湖北省黄冈市2024-2025学年九年级下学期3月月考英语试题

2025年春季湖北省优质初中、名校联盟 九年级第一次联考英语试卷 （考试时间：120分钟 满分：120分） 命题组：黄冈市启黄中学 温馨提醒： 1．答卷前，请将自己的姓名、班级、考号等信息准确填写在指定位置。 2．请保持卷面的整洁，书写工整、美观。 3．请认真审题，仔细答题，诚信应考，乐观自信，相信你一定会取得满意的成绩！ 听力部分（30分） 第一节 听短对话，选择图片。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7分） 下面你将听到5段对话，根据你所听到的内容，从所给的A、B、C、D、E、F六个选项中，选出与你所听内容相符的图片。听完每段对话后，你将有5秒钟的时间作答，每段对话听一遍。 A. B. C. D. E. F. 1. ______ 2. ______ 3. ______ 4. ______ 5. ______ 第二节 听短对话，选择答案。（共5个小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 下面你将听到5段对话。根据你所听到的内容，从所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出回答问题的最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间作答和阅读下一小题。每段对话听两遍。 6. What’s the pronunciation of the word? A. /dɒg/ B. /deɪt/ C. /daʊt/ 7. Which homework has Tina done? A. Math. B. Science. C. Geography. 8. Who is in hospital? A. Mike. B. Tony. C. Alice. 9. What’s the boy’s father doing now? A. Cutting the grass. B. Fixing the computer. C. Working in the office. 10. How long does it take to walk to the city museum? A. 10 minutes. B. 15 minutes. C. 20 minutes. 第三节 听长对话，选择答案。（共7个小题，每小题1.5分，满分10.5分） 下面你将听到3段长对话。根据你所听到的内容，从所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出回答问题的最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完对话后，每小题有5秒钟的时间作答。每段对话听两遍。 听第一段长对话，回答第11至12小题。 11. What would they like to drink? A. A cup of coffee. B. A glass of orange juice. C. Both A and B. 12. Where may this conversation happen? A. In a restaurant. B. At home. C. In a shop. 听第二段长对话，回答第13至14小题。 13. Why does the boy call English Help Center? A. He wants to join it. B. He wants to improve his English. C. He wants to find a pen pal. 14. What’s the boy not good at? A. Listening and speaking. B. Reading and writing. C. Grammar. 听第三段长对话，回答第15至17小题。 15. What’s the matter with Ann? A. She has a sore back. B. She has a fever. C. She has a headache. 16. How will she go to the doctor’s? A. By car. B. On foot. C. By bike. 17. What time must she get there? A. At 8:45. B. At 9:00. C. At 9:15. 第四节 听短文，填写表格。（共3个小题，每小题1.5分，满分4.5分） 下面你将听到一段短文。根据你所听到的内容，填写表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。听短文前，你将有15秒钟的时间浏览表格。听完后，你将有30秒钟的时间作答。短文听两遍。 A school trip to Happy Farm Time The 18.______ week of next month Activities On Monday Climb mountains and have a picnic On Tuesday Visit an 19.______ On Wednesday Visit the local villages On Thursday 20.______ vegetables and have a party 笔试部分（90分） 一、完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Last night, Frank had a dream about the coming math test, which troubled him very much these days. So he was in a ____1____ mood (心情) when he woke up. Uncle Robin once told Frank about “white noise”—noise made by a fan or soft rain is a(n) ____2____ of white noise. Frank had tried it and it really worked! After that, whenever he felt worried about something, he would ____3____ white noise with his headphones. With the ____4____ of the math test still in his mind, Frank went to get his headphones. He ____5____ he had left them on his desk, but they were gone. His little brother Andy was always ____6____ his things—without asking. He ran into his brother’s room and started shouting at him in ____7____. “Where are my headphones? You can’t just take my things! Or I’ll take yours!” He grabbed (抓起) one of his brother’s toys and ____8____ it on the ground, breaking it into two pieces. Andy started to ____9____, and Frank stormed out, feeling better. Frank’s mom heard the shouting and went into Andy’s room. “Hey,” she said ____10____, “stop for a second and tell me how you’re feeling.” Mom never shouted. Frank knew that she thought it was better to talk about ____11____ instead of getting angry. “He always does this, Mom!” Frank shouted. “I’ll have a math test…and…and I had a bad dream…” Frank ____12____ shouting. In a calm (平静的) voice, he said, “I ____13____ what I did was bad. I’m sorry, Andy. I really get mad ____14____ you take things without asking, but breaking your toy wasn’t ____15____. I will buy you a new one.” Frank’s mom said, “Well done, Frank, and, Andy, ask first next time, OK?” “OK, I’m sorry too,” said Andy and they all smiled. 1. A. bad B. cheerful C. peaceful D. strange 2. A. list B. gift C. example D. introduction 3. A. talk about B. listen to C. turn down D. wait for 4. A. results B. thoughts C. prizes D. purposes 5. A. expected B. decided C. discovered D. remembered 6. A. repairing B. cleaning C. breaking D. borrowing 7. A. anger B. fear C. shame D. surprise 8. A. tied B. burnt C. threw D. placed 9. A. cry B. rest C. help D. share 10. A. sadly B. shyly C. softly D. bravely 11. A. dreams B. habits C. choices D. feelings 12. A. kept B. stopped C. enjoyed D. practiced 13. A. wish B. know C. hear D. promise 14. A. unless B. before C. when D. though 15. A. right B. easy C. enough D. crazy 二、阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读三篇短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个与短文内容相符的最佳选项。 A AN IMPORTANT NOTICE The English Club is going to hold a tongue twister (绕口令) competition at the School English Festival this year. On March 8th, we will post twenty tongue twisters. You will have one week to practice. The competition will be held on March 15th. THE PROCESS OF THE COMPETITION √You will choose one of the twenty tongue twisters by drawing lots (抽签). √You will need to perform the chosen tongue twister. √The leaders of the club will be the judges (评委). √Making fewer mistakes and reading it quickly are the key to getting a higher score! WHAT YOU CAN GET the 1st place: You can get a schoolbag; the 2nd place: You can get an English novel; the 3rd place: You can get a pencil box; ABOUT THE JUDGES If you don’t know how to do it properly, don’t worry! The judges will read all the twenty tongue twisters at the beginning of the competition. If a judge makes a mistake, he or she will have to sing a song in front of everyone. We can make sure that this competition will be full of fun. 16. When will the competition be held? A. On March 1st. B. On March 8th. C. On March 9th. D. On March 15th. 17. What is the secret to getting a higher score in the competition? A. Choosing an easy tongue twister. B. Turning the tongue twister into a song. C. Reading the tongue twister correctly and quickly. D. Being polite to the judges and classmates. 18. If you win the 2nd place, what prize will you get? A. A notebook. B. A schoolbag. C. A pencil box. D. An English novel. 19. Why will the judges read all the tongue twisters in the beginning? A. To give an example. B. To show that they are good at them. C. To make students relaxed. D. To explain the tongue twisters are easy. 20. The passage is ________. A. a poem B. a poster C. a story D. a letter B One day, Andy was taking a walk and happened to pass by a beautiful farm. He noticed a farmer standing by the farm, looking worried. Andy was so curious that he spoke to the farmer. “Why do you look so worried? Have you planted wheat (小麦)?” Andy asked. The farmer slowly shook his head. His face was marked with worry as he spoke, “I’ve noticed that the weather isn’t great and I’m worried that if it rains, the newly planted wheat might get wet. There’s a chance it won’t sprout at all, or even worse, it could rot (腐烂) in the soil.” Andy nodded in understanding and then asked, “Then, have you planted cotton?” The farmer thought for a time, and he said once again, “No. I’m worried about the insects this season. Those troublesome things might come and cause damage (破坏) to the newly planted cotton. I simply can’t take that risk.” Andy was surprised and asked again, “So, what have you planted then?” The farmer let out a heavy sigh and replied, “I haven’t planted anything. I want to make sure that there’s no chance of rain ruining (毁坏) my crops (庄稼) and no insects to destroy them.” There is no doubt that effective planning is a key driver of success. However, if you wish to do something, it is not a good idea to just think about it. You can plan and consider for a long time, but there comes a point when action is important. 21. What did Andy notice about the farmer? A. He looked worried. B. He stopped Andy from walking. C. He was expecting the rain. D. He was busy working in the field. 22. Why hadn’t the farmer planted wheat? A. He didn’t have enough farmland. B. He worried about not having enough rain. C. He preferred to plant other crops instead. D. He was afraid the weather would cause problems. 23. What does the word “sprout” most probably mean? A. Grow and develop B. Disappear C. Become dry D. Stay the same 24. What worried the farmer about planting cotton? A. The poor conditions of the land. B. The risk of insects ruining the cotton. C. The change of seasons influencing the crops. D. The little experience for growing the crops. 25. Which of the following is the best title for the story? A. The Farmer’s Perfect Plan B. Andy’s Walk in the Countryside C. Taking Action: The Key to Success D. The Dangers of Farming C Imagine this: You jump into a car on a weekend morning, and it takes you to where you want to go without needing any directions. When it drops you off, it drives itself back home, so you don’t have to worry about parking. This is what self-driving cars can do. A self-driving car, also called a driverless car, is a car that can sense its surroundings (周围环境) and drive without human help. Depending on how advanced (先进的) the car is, it might need different levels of human help. At the highest levels, a person might not need to control the car at all. But at lower levels, a person might still need to help with sometimes. However making self-driving cars isn’t simple. It’s a whole system with different parts that need care. Things like road conditions influence it. Although making self-driving cars takes a lot of time and money, the advantages are worth it. For example, these cars could cause fewer road accidents. A study shows that 94% of car accidents happen because of drivers’ mistakes. This means spending less money on medical bills (账单), less missed work and fewer car repairs. Self-driving cars can also give more freedom to people who are disabled. Besides, these cars could use less fuel (汽油) and produce less pollution by cutting down on traffic jams (堵塞) and not running when they’re not needed. Many big companies such as Baidu and Tesla are making self-driving cars. Wired magazine said this technology could add $7 trillion to the world economy soon. Goldman Sachs, a global investment bank, said that by 2030, 10% of new car sales could be self-driving cars. 26. What is the main idea of Paragraph 1? A. To teach how to park a self-driving car. B. To explain how to drive a self-driving car. C. To tell where you can buy a self-driving car. D. To introduce what self-driving cars can do. 27. Why might a self-driving car still need help from a human, according to Paragraph 2? A. The car is new to the road. B. The car is not advanced enough yet. C. The car cannot communicate with its passengers. D. The car is still learning how to work with humans. 28. How can self-driving cars help make fewer road accidents? A. By parking in the right places. B. By avoiding traffic jams. C. By making fewer drivers’ mistakes. D. By not running when not needed. 29. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of self-driving cars? A. Spending less money on medical bills and car repairs. B. Giving more freedom to disabled people. C. Interesting many young people. D. Using less fuel and producing less pollution. 30. According to Goldman Sachs, the future of self-driving cars is ______. A. bright B. unknown C. dangerous D. worrying 第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读短文，从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯。选项中有一项为多余选项。 Thanks to better health care, most people are living healthier and longer lives. Someone who is born today can expect to live about thirty-five years longer than someone who was born in the nineteenth century. It’s even thought that in the future more and more people will celebrate their hundredth birthdays. ____31____ Get off the sofa! Sure, it’s comfortable to sit on the sofa and watch TV. But doctors say you should get off the sofa. To keep fit, you have to walk at least 10,000 steps every day. ____32____ They often had to walk for miles every day. When farmers were working, they were keeping fit at the same time. Think about it: Do you get the same amount of exercise today as they did in the past? Eat healthy food! It is important to eat fruit that is fresh and natural, for example, fruit and vegetables. ____33____ You should only have it once in a while. Eating too much of the wrong food will harm your health. Rest while you can! ____34____ Teenagers do not need as much sleep as babies, but it’s important for you to get about eight hours’ sleep a night. At weekends, you’ve got more time, so use it not just for your friends, but for rest too. ____35____ Many people believe that happiness is important for our general health. Sometimes it is not easy to be a teenager because of the difficulties of school, exams or friendships. If you’re worried about something, talk to your parents or your teacher. A. In the past, people’s jobs required more physical effort. B. Fast food is not healthy. C. When we were babies, we slept for much of the night. D Here are four rules for a healthy life. E. Try to be happy! F. Rest is just as important as exercise for a healthy life. 三、短文填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读短文，从方框中选出正确的词并用其适当形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。 history with I complete and amazing popular bring visit symbol If you visit Wuhan, one of the most famous landmarks you must see is the Yellow Crane Tower (黄鹤楼). It stands on the banks of the Yangtze River at the top of Snake Hill ____36____ is surprisingly beautiful. It is one of the most ____37____ tourist attractions in Hubei Province. The ____38____ of the Yellow Crane Tower goes back to the Three Kingdoms period. It was first built in 223 AD as a watchtower for military purposes. Over the centuries the tower was destroyed (摧毁) and reconstructed (重建) many times. During the Ming and Qing dynasties, it was destroyed seven times, but each time it was ____39____ back to life again. In 1884, a fire completely destroyed the tower. It was not until 1981 that the tower was once again rebuilt, and the project took four years to ____40____. The tower we see today is based on the design from the Qing Dynasty. The reason why Yellow Crane Tower is so famous has a lot to do ____41____ a widespread poem written by Chinese poet Cui Hao in Tang Dynasty. Named “Yellow Crane Tower”, the poem has made the tower widely known across China. Later, another great Tang Dynasty poet, Li Bai, ____42____ the tower and wanted to write a poem about it too. However, after reading Cui Hao’s work, Li Bai felt that he couldn’t write anything better. He famously said, “In front of Cui Hao’s poem, I can only put down ____43____ pen.” Today, the Yellow Crane Tower is not only a ____44____ of Wuhan but also a place where people can enjoy the ____45____ view of the Yangtze River and the city. 四、读写结合（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 任务型阅读 阅读短文，用英文填空或回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。 Mrs. Li is over seventy years old. She has lived in Beijing all her life. I asked her about life today and in the past. What was your life like in the past? My family lived in a tiny house. There were no electric lights only candles. My father was a postman, and he often worked twelve hours a day outside in the winter cold or in the summer heat. My mum was a farm girl before she met my father. She was a kind and loving mother. She didn’t go out to work. There were five children in my family, and looking after us was more than a full-time job. I remember the family meals. The food was simple. We could only eat meat once or twice a year. I wasn’t sent to school because my family couldn’t afford it, and what’s more, because I was a girl. How has life changed? Families have got smaller than they were in the past. Today most people only have one child! The role of women has changed too. My daughter is really lucky. She has a good education, and she goes to work even after getting married. I’m happy to see she’s busy working every day, but sometimes I feel lonely because she can’t come to see me often. Transport and travel are easier today. When I was young, I went everywhere on foot or sometimes by bike. Now you can take the bus everywhere, and there’s also the underground. And you young people can take a plane to anywhere in the world. The only thing I don’t like, though, is that there’s so much more traffic. It’s so difficult to cross the road. Of course, we didn’t have television when I was a child. I really enjoy watching television today. There’re so many good programmes, like the Beijing Opera and old films. But some of the shows are too noisy for me. Generally speaking, I think life is better today. We eat better and we live longer. 46. The passage is mainly about ________. (不超过10个词) 47. Fill in the blanks according to the passage. Life in the past Life now Family Size Larger Smaller Role of Women Women usually did not go to school or work outside. Women can receive ________ and work. (不超过三个词) Transportation ________ or cycling (仅填一词) Taking buses, subways, and air-planes Entertainment No television Television and many programs 48. Mrs. Li doesn’t like today’s traffic because it’s ________ to cross the road. (不超过五个词) 49. Can you think of some ways to make Mrs. Li feel less lonely? Give at least one suggestion. ________________________________ 第二节 书面表达 50. 今年5月第五届“中国好家风”全国启动仪式在北京隆重举行。传承优秀家风是中华民族家国情怀的重要体现，为响应号召，你校校报英语专栏将举办“孝敬长辈，从我做起”的主题征文活动。请根据以下的结构图提示，结合自己的生活，写一篇不少于80词的短文，向该专栏投稿。 注意：1．文章开头已给出，不计入总词数；2．文章应包含所给要点提示，可适当发挥；3．文章语句通顺，行文连贯；4．文中不得出现真实的人名、校名和地名。 参考词汇：virtue (n.美德) raise (v.养育) educate (v.教育) Love and Respect the Elders As we all know, respecting and caring for our elders is not only a traditional Chinese virtue but also our duty. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025年春季湖北省优质初中、名校联盟 九年级第一次联考英语试卷 （考试时间：120分钟 满分：120分） 命题组：黄冈市启黄中学 温馨提醒： 1．答卷前，请将自己的姓名、班级、考号等信息准确填写在指定位置。 2．请保持卷面的整洁，书写工整、美观。 3．请认真审题，仔细答题，诚信应考，乐观自信，相信你一定会取得满意的成绩！ 听力部分（30分） 第一节 听短对话，选择图片。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7分） 下面你将听到5段对话，根据你所听到的内容，从所给的A、B、C、D、E、F六个选项中，选出与你所听内容相符的图片。听完每段对话后，你将有5秒钟的时间作答，每段对话听一遍。 A. B. C. D. E. F. 1. ______ 2. ______ 3. ______ 4. ______ 5. ______ 第二节 听短对话，选择答案。（共5个小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 下面你将听到5段对话。根据你所听到的内容，从所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出回答问题的最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间作答和阅读下一小题。每段对话听两遍。 6. What’s the pronunciation of the word? A. /dɒg/ B. /deɪt/ C. /daʊt/ 7. Which homework has Tina done? A. Math. B. Science. C. Geography. 8. Who is in hospital? A. Mike. B. Tony. C. Alice. 9. What’s the boy’s father doing now? A. Cutting the grass. B. Fixing the computer. C. Working in the office. 10. How long does it take to walk to the city museum? A. 10 minutes. B. 15 minutes. C. 20 minutes. 第三节 听长对话，选择答案。（共7个小题，每小题1.5分，满分10.5分） 下面你将听到3段长对话。根据你所听到的内容，从所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出回答问题的最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完对话后，每小题有5秒钟的时间作答。每段对话听两遍。 听第一段长对话，回答第11至12小题。 11. What would they like to drink? A. A cup of coffee. B. A glass of orange juice. C. Both A and B. 12. Where may this conversation happen? A. In a restaurant. B. At home. C. In a shop. 听第二段长对话，回答第13至14小题。 13. Why does the boy call English Help Center? A. He wants to join it. B. He wants to improve his English. C. He wants to find a pen pal. 14. What’s the boy not good at? A. Listening and speaking. B. Reading and writing. C. Grammar. 听第三段长对话，回答第15至17小题。 15. What’s the matter with Ann? A. She has a sore back. B. She has a fever. C. She has a headache. 16. How will she go to the doctor’s? A. By car. B. On foot. C. By bike. 17. What time must she get there? A. At 8:45. B. At 9:00. C. At 9:15. 第四节 听短文，填写表格。（共3个小题，每小题1.5分，满分4.5分） 下面你将听到一段短文。根据你所听到的内容，填写表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。听短文前，你将有15秒钟的时间浏览表格。听完后，你将有30秒钟的时间作答。短文听两遍。 A school trip to Happy Farm Time The 18.______ week of next month Activities On Monday Climb mountains and have a picnic On Tuesday Visit an 19.______ On Wednesday Visit the local villages On Thursday 20.______ vegetables and have a party 笔试部分（90分） 一、完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【1~15题答案】 【答案】1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. A 二、阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读三篇短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个与短文内容相符的最佳选项。 A 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. D 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. B B 【21~25题答案】 【答案】21. A 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. C C 【26~30题答案】 【答案】26. D 27. B 28. C 29. C 30. A 第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读短文，从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯。选项中有一项为多余选项。 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. D 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. E 三、短文填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. and 37. popular 38. history 39. brought 40. complete 41. with 42. visited 43. my 44. symbol 45. amazing 四、读写结合（共两节，满分25分） 【46~50题答案】 【答案】46. the changes of Mrs. Li’s life 47. ①. education ②. walking 48 so difficult 49. Mrs. Li can join a community club or take up a hobby to meet new people and stay busy. 50. 例文 Love and Respect the Elders As we all know, respecting and caring for our elders is not only a traditional Chinese virtue but also our duty. They look after us when we are young, raise us with patience, educate us to become better people and send us to school. So we need to respect and love them. First of all, we can help our elders do chores. Then, we can share our school life with them. We need to communicate more with the elders to help them understand our lives better. Next, we can send them birthday presents. Finally, during our holidays, we can spend more time with them. In my opinion, we should not only realize that loving and respecting the elders is a traditional virtue in our minds, but also express our love and respect to them in daily life. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$