere near you. It studies how you sleep and “listens” for sleep talking, coughing to find the best time to wake you up gently (温柔地). It helps you see how well you’ve been sleeping over different times. 36. Which two apps help people live a healthier life? A. Gentler Streak and Slowly. B. Gentler Streak and Sleep Cycle. C. Slowly and Sleep Cycle. D. Zedge and Slowly. 37. What does Zedge offer? A. Interesting mail. B. Alarm sounds. C. Cool sports. D. Painting skills. 38. In which part of a newspaper can we read the text? A. Lifestyle. B. Art. C. Travel. D. Relationship. B My family have shaped how I see many parts of life. Growing up, I believe it is only fair that children give back in return. For example, I have been able to open the doors to this great country, China, to my family. I have always shared my knowledge with my family after my university classes. At night, I told them new information I learned about Chinese history, literature, and modern society. I saw China with my own eyes and experienced the country myself. It was very different from what I imagined——much better. Therefore, my parents had the chance to know China through their daughter’s eyes, and their interest in my new home grew. In 2024, my family came to visit me in Beijing. Even my grandparents joined! My grandpa planned the trip, reading books and calling me every night with new ideas. The two-week trip was full of surprises for my family. They didn't expect the food to be so delicious and special. They loved how different ingredients (原料) create amazing tastes. They also enjoyed the culture, the clean streets, and the mix of old and new in Beijing. They visited famous places like the Forbidden City and were amazed by the views. But the part that they loved most was discovering my life here in China. I showed them my office, apartment and all the shops and restaurants I visit daily. They finally understood my life choice and they were glad that I chose China as my home. 39. What made the writer’s parents become more interested in China? A. University classes. B. Chinese literature. C. Their new home in China. D. Their daughter’s sharing. 40. What can we learn about the writer’s family’s trip to China from Paragraph 3? A. The trip lasted for three weeks in total. B. Her family did not look forward to the trip. C. Her grandpa organized the trip carefully. D. Her family created amazing food themselves. 41. How did the writer’s family feel about her life choice at last? A. Pleased. B. Surprised. C. Sorry. D. Disappointed. C Do you know Miffy? This year, the popular character turns 70 years old. In 1955, Dutch artist Dick Bruna drew this cute rabbit. He first drew this little rabbit for his young son during a rainy holiday. Each night he made up stories about the rabbit and Miffy was born. At the time, he didn’t expect so many people around the world to love her. But today, there are books about Miffy in 50 languages. The city of Utrecht in the Netherlands even has a Miffy museum with many rooms for children to do different activities. All the rooms are full of pictures of Miffy. People love Miffy so much because of her simple design. She only has two small dots (点) for her eyes and a cross for her mouth, which lets people know her right away. Miffy’s spirit has also won the hearts of many. Both the young and the old love Miffy because she likes trying new things and always sees the good in everything. “She loves her parents. She loves being cute and young,” Fashion Journal editor (编辑) Maggie Zhou said. Nostalgia is also a big part of why she is so popular now. The simple white rabbit was part of many people’s childhoods and their love for her has never gone away. Shanne n Young is one such fan. She believes Miffy connects her childhood with her adulthood. “It’s a hard feeling to describe sometimes but you just know it’s quite special,” Young said. 42. For whom did Dick Bruna create the character Miffy? A. His son. B. An editor. C. His parents. D. A fan. 43. Why is the Miffy museum in Utrecht mentioned? A. To advise people to pay a visit. B. To show the popularity of Miffy. C. To explain the history of Miffy. D. To introduce the city of Utrecht. 44. What does the underlined word “Nostalgia” in the last paragraph probably mean? A. 思乡 B. 好学 C. 怀旧 D. 创新 45. What is the best title for the text? A. A 70-Year-Old Rabbit Giving Joy to the World B. Famous Cartoon Characters Around the World C. Childhood Memories Have Never Gone Away D. Simple Designs Won Young People’s Hearts D People often set many alarms to wake themselves up in time. However, this can be unhealthy as it reduces the quality of sleep, said Brandon Peters, a doctor from Virginia Mason Franciscan Health in Seattle, the US. A good sleep has four stages. During the first stage, we enter a light sleep. Our body relaxes, and our heart beats more slowly. As we fall deeper into sleep, stage two starts. Our eyes stop moving, and our body temperature becomes lower. Then comes the third stage. It is the deepest sleep and also the hardest to wake up from. Last is the fourth stage. Scientists call it rapid eye movement sleep, or REM sleep. Our eyes move quickly from side to side during this stage. At the same time, both our breathing and our heartbeat pick up. REM sleep is important because most of our dreams take place during it. This helps us deal with emotions (情绪) and remember the new things that we learned during the day. REM sleep mostly takes place in the last hours of a night’s sleep. So, disrupting (扰乱) it with alarms ringing one after another is a bad idea. People should set one alarm only. They can also try alarms that use light, not sound, Alicia Roth at the US Cleveland Clinic told CNN. 46. Which stage of a good sleep is the hardest to wake up from? A. Stage one. B. Stage two. C. Stage three. D. Stage four. 47. What is introduced about REM sleep in Paragraph 3? ①Why it is important ②When it takes place ③How it connects to breath ④Which stage it belongs to A. ①② B. ①④ C. ②③ D. ②④ 48. What is the purpose of the last paragraph? A. To advise people to have enough sleep. B. To recommend alarms that use sound. C To explain why alarms are necessary. D. To suggest healthier alarm-setting habits. E It’s common to care about what other people think. However, we shouldn’t spend so much time on this. Indeed, if we spent all day worrying about how our actions make us appear, we’d never get anything done. So, how do we learn to ignore (忽视) what other people think about us? Well, the answer is about learning to accept and be happy with who we are. It means that we should live our lives for ourselves, not for other people. There are a couple of ways to go about doing this. First, we should remember that our biggest judges are ourselves. If we have a low opinion of ourselves, then we think that others feel the same way about us. To get over this, British therapist (心理治疗师) Chloe Brotheridge wrote in Psychology Today that we should “earn to love”ourselves. For example, you can make a list of the things you’re good at and practice them every day. You can also spend more time with people who love you instead of with those who don’t. These things can help you feel better about yourself. Second, as Brotheridge wrote, “We can’t control the way other people react to us, no matter how hard we try.’ By realizing this, you can learn to focus more on things that make you unique (独一无二的) . At the same time, however, we shouldn’t completely forget about how we act around other people. After all, nobody likes to have someone jump ahead of them when waiting in line, for example. So, the best thing to remember is to always be nice to others and get on well with them. 49. What may happen if we care too much about what other people think? A. We’d ignore our actions. B. We’d accept who we are. C. We’d live our lives better. D. We’d never achieve anything. 50. What does the underlined word “them” in Paragraph 3 refer to? A. The people who love you. B. The biggest judges in your life. C. The things you are good at. D. The low opinions of yourself. 51. What should we do when doing things that make us unique? A. Try hard to satisfy others. B. Care about others’ feelings. C. Control the way people react. D. Be completely lost in our own world. 52 What is the text mainly about? A. How to get along well with others. B. How to find things we are good at. C. How to change how others look at us. D. How to ignore others’opinions on us. 第二节 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。 F Noah first experienced volunteering at the age of 7. At the time, he helped with the soccer program at his summer camp. “I realized I could make a difference, even as a kid,” said Noah. At another summer camp, Noah helped kids with their art projects. He was also part of a group to beautify schools and parks with painting. He did all this before he even turned 14. When Noah was asked about his favourite part of volunteering, he answered, “I love the smiles, hugs and thank-yous.” Since he turned 14, Noah has taken on many other volunteer projects. When he sees a need, he fills it. Once Noah learned about kids who needed meals on weekends when they didn’t have access (接触的机会) to school lunches. He then joined a group that spent one Saturday afternoon every month sending hot supers to both kids and their caretakers. “When I found out that I could actually do it every Saturday,” said Noah, “it became a thing I looked forward to each week.” Noah’s love for volunteering shows no signs of stopping. During the past year, Noah has helped people with intellectual disabilities (智力缺陷) create art projects and helped primary school students to read. Most recently, he began helping the elderly with other volunteers. Noah said, “_______.” 53. What does Noah like best about volunteering? (不超过10个词) ______________________________________ 54. How often did the group send hot suppers to kids and their caretakers? (不超过5个词) ______________________________________ 55. What would Noah say at the end of the text? (不超过15个词) ______________________________________ 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅸ.单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 56. She is f________ (修理) the old clock her grandfather left. 57. I can’t a________ (支付得起)the price of this expensive watch. 58. The water in the lake is very s________ (静止的) and there are no waves. 59. We should eat more fruit and vegetables to keep a balanced d________ (饮食). 60. There won’t be so much t________ (车辆) if the self-driving cars are put into use. Ⅹ.书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 61. 你校每年都会针对学生电子设备使用情况开展调查，请根据下方表格信息，用英语写一篇短文，介绍你校学生电子设备使用情况的变化并发表自己的看法。 2020 and 2024 Average Daily Usage of Electronic Devices Year Time (h/day) Usage 2020 1.5 games (45%); social (30%); learning (25%） 2024 3 games (50%); learning (30%); social (20%) 内容要点： 1.描述表格信息； 2.分析变化原因； 3.提出合理建议。 注意： 1.词数80~100； 2.包含所有要点，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3.文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称； 4.开头已给出，不计入总词数。 参考词汇：device n.设备 Recently, our school has finished the yearly survey on students’ daily device use. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2024-2025学年下学期期中考试九年级英语试卷 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ.短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does the girl want to be? A. B. C. 2. Where did Mary go last weekend? A. B. C. 3. Why was the woman absent from the party? A. Because she was ill. B. Because she was busy. C. Because she forgot it. 4. How does Frank keep healthy? A. By going for a run. B. By going swimming. C. By riding a bike. 5. What is the probable relationship between the two speakers? A. Guide and tourist. B. Waiter and customer. C. Doctor and patient. Ⅱ.长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。 6. Who will teach Tom the skill? A. Anna. B. Tom's mother. C. Anna's father. 7. What will Tom help Anna do? A. Make a pizza. B. Make plans. C. Repair her bike. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至 10题。 8. How long is the break time now? A. 10 minutes. B. 15 minutes. C. 20 minutes. 9. What does Julia often do during the break now? A. Chat with friends. B. Go for a walk. C. Review notes. 10. How does Mike like the change? A. Helpful. B. Doubtful. C. Unsure. Ⅲ.短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11. Where does the girl come from? A. China. B. Britain. C. America. 12. What difficulty does the girl have? A. Improving painting skills. B. Learning well at school. C. Communicating with others. 13. Who helps the girl save the day? A. Her grandpa. B. Her classmate. C. Her teacher. 14. What is shown in class during the visit to school? A. Storybooks. B. Paintings. C. Photos. 15. What is the speaker talking about? A. A painter's story. B. A children's book. C. A school competition. Ⅳ.信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 Happiness—An Important Part of Life Why It makes us feel good and gives us ________ to enjoy every day. How Spend time with loved ones Talk, ________, and share your feelings with family and friends. Do things we love Take up ________ like reading, playing sports, or listening to music in your free time. Help others It makes us feel kind and ________. what ________ we have Even small things like a sunny day or a good meal can make us happy. 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） Ⅴ.单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【1题答案】 【答案】A 【2题答案】 【答案】B 【3题答案】 【答案】A 【4题答案】 【答案】A 【5题答案】 【答案】D 【6题答案】 【答案】C 【7题答案】 【答案】A 【8题答案】 【答案】B 【9题答案】 【答案】A 【10题答案】 【答案】D Ⅵ.完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A 【11~20题答案】 【答案】11. A 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. A 16. D 17. B 18. B 19. B 20. A B 【21~30题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. A 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. C 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. A Ⅶ.补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. E 32. F 33. C 34. A 35. D 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ.阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【36~38题答案】 【答案】36. B 37. B 38. A B 【39~41题答案】 【答案】39. D 40. C 41. A C 【42~45题答案】 【答案】42. A 43. B 44. C 45. A D 【46~48题答案】 【答案】46. C 47. A 48. D E 【49~52题答案】 【答案】49. D 50. C 51. B 52. D 第二节 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。 F 【53~55题答案】 【答案】53. The smiles, hugs and thank-yous./He likes the smiles, hugs and thank-yous best. 54. Once a month./Every month. 55. I’ll continue to volunteer and make a difference to the world. 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅸ.单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 【56题答案】 【答案】(f)ixing 【57题答案】 【答案】(a)fford 【58题答案】 【答案】(s)till 【59题答案】 【答案】(d)iet 【60题答案】 【答案】(t)raffic Ⅹ.书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 【61题答案】 【答案】例文 Recently our school has finished the yearly survey on students’ daily device use. In 2020, students spent 1.5 hours a day on electronic devices, with 45% for games, 30% for social activities and 25% for learning. By 2024, the average daily usage doubled to 3 hours. Game-playing increased to 50%, learning rose to 30%, while social use dropped to 20%. The increase might be resulted in the development of technology and more online study needs. However, too much time on games is harmful. We students should limit gaming time and use devices more for learning. Teachers and parents can guide us in making better use of electronic devices. All in all, electronic devices are both helpful and challenging. By using them wisely, we can make our study better and lives more colorful, rather than being controlled by them. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$