四川省泸州市合江县中学校2024-2025学年高一下学期期中考试英语试题

合江中学高2024级高一下期期中考试 英语试题 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．本试卷分为第I卷（选择题）和第II卷（非选择题）两部分。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．考生作答时，选择题用2B铅笔将答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑，其余各题用0.5毫米黑色墨迹签字笔将答案写在答题卡上，在本试卷、草稿纸上答题无效。 3．全卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第I卷（选择题 共95分） 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试题上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1．What will the man drink today? A．Coffee. B．Milk. C．Tea. 2．What does the woman suggest the man do? A．Play football. B．Play badminton. C．Go running. 3．Who is Jane Fleming probably? A．A news reporter. B．A firefighter. C．A policewoman. 4．What is the purpose of the group task? A．To practice thinking skills. B．To improve writing skills. C．To develop communication skills. 5．How does the woman feel? A．Happy. B．Curious. C．Careless. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6．What color does the air turn finally? A．Yellow. B．Orange. C．Red. 7．What is the next class? A．Art. B．Maths. C．Chemistry. 听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。 8．What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A．Strangers. B．Friends. C．Relatives. 9．What will the man probably do tomorrow morning? A．Stay at the hotel. B．Travel to another city. C．Go to the bank. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10．Why isn’t Anna in the group anymore? A．She moved away. B．She became sick. C．She joined another group. 11．How many members did the group have at first? A．Four. B．Five. C．Six. 12．What is the woman’s final suggestion? A．Working harder. B．Talking to the manager. C．Getting new members. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13．Where does the conversation probably take place? A．In a camera shop. B．In a pet care center. C．In a photo studio. 14．What is David known for? A．His photos of animals B．His photos of babies. C．His photos of houses. 15．What do we know about the man’s cat? A．It is a friendly cat. B．It is an indoor cat. C．It is a black cat. 16．How much will the photo-taking cost? A．$150. B．$115. C．$100. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17．What’s the topic of today’s school radio broadcast? A．Seasons. B．Sports. C．Music. 18．Which sport does the speaker like best probably? A．Baseball. B．Football. C．Basketball. 19．In which season is baseball the most popular? A．Spring. B．Summer. C．Fall. 20．What does the speaker say about American football? A．It’s hard to understand for some people. B．It isn’t popular anymore. C．It’s easy to play. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Four Great Online Art Classes for Kids Here are four of the best online art classes for kids that are either free or extremely affordable (负担得起的). Carla Sonheim’s Kid’s Week Carla Sonheim, the author of Drawing Lab, has a series of free art classes. They are taught not just by Sonheim but also by fellow artists and teachers. The classes, which all last less than an hour,only require a bit of time and basic art supplies. The classes are cool because they combine artist style with fun tasks that kids of any age can finish. Thrive Art School Thrive Art School is an actual art school，but they have a variety of art lessons online for kids of all ages and abilities. The lessons are divided between beginner and intermediate (中级的) artists. The beginner videos help younger kids learn how to draw fish, creative castles, and dogs; the intermediate lessons provide instruction (指示) on how to draw dolphins, deer, and lions. Udemy Udemy offers art classes to kids with different skill levels. For around $15 — $20 per course, kids can learn drawing everything, and even drawing on an electronic device. Each course has a series of short lectures that kids can complete at any time, plus articles and downloadable resources. Sparketh Kids aged 6 — 18 can enjoy up to 1000 free online art classes for 30 days on Sparketh. Kids can take nature or animal drawing classes and upload their art on Sparketh. There are dozens of courses on Sparketh, so any kid could find just about anything they want to create. 1. What do kids need to do to take Carla Sonheim’s classes? A. Pay tuition fees. B. Design fun tasks. C. Prepare art supplies. D. Finish challenging tasks. 2. Which of the following should a kid choose if he likes to draw on an electronic device? A. Carla Sonheim’s Kid’s Week. B. Thrive Art School. C. Udemy. D. Sparketh. 3. What is special about Sparketh? A. Its classes are free. B. It offers classes to kids of all ages. C. Its classes are graded. D. It allows kids to upload their works. B Kevin Beard is my class instructor. I was shocked when I arrived one day to find him standing in front of the room telling a story, with tears streaming down his cheeks. I was worried something had gone terribly wrong in his life, but as I listened to him talk, I heard him use words like “amazing” and “accomplishment.” I realized his tears weren’t out of sorrow, but happiness. Just a few days earlier, he’d received his GED (General Equivalency Diploma), at the age of 52. Having dyslexia (阅读障碍), Kevin left school at a young age and then managed to support himself by taking odd jobs. In his mid-30s, Kevin finally landed an opportunity for a job with some promise: working for a sheriff’s department (治安部门). Amazingly, when he came clean with them about his education, they said they’d hire him as long as he got his GED. He agreed, optimistic about this new career potential, and kind of excited about giving school another chance. Kevin studied with a tutor, and he did it for more than a decade, learning and practicing and correcting his mistakes, every free moment he had, often late into the night. It was a huge challenge, something Kevin compares to “climbing a mountain.” In fact, as Kevin took tests along the way, he did something interesting with each of his results. He posted them on his bedroom wall so that he could watch his progress. “I needed to see myself moving forward, and I wanted to speak, ” he said. Finally, he made it. “I can’t really describe what it’s like to finally achieve this,” he said. “I can hardly even put it into words. People are giving me graduation gifts! It’s a dream come true.” This might sound like a perfect ending. But for Kevin, it’s a new beginning. He’s on a roll, and his next step is college. “Now that I’ve accomplished my GED, I’m hungry for education,” he said. 4. Why did Kevin cry in the classroom? A. He was worried about his job. B. He had reached one of his goals. C. He was moved by a touching movie. D. He had experienced something terrible. 5. What do the underlined words “came clean” mean in Paragraph 2? A. Told the truth B. Passed a test C. Started a new job D. Achieved a clean record 6. How did Kevin encourage himself to keep going to get his GED? A. By doing things that interest him. B. By writing himself encouraging words. C. By reporting his test results to his tutor. D. By reminding himself of his improvement. 7. What can we learn from Kevin’s story? A. Easy come, easy go. B. Grasp all, lose all. C. Where there’s a will, there’s a way. D. The early bird catches the worm. C Many strawberry farmers prefer to remove natural habitat around their farms to keep wild birds, and any bacteria they carry, away from their fields and crops. However a new study published in 2022 shows that farms with surrounding natural habitat experience the most benefits from birds, including less crop damage and lower food-safety risks. The study was conducted at 21 strawberry fields along California’s Central Coast. It found that birds were more likely to carry bacteria and eat berries without surrounding natural habitat. For the study scientists looked at the analysis of 1,000 fecal (排泄物) samples from 55 bird species, combined with data from more than 300 bird surveys. They used the information to figure out what each bird was eating - be it pests, beneficial insects or crops-as well as which birds were carrying bacteria. Using this data, the scientists then ranked wild birds to see which were more likely to bring most benefits or costs to farmlands. Barn swallows, for example, were ranked beneficial to farmland. But the results were more than creating a list of “good” and “bad” birds. The study found that most bird species brought both costs and benefits to farms, depending on how the surrounding land was managed. The presence of natural habitat was the single most important factor differentiating a farm where wild birds brought more benefits than harm. And farms with surrounding natural habitat for birds constantly saw less damage and fewer bacteria problems than others. The study was part of a series of research conducted in Daniel Karp’s lab at University of California, Davis, all focusing on the impact and importance of maintaining natural habitat for wildlife surrounding farmland. A related study in 2020 also found that farms with natural habitat attracted more insect-eating birds and fewer strawberry-eating birds so that farmers experience less berry damage on farms with more habitat nearby. 8. What is the finding of the new study in 2022? A. Wild birds in farms decrease food-safety risks. B. Natural habitat near farms reduces crop damage C. Birds in natural habitat carry more bacteria to farms. D. Farms neighboring natural habitat benefit most from birds. 9. Which of the following was a research step in the study? A. Analyzing 55 bird species. B. Conducting 300 bird surveys. C. Finding out what wild birds eat. D Ranking birds according to how they eat. 10. What determined the impact that birds brought to farms? A. Presence of neighboring farmlands. B. Management of the surrounding land. C. Location of natural habitat for wildlife. D. Species of wild birds that lived near farms. 11. Why is a related study in 2020 mentioned in the last paragraph? A. To draw a conclusion. B. To make a comparison. C. To support the research finding. D. To give background information. D Las Vegas city in Nevada is built in a desert. The city may be known to the world for its partying. But officials have found that there are 21 square kilometers of useless grass. The grass is never laid on, played on or even stepped on. The grass is only there to look nice. Now, the city is asking the Nevada state legislature (立法机构) to ban useless grass. It is trying to become the first place in America to ban that kind of grass often seen between streets, in housing developments and in office parks. Useless grass nearly makes up 40% of all the grass in Las Vegas and it needs lots of water to survive. Grass needs four times more water than dry climate plants. By tearing out the grass, the city could reduce yearly water usage by 15%. In 2003, the Southern Nevada Water Authority banned developers from planting grass in front of new homes. It also offered homeowners $30 for each square meter of grass they tear out. But fewer people are now using the program. Water usage has increased here by 9% since 2019. And last year, Las Vegas set a record of 240 days without major rainfall. The Colorado River provides much of Nevada’s drinking water. The river could lose more water as climate change affects it. Water officials in other dry cities said water usage needs to be reduced. But they fear the reaction to reforms like the ones in Las Vegas if their communities do not accept them. Cynthia Campbell is the water resources adviser for the city of Phoenix in Arizona. “The city restrictions (限制) may get too hard for some residents (居民). They’ll say that is the point of no return for them,” Campbell said. “For some people, it’s a pool. For some people, it’s grass.” 12. Why does Las Vegas city try to ban useless grass? A. To protect the local people. B. To beautify the city. C. To reduce water usage. D. To reduce waste. 13. What program was carried out in Las Vegas in 2003? A. Allowing planting grass before new houses. B. Awarding those who reduced water usage. C. Praising those who signed on the program. D. Encouraging the residents to tear out grass. 14. What does Campbell mean in the last paragraph? A. Many residents won’t follow the ban. B. Reaction to the reform will vary personally. C. Water officials should consider many factors. D. Other measures should be taken to protect water. 15. Which of the following could be the best title for the text? A. Las Vegas Plans to Ban Useless Grass B. A Method Is Adopted to Save Las Vegas C. Choices between Beauty and Practice D. Grass Is Important but Useless in Las Vegas 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Social media is a double-edged sword. It can be good or bad, depending on how people use it. Here are several ways to help one use it responsibly. ____16____ Social media can be a big waste of time if you spend most of your day looking through what other people post, commenting on and liking things, or looking at every message on your device. Instead, you should learn to practice some self-control and limit your usage every day. ____17____ Afterward, set an amount of time for your social media use, such as 10 minutes every time. Think twice before posting something. Materials posted on social media are often more lasting than you think. And even if your post is deleted words and images you upload on these platforms can remain online and be difficult to remove. ____18____ Therefore, before posting something online, consider if it would negatively affect others. If it is, then don’t post it. ____19____ This can destroy your reputation or others’. Learn to check the truth of things that you see. Some of the things you see on social media might not necessarily be true, especially when it comes to news and information. You may immediately believe what you see and read. The danger of this behavior is that you might be spreading misinformation if you share what you have seen before checking the truth of the post. ____20____ Check from other sources whether what you have seen and read is true. Ask opinions from other people. A. Follow those that matter to you. B. Don’t let social media eat all your time. C. And you never know where they might end up. D. What’s more, avoid posting unprofessional photos or bad comments. E. Social media can have a powerful impact on a person’s emotional state. F. Just make it a practice to research the accuracy of any information or image. G. For example, try setting specific times per day when you check your social media accounts. 第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 My teaching workmate Selena and I had just read the last book about Midwest pioneer life to our third graders. “Why don’t you travel to all those places we read about?” she asked. Me, travel? Sure, I ____21____ seeing other people’s photos of faraway lands. But I certainly didn’t ____22____ any of that pioneer spirit of taking off into the unknown. ____23____, that long journey would take money for travel, lodging, and meals. Unless someone paid for all those ____24____ items, that road trip wasn’t happening anytime soon. But I couldn’t get her ____25____ out of my mind. I ____26____ actually being at all the places I had only read about. Not long afterward, I ____27____ a brochure advertising a teacher creativity fellowship program for the summer. I talked over the program with Selena and then handed in my ____28____. Two months later, my application was approved, which made Selena so ____29____. Then, reality hit me. I was going to be traveling! All alone! I was ____30____ to take the first step of the journey. However, with fear on the inside, I ____31____. I couldn’t fall asleep on the first night. I seriously thought about going back to Indiana. I called Selena and she said, “For the teachers and students at school, you are our feet. We will go with you in____32____wherever you go!” So I kept in mind that those at school were depending on me. I couldn’t say that the____33____left me altogether, but I started on my travels the next morning. After that____34____,I often traveled to unfamiliar locations. My life changed due to a ____35____ teacher. 21. A. delayed B. admitted C. enjoyed D. avoided 22. A. have B. waste C. remember D. assess 23. A. Otherwise B. Moreover C. However D. Therefore 24. A. typical B. temporary C. original D. necessary 25. A. suggestion B. excuse C. doubt D. complaint 26. A. risked B. imagined C. disliked D. escaped 27. A. criticized B. created C. noticed D. completed 28. A. application B. equipment C. luggage D. souvenir 29. A. embarrassed B. confused C. discouraged D. delighted 30. A. prepared B. impatient C. unwilling D. suitable 31. A. set off B. put off C. cut off D. show off 32. A. time B. spirit C. function D. truth 33. A. need B. chance C. effort D. fear 34. A. attack B. loss C. trip D. class 35 A. stubborn B. strict C. passionate D. wise 第II卷（非选择题，共55分） 注意：将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Beijing announced on February 17th, 2025 that it will increase both the duration and quality of physical education in primary and secondary schools. ____36____ (issue) by the government, the announcement orders daily physical education classes for all primary and middle school students, with high school students ____37____ (have) three to five classes per week and at least 45 minutes of daily exercise on non-PE days. The plans mainly consider student health and stress ____38____ importance of physical education. ____39____ (previous), first and second graders had four PE classes weekly, third to ninth graders had three, and high school students had two. The increased time aims ____40____ (help) students develop sports skills, exercise habits, improve physical ____41____ (fit), and strengthen mental well-being. The curriculum (课程) ____42____ (change) require primary and middle schools to include at least one major ball sport in PE classes, while high schools should offer unit teaching in these sports.Schools specializing in ice and snow sports must add these activities ____43____ their syllabi (教学大纲). Students ____44____ (expect) to master at least two sports skills by the end of their middle school, and schools should introduce class-level sports competitions. These measures match China’s broader educational goals, ____45____ call for primary and middle school students to take part in at least two hours of physical activity per day. 第四部分 书面表达（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 应用文写作（满分15分） 46. 假如你是校英语社团 (the English Club) 负责人李华，打算在全校发起讲英语故事大赛。请你写一则通知。内容包括： 1.活动目的与安排； 2.呼吁报名参加。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Notice ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节 读后续写（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 I still remember the day when we decorated the house, I was ten and it was two weeks before Christmas. I was looking forward to my presents. Since I’m the youngest in the family, all of the family members would give me a gift one way or another. Sometimes it was a cookie or a hug but it was always there. I was the only center of attention and it was feeling good. My uncles usually would ask me what I wanted before Christmas and that year I knew what I wanted. It was the spaceship I saw in the ads. I was dreaming of opening a big gift box, and it was there. But that year it came in a way that I wasn’t expecting. It was two weeks before Christmas. Just two weeks. She couldn’t wait. My dear mother told my father that it was time, and then we went to the hospital. After an hour, they told me that I had a sister now. But I didn’t want a sister. I wanted a spaceship. The next few days went so fast. No one was caring about me. Everyone was talking about her and I knew that my life is never going to be the same ever again. I wasn’t ready to grow up, to be a big brother. But it just happened in an instant. On the day before Christmas, everyone was in our home, talking only about my newborn sister. My family was becoming hers. Even my uncles didn’t ask me anything about the gift. She stole everything I’d ever had, my life and my presents. Thinking about this, I cried to sleep. I had a nightmare (噩梦) and woke up at the middle of the night. Shadows were all around me, and I was defenseless and so weak. I ran into my parents’ bedroom but couldn’t wake up my poor parents who were just too worn out. I was standing near their bed, trying not to cry when I saw her. She was awake and looking at me with her big eyes in her small bed. 注意： 1. 续写词数应为150左右; 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Suddenly a long shadow came into the bedroom and she started crying. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ After having comforted her, something slowly changed inside me. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 合江中学高2024级高一下期期中考试 英语试题 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．本试卷分为第I卷（选择题）和第II卷（非选择题）两部分。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．考生作答时，选择题用2B铅笔将答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑，其余各题用0.5毫米黑色墨迹签字笔将答案写在答题卡上，在本试卷、草稿纸上答题无效。 3．全卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第I卷（选择题 共95分） 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试题上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1．What will the man drink today? A．Coffee. B．Milk. C．Tea. 2．What does the woman suggest the man do? A．Play football. B．Play badminton. C．Go running. 3．Who is Jane Fleming probably? A．A news reporter. B．A firefighter. C．A policewoman. 4．What is the purpose of the group task? A．To practice thinking skills B．To improve writing skills. C．To develop communication skills. 5．How does the woman feel? A．Happy. B．Curious. C．Careless. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6．What color does the air turn finally? A．Yellow. B．Orange. C．Red. 7．What is the next class? A．Art. B．Maths. C．Chemistry. 听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。 8．What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A．Strangers. B．Friends. C．Relatives. 9．What will the man probably do tomorrow morning? A．Stay at the hotel. B．Travel to another city. C．Go to the bank. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10．Why isn’t Anna in the group anymore? A．She moved away. B．She became sick. C．She joined another group. 11．How many members did the group have at first? A．Four. B．Five. C．Six. 12．What is the woman’s final suggestion? A．Working harder. B．Talking to the manager. C．Getting new members. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13．Where does the conversation probably take place? A．In a camera shop. B．In a pet care center. C．In a photo studio. 14．What is David known for? A．His photos of animals. B．His photos of babies. C．His photos of houses. 15．What do we know about the man’s cat? A．It is a friendly cat. B．It is an indoor cat. C．It is a black cat. 16．How much will the photo-taking cost? A．$150. B．$115. C．$100. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17．What’s the topic of today’s school radio broadcast? A．Seasons. B．Sports. C．Music. 18．Which sport does the speaker like best probably? A．Baseball. B．Football. C．Basketball. 19．In which season is baseball the most popular? A．Spring. B．Summer. C．Fall. 20．What does the speaker say about American football? A．It’s hard to understand for some people. B．It isn’t popular anymore. C．It’s easy to play. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. C 3. D B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. B 5. A 6. D 7. C C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. C 10. B 11. C D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. C 13. D 14. B 15. A 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. G 18. C 19. D 20. F 第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. C 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. C 35. D 第II卷（非选择题，共55分） 注意：将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. Issued 37. having 38. the 39. Previously 40. to help 41. fitness 42. changes 43. to 44. are expected 45. which 第四部分 书面表达（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 应用文写作（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】 Notice To enhance students’ interest in English, our school is going to initiate an English story-telling contest. Here are some details about this activity. The contest will be held in the school auditorium, from 4:00 pm to 6:00 pm, next Friday afternoon. Five foreign teachers working at our school will serve as judges. Those who are interested are welcome to participate. Please sign up at the English Club by this Friday afternoon. We are convinced that this activity will be a great success. Let’s seize the opportunity to make progress together! 第二节 读后续写（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】 Suddenly a long shadow came into the bedroom and she started crying. Panic at first, I then realized that it was just a car passing by. But she felt uneasy, her mouth wide opening, arms waving, and legs kicking. I thought she might be scared too, so I held out my hand to hold hers, patting her on the back with the other. I even moved a bit closer to her little bed, whispering my favorite song to her ears, just as my mum did when I got scared. Surprisingly, she seemed to understand me and stopped crying. Looking into her big eyes, I breathed a sigh of relief. After having comforted her, something slowly changed inside me. The sense of loneliness was replaced by the responsibility of being an elder brother. Even though her arrival took over the center of the whole family initially, she started to become the center of my attention too. With her cute round face and sparkling eyes, she also won my love and care for her. I looked around and found my parents, awake, smiling at me. With a shadow of a happy family cast on the window, I felt my little sister was the best gift I'd ever got. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$