精品解析：山东省济南市莱芜区2024-2025学年九年级上学期期末考试英语试题

2024—2025学年度第一学期期末考试九年级 英语试题 (本试卷共12页，满分150分，考试用时120分钟。) 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力 (共四节，满分30分) 第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听录音。从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. A. Happy new year! B. Go to bed earlier. C. Stop riding in cars. 2. A. Are you happy? B. Does Mary like music? C. May I come in? 3. A. I can’t find my schoolbag. B. It isn’t far from here. C. Lucy doesn’t work there. 4. A. They are exercising now. B. The book is interesting. C. She was born in May. 5. A. What caused the pollution? B. Who is the girl? C. When will you finish it? 第二节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. How will the weather be this afternoon? A. Sunny. B. Windy. C. Rainy. 7. What’s Jack’s favorite sport? A. Baseball. B. Tennis. C. Ping-pong. 8. What did Tony think of the movie? A. It was boring. B. It was funny. C. It was terrible. 9. When will the museum open? A. At 8:45 a. m. B. At 9:00 a. m. C. At 9:15 a. m. 10. Who did Ted visit? A. His uncle. B. His grandparents. C. His brother. 第三节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A 、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间：听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. What is the woman? A. A doctor. B. A reporter. C. A nurse. 12. What’s the date today? A. April 21st. B. April 22nd. C. April 2nd. 13. What activity will be held? A. A talent show. B. A clothing show. C. An art show. 14. What is the tree made of? A. Used milk boxes. B. Old ties. C. Fallen leaves. 15. Why does the boy want to make a tree? A. Because trees are a symbol of life. B. Because he likes trees. C. Because he wants to call on people to plant more trees. 第四节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间：听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16. How old was Alan when he started writing stories? A. Six. B. Seven. C. Eight. 17. Who encouraged Alan to enter the writing competition? A. His parents. B. His friend. C. His teacher. 18. Where does Alan usually write? A. On the school bus. B. In the school library. C. In his classroom. 19 What does Alan use to keep his ideas for stories? A. A notebook. B. A computer. C. A smartphone. 20. What does Alan want to be in the future? A. A writer. B. An engineer. C. A teacher. 第二部分 阅读 (共两节，满分50分) 第一节 阅读理解 (共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Welcome to the Science Festival! Are you interested in inventions? If so, please join in the 2024 Science Festival in our school. During the festival, you’re encouraged to bring and introduce your inventions to teachers and students. Of course you can also learn about interesting and useful inventions created by other students. What are you waiting for? The theme of 2024 Science Festival: Inventions make our life more comfortable. Schedule (安排表) The Science Festival dates December 9th-10th Students and teachers can go to the school library to enjoy different inventions. Application deadline (申请截止日期) November 30th Students who have invented something can apply to (申请) take part in the festival. Requirements: ▶Your invention needs to be created by yourself or your team. ▶Your invention should be useful in daily life. Prizes: Teachers and students will vote (投票) for their favorite inventions. The first prize will be a certificate (证书) and 100 yuan. The second prize will be a certificate and 50 yuan. All the inventors or teams will receive books as special gifts. Come and show your creativity: Click here to apply! 1. Which of the following is not mentioned? A. Bringing your inventions. B. Introducing your inventions. C. Eating some snacks. D. Learning about some inventions. 2. How long will the science festival last? A. For one day. B. For two days. C. For ten days. D. For eleven days. 3. What should Bruce do if he wants to take part in the festival? ①invent something by himself ②go to the school library ③apply by November 30th ④invent something useful ⑤apply on December 10th A. ①②③ B. ①④⑤ C. ②③④ D. ①③④ 4. What will every inventor get? A. A certificate. B. 100 yuan. C. 50 yuan. D. A book. 5. On which of the following websites can we probably read the text? A. https://schoolsciencefestival.com/ B. https://bbcculture.com/ C. https://schoolsportsnews.com/ D. https://Chinafamouspeople.com/ B For Emma, PE class was the most difficult part. She didn’t mind the tiredness but the looks her classmates gave her. Emma was bigger than others of her age. A group of students often ran behind her, laughing and talking about how Emma ran. “Just one more year,” Emma kept telling herself, “One more year and I’ll graduate and won’t have to take this stupid PE class anymore.” But everything changed when a girl called Kit joined the class. She had short straight hair, big eyes, and a long scar (伤疤) across the left side of her face. She introduced herself, “Hi, everyone, I’m Kit. I love sports and fashion. You might be wondering about the scar. I got it when I fell off my bike. I see it as a cool mark now.” Emma listened in surprise. How could the girl be so confident? During lunchtime, Emma was sitting at her usual table. Kit walked over to join Emma. Emma couldn’t believe such a confident girl would like to sit with her. She got up the courage to share what was troubling her. “Don’t worry about it. It’s not your fault. Just hug yourself!” said Kit. Hearing that, Emma felt relieved as if a heavy weight was taken off her shoulders. It was time for PE class again, but this time Kit was with her. Emma discovered that true confidence comes from within, not from others’ words. In the beautiful sunshine, the two girls walked together—one with a scar on the face and the other with a body that she finally felt she owned. 6. Why did Emma hate PE class? A. Because she always felt tired in PE class. B. Because her PE teacher was too strict with her. C. Because she couldn’t get on well with others. D Because she was laughed at by her classmates. 7. What did Kit look like? A. B. C. D. 8. What made Emma surprised? A. Kit’s voice. B. Kit’s experience. C. Kit’s confidence. D. Kit’s hobbies. 9. What does the underlined word “relieved” mean in paragraph 4? A. Relaxed. B. Excited. C. Unhappy. D. Glad. 10. What is the text mainly about? A. Sharing is the key to solving problems. B. Accept what you are and be yourself. C. The same interest can bring people together. D. Respect yourself, or no one else will respect you. C British people are big tea drinkers. It is a tradition in Britain to drink tea for different occasions and reasons. People have it for breakfast, for when guests visit, and for tea breaks at work. People even “have a cuppa” when they talk about their personal problems. However, research from The Tea Group shows that herbal tea, fruit tea and other teas have become more popular than traditional English breakfast tea. Researchers carried out a survey of more than 2,000 tea lovers. Over half of people said their favourite tea was not the traditional variety. Over a fifth of people chose green tea as their favourite brew (饮品). Just over 20 percent said Earl Grey was their number one. Sales of traditional tea in the UK have been declining (减少). Three years ago, a survey found that 54 percent of the British preferred English breakfast tea. The new research shows that breakfast tea is likely to continue to decline in popularity. The researchers has found many other things about tea-drinking habits in the UK. The biggest reason for drinking tea is to relax. A quarter of the British drink up to 10 cups a day. They seem to love milky and sugary tea. Around 85 percent of people who drink Earl Grey and English breakfast put milk in it. Nearly 45 percent of people sweeten their tea with sugar. Surprisingly, people with a sweet tooth put three teaspoons of sugar in their cup. 11. What’s the main idea of paragraph 1? A. When do British people drink tea? B. Why do British people drink tea? C. How many types of tea are there in the UK? D. How do British people drink tea? 12 How many tea lovers like green tea best according to the survey in paragraph 2? A. Over 2,000. B. Over 1,000. C. Over 500. D. Over 400. 13. Who might put three teaspoons of sugar in their tea? A. Children. B. Old people. C. People with a sweet tooth. D. People who exercise. 14. How does the writer support the underlined statement in paragraph 4? A By asking questions. B. By giving examples. C. By telling stories. D. By making comparisons. 15. What can be a suitable title for this text? A. People’s favorite tea in the UK. B. The importance of tea in the UK. C. Different kinds of new tea in the UK. D. Traditional English tea losing popularity in the UK. D Peter Rabbit hops into Beijing’s UCCA Lab The world-famous Peter Rabbit and his friends, from British novelist Beatrix Potter’s children’s books, jumped into the UCCA Lab in Beijing, ready to take children and adults on a new adventure with an exhibition. Once visitors come to the exhibition. Potter’s life stories, which describe her as a writer of more than 60 books, a wise businesswoman and a nature lover, will spread before them. First, Peter’s family, all in sculptures (雕塑) greet visitors in a “rabbit hole”. Then they are led into Potter’s living room and can discover her love for nature through all those rocks and insects (昆虫) she collected as a child. They can also read the first version (版本) of The Tale of Peter Rabbit, which Potter wrote for the five-year-old son of her friend. Then visitors start “A Great Adventure” in the garden. Here visitors can take part in activities from hide-and-seek and saving Peter Rabbit to a flower pot (花盆) workshop, to get knowledge about plants and animals, and a fuller understanding of the hero’s adventurous spirit. In the third part. “A Fierce Battle”, visitors can watch the scene (场景) in The Tale of Mr. Tod, where Peter Rabbit and Benjamin are having a fight with their neighbors to save Benjamin’s stolen baby. After Peter Rabbit’s adventures come to an end, “Tell Me Another Story”, the fourth part, guides visitors into a tailor (裁缝) shop, where visitors can try on all the clothes worn by Potter’s animal characters. The exhibition ends in “A Beautiful Legacy (遗产)”, where the visitors are encouraged to express whatever they want to say about Potter and her literary (文学的) works through writing or drawing. The exhibition will give people a deeper understanding of Potter’s works and her commitment (贡献) to nature conservation (保护), according to the Beijing museum. If you go: Tuesday to Sunday, 10am to 7pm, before Septembers 5; UCCA Lab, 798 Art District, No.4 Jiuxianqiao L.u, Chaoyang District, Beijing 16. What does the passage introduce? A. An exhibition. B. Peter Rabbit. C. Beatrix Potter. D. Beatrix Potter’s books. 17. What can visitors do during their visiting? A. Collect rocks and insects. B. Read the first version of The Tale of Peter Rabbit. C. Act a role in The Tale of Mr. Tod. D. Have a fight with their neighbors. 18. What can visitors learn about Beatrix Potter? A. She loved nature since she was a child. B. She wrote The Tale of Peter Rabbit for her son. C. She had a tailor shop. D. She wrote many books about nature conservation. 19. What are visitors encouraged to do at the end of the visiting? A. Play hide-and-seek. B. Make some flower pots. C. Try on clothes of Potter’s animal characters. D. Write or draw about Potter and her literary works. 20. Where is the passage most probably from? A. A newspaper. B. A story book. C. A play. D. A survey. 第二节 阅读七选五 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 So far, China has successfully sent a large number of satellites (卫星) and spaceships into space. ___21___ Space scientists have been greatly inspired (赋予灵感) by the old stories and ancient famous people when giving them names. Since thousands of years ago, Chinese people have dreamed of going to the moon. ___22___ As you can see, China’s first man-made satellite to circle around the moon was named Chang’e Ⅰ. More interestingly, the moon rover (巡视器) was named after the Jade Rabbit, who is the partner of Chang’e in the story. ___23___ With the development of science and technology, our scientists have made them come true. ___24___ For example, Mozi, an ancient scientist, discovered that light travels in a straight line over 2,000 years ago. His discovery made space study take a big step at that time. So, China’s first quantum (量子) science satellite was named Mozi. ___25___ From such simple things as giving names to the satellites, we can see how great our traditional culture is and what influence it has on our modern science and technology. A. These old stories carry people’s best wishes and dreams. B. But do you know how space scientists name them? C. However, there is still something unknown in space science. D. Chang’e Flies to the Moon is one of the most popular stories. E. Many famous poets in China express their love to the outer space. F. Besides the ancient stories, space scientists also get ideas from ancient famous people. G. And China became the first country in the world to achieve quantum communication between satellites and the ground. 第三部分 语言运用 (共三节，满分35分) 第一节 补全对话 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 Bob: Hello, this is Bob speaking. May I speak to Tim? Lucy: Oh, sorry. Tim isn’t in. This is Lucy speaking. ___26___ Bob: Yes, please. We have planned to go hiking in the mountain. Lucy: Oh, that would be dangerous. ___27___ Bob: Because we want to do sports and something exciting Lucy: ___28___ I think it’s much safer. Bob: Don’t worry. Our class teacher will go with us and he can take care of us. Lucy: OK. Where will you meet? Bob: ___29___ At 9 o’clock in the morning. Lucy: All right. I’ll tell him to call you back later. Bob: ___30___ Goodbye. Lucy: Bye. 26. A. Can you help me? B. Are you his friend? C. May I take a message? D. Could you clean the room? 27. A. What are you doing? B. When were you born? C. Where are you from? D. Why do you want to do it? 28. A. Why not play volleyball? B. What’s wrong with you? C. How will you go there? D. Who will you go with? 29. A. Three or four times a day. B. For more than 9 hours. C. Less than 10 kilometers. D. Outside the school gate. 30. A. Thanks a lot. B. Sounds great. C. Don’t mention it. D. Good luck to you. 第二节 完形填空 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Grieg is one of Norway’s most famous musicians. His ___31___ for the Norwegian folk culture can be found in his music. His music ___32___ the beautiful sights of forests, mountains and sea of Norway. One autumn day, Grieg was walking in the ___33___. He met a little girl named Dagney. She often came to the forest with her father, a forest ranger (护林员). Grieg liked her very much and they soon became friends. Grieg helped her ___34___ many fruits. On their way back home, the girl said ___35___. “Bye, sir. Today is my birthday. My father will make a big cake for me.” Grieg felt sorry because he had ___36___ in his pocket. “Oh, I’m sorry. I didn’t know today is your birthday and I didn’t ___37___ any gifts for you,” Grieg said, “but I will bring you a gift in 10 years.” Dagney felt ___38___ and asked, “What kind of gift will ___39___ you 10 years to make?” Grieg smiled and said, “I can make it in a short time, ___40___ you can only get it when you grow up.” Ten years passed and Dagney was 18 years old. One day, she went to an outdoor ___41___. The host on the stage said, “The next song is for the ___42___ of the forest ranger, Dagney.” Dagney stood up ___43___ excitement and saw that the conductor (指挥家) on the stage was the old man she met in the forest 10 years ago! Hearing the ___44___, Dagney was moved to tears. She said, “Thanks for your birthday gift! But ___45___ did you send your gift after 10 years?” Grieg smiled and said, “Because wonderful things are worth waiting for. We should live with hope.” 31. A. trouble B. habits C. love D. hobbies 32. A. performed B. behaved C. reflected D. afforded 33. A. forest B. zoo C. park D. yard 34. A. buy B. pick C. plant D. sell 35. A. carefully B. sadly C. wisely D. excitedly 36. A. something B. nothing C. anything D. everything 37. A. prepare B. give C. invent D. throw 38. A. worried B. interested C. scared D. bored 39. A. take B. cost C. spend D. pay 40. A. though B. until C. and D. but 41. A. club B. film C. concert D. meeting 42. A. wife B. mother C. daughter D. sister 43. A. with B. by C. for D. from 44. A. sound B. music C. words D. suggestions 45. A. where B. whom C. how D. why 第三节 阅读填空 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Do you believe that picking up rubbish has become a world competition? In November of 2023, the first Rubbish Collection World Cup ____46____ (hold) in Asia. Teams from 21 ____47____ (country) took part in it. According to the rules, each team will have 60 minutes to collect rubbish as much as possible. Britain finally won the first prize. “We hope more people around the world ____48____ (pay) attention to environmental problems,” said a British team member. When Ken, the founder of the competition, was interviewed, he talked ____49____ how he came up with the idea. Several years ago, he found many sea animals died ____50____ they ate the rubbish in the sea. So he started to pick up rubbish on ____51____ (he) way to the beach every morning. “Picking up a piece of rubbish may save a turtle’s (海龟的) life. It’s also a good way ____52____ (keep) the beach clean.” In his eyes, changing people’s thoughts about rubbish was ____53____ (important) than other things. “Picking up rubbish is meaningful and helpful, more and more people ____54____ (realize) it.” Ken said _____55_____ (happy), “Now, I am glad to see that lots of people take part in it to protect our environment.” 第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分35分) 第一节 情境运用 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分) 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 56. A: ____________________? B: By a Canadian doctor named James Naismith. 57. A: Whose dictionary is this? B: ____________________. His name is on it. 58. A: What kind of music does Kate like? B: ____________________. 59. A: Is it polite to enter the room directly in China? B: No. ____________________. 60. A: Where were you at 8 o’clock this morning? B: At the bus stop. ____________________. 第二节 作文 (满分25分) 61. 初中生活转瞬即逝。在这四年里，你可能学会了一项体育技能，或参加了一次精彩的演讲；也可能开展了一次有意义的研学，或参与了一项社团活动……这些都助力了你的成长，让你终身受益。最近，你们学校英语广播站正在开展以“难忘的时刻”为主题的征文活动，假如你是李华，请写一篇短文参赛，内容包括： 1.活动过程简介； 2.令你难忘的时刻； 3.你的感想。 注意： 1.词数100左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3.不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。 ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$ 2024—2025学年度第一学期期末考试九年级 英语试题 (本试卷共12页，满分150分，考试用时120分钟。) 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力 (共四节，满分30分) 第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听录音。从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. A. Happy new year! B. Go to bed earlier. C. Stop riding in cars. 2. A. Are you happy? B. Does Mary like music? C. May I come in? 3. A. I can’t find my schoolbag. B. It isn’t far from here. C. Lucy doesn’t work there. 4. A. They are exercising now. B. The book is interesting. C. She was born in May. 5. A. What caused the pollution? B. Who is the girl? C. When will you finish it? 第二节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. How will the weather be this afternoon? A. Sunny. B. Windy. C. Rainy. 7. What’s Jack’s favorite sport? A. Baseball. B. Tennis. C. Ping-pong. 8. What did Tony think of the movie? A. It was boring. B. It was funny. C. It was terrible. 9. When will the museum open? A. At 8:45 a. m. B. At 9:00 a. m. C. At 9:15 a. m. 10. Who did Ted visit? A. His uncle. B. His grandparents. C. His brother. 第三节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A 、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间：听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. What is the woman? A. A doctor. B. A reporter. C. A nurse. 12. What’s the date today? A. April 21st. B. April 22nd. C. April 2nd. 13. What activity will be held? A. A talent show. B. A clothing show. C. An art show. 14. What is the tree made of? A. Used milk boxes. B. Old ties. C. Fallen leaves. 15. Why does the boy want to make a tree? A. Because trees are a symbol of life. B. Because he likes trees. C. Because he wants to call on people to plant more trees. 第四节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间：听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16. How old was Alan when he started writing stories? A. Six. B. Seven. C. Eight. 17. Who encouraged Alan to enter the writing competition? A. His parents. B. His friend. C. His teacher. 18. Where does Alan usually write? A. On the school bus. B. In the school library. C. In his classroom. 19. What does Alan use to keep his ideas for stories? A. A notebook. B. A computer. C. A smartphone. 20. What does Alan want to be in the future? A. A writer. B. An engineer. C. A teacher. 第二部分 阅读 (共两节，满分50分) 第一节 阅读理解 (共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Welcome to the Science Festival! Are you interested in inventions? If so, please join in the 2024 Science Festival in our school. During the festival, you’re encouraged to bring and introduce your inventions to teachers and students. Of course you can also learn about interesting and useful inventions created by other students. What are you waiting for? The theme of 2024 Science Festival: Inventions make our life more comfortable. Schedule (安排表) The Science Festival dates December 9th-10th Students and teachers can go to the school library to enjoy different inventions. Application deadline (申请截止日期) November 30th Students who have invented something can apply to (申请) take part in the festival. Requirements: ▶Your invention needs to be created by yourself or your team. ▶Your invention should be useful in daily life. Prizes: Teachers and students will vote (投票) for their favorite inventions. The first prize will be a certificate (证书) and 100 yuan. The second prize will be a certificate and 50 yuan. All the inventors or teams will receive books as special gifts. Come and show your creativity: Click here to apply! 1. Which of the following is not mentioned? A. Bringing your inventions. B. Introducing your inventions. C. Eating some snacks. D. Learning about some inventions. 2. How long will the science festival last? A. For one day. B. For two days. C. For ten days. D. For eleven days. 3. What should Bruce do if he wants to take part in the festival? ①invent something by himself ②go to the school library ③apply by November 30th ④invent something useful ⑤apply on December 10th A. ①②③ B. ①④⑤ C. ②③④ D. ①③④ 4. What will every inventor get? A. A certificate. B. 100 yuan. C. 50 yuan. D. A book. 5. On which of the following websites can we probably read the text? A. https://schoolsciencefestival.com/ B. https://bbcculture.com/ C https://schoolsportsnews.com/ D. https://Chinafamouspeople.com/ 【答案】1. C 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. A 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇关于学校2024年科学节的活动通知，介绍了科学节的主题、时间安排、申请截止日期、参与要求及奖品等信息。 【1题详解】 细节理解题。根据“During the festival, you’re encouraged to bring and introduce your inventions to teachers and students. Of course you can also learn about interesting and useful inventions created by other students.”可知，提到了带上发明、介绍发明以及了解其他发明，未提及吃零食。故选C。 【2题详解】 细节理解题。根据“The Science Festival dates December 9th-10th”可知，科学节持续两天。故选B。 【3题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Students who have invented something can apply to take part in the festival. Requirements: Your invention needs to be created by yourself or your team. Your invention should be useful in daily life. Application deadline November 30th”可知，若Bruce想参加，需要自己发明东西，发明的东西要在日常生活中有用，且在11月30日前申请。①③④符合，故选D。 【4题详解】 细节理解题。根据“All the inventors or teams will receive books as special gifts.”可知，每个发明者都会得到一本书。故选D。 【5题详解】 推理判断题。文章主要介绍学校科学节相关信息，所以可能在学校科学节相关网站看到，“https://schoolsciencefestival.com/”符合。故选A。 B For Emma, PE class was the most difficult part. She didn’t mind the tiredness but the looks her classmates gave her. Emma was bigger than others of her age. A group of students often ran behind her, laughing and talking about how Emma ran. “Just one more year,” Emma kept telling herself, “One more year and I’ll graduate and won’t have to take this stupid PE class anymore.” But everything changed when a girl called Kit joined the class. She had short straight hair, big eyes, and a long scar (伤疤) across the left side of her face. She introduced herself, “Hi, everyone, I’m Kit. I love sports and fashion. You might be wondering about the scar. I got it when I fell off my bike. I see it as a cool mark now.” Emma listened in surprise. How could the girl be so confident? During lunchtime, Emma was sitting at her usual table. Kit walked over to join Emma. Emma couldn’t believe such a confident girl would like to sit with her. She got up the courage to share what was troubling her. “Don’t worry about it. It’s not your fault. Just hug yourself!” said Kit. Hearing that, Emma felt relieved as if a heavy weight was taken off her shoulders. It was time for PE class again, but this time Kit was with her. Emma discovered that true confidence comes from within, not from others’ words. In the beautiful sunshine, the two girls walked together—one with a scar on the face and the other with a body that she finally felt she owned. 6. Why did Emma hate PE class? A. Because she always felt tired in PE class. B. Because her PE teacher was too strict with her. C. Because she couldn’t get on well with others. D. Because she was laughed at by her classmates. 7. What did Kit look like? A. B. C. D. 8. What made Emma surprised? A. Kit’s voice. B. Kit’s experience. C. Kit’s confidence. D. Kit’s hobbies. 9. What does the underlined word “relieved” mean in paragraph 4? A. Relaxed. B. Excited. C. Unhappy. D. Glad. 10. What is the text mainly about? A. Sharing is the key to solving problems. B. Accept what you are and be yourself. C. The same interest can bring people together. D. Respect yourself, or no one else will respect you. 【答案】6. D 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. B 【解析】 【导语】本文讲述了Emma因身材比同龄人壮硕遭同学嘲笑，新来的同学Kit脸上有疤却自信满满，鼓励她接受自己。告诉我们真正的自信源自内心，而非他人的言语。 6题详解】 细节理解题。根据“She didn’t mind the tiredness but the looks her classmates gave her... A group of students often ran behind her, laughing and talking about how Emma ran.”可知，Emma讨厌体育课不是因为累，而是因为总有一群学生跟在她身后跑，一边嬉笑，一边议论她跑步的样子。故选D。 【7题详解】 推理判断题。根据“She had short straight hair, big eyes, and a long scar (伤疤) across the left side of her face.”可知，Kit留着短直发，有一双大眼睛，左脸有一道长长的伤疤。故选B。 【8题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Emma listened in surprise. How could the girl be so confident?”可知，Kit很自信地介绍了自己，Emma对她的自信感到惊讶。故选C。 【9题详解】 词句猜测题。根据“Hearing that, Emma felt relieved as if a heavy weight was taken off her shoulders.”可知，Emma感到……，仿佛肩头卸下了重担。可以推断“relieved”意为“如释重负的；放松的”，与relaxed意思相近。故选A。 【10题详解】 主旨大意题。本文讲述了Emma因身材比同龄人壮硕遭同学嘲笑，新来的同学Kit脸上有疤却自信满满，鼓励她接受自己。告诉我们真正的自信源自内心，而非他人的言语。选项B“接受自己，做真实的自己”与之相符。故选B。 C British people are big tea drinkers. It is a tradition in Britain to drink tea for different occasions and reasons. People have it for breakfast, for when guests visit, and for tea breaks at work. People even “have a cuppa” when they talk about their personal problems. However, research from The Tea Group shows that herbal tea, fruit tea and other teas have become more popular than traditional English breakfast tea. Researchers carried out a survey of more than 2,000 tea lovers. Over half of people said their favourite tea was not the traditional variety. Over a fifth of people chose green tea as their favourite brew (饮品). Just over 20 percent said Earl Grey was their number one. Sales of traditional tea in the UK have been declining (减少). Three years ago, a survey found that 54 percent of the British preferred English breakfast tea. The new research shows that breakfast tea is likely to continue to decline in popularity. The researchers has found many other things about tea-drinking habits in the UK. The biggest reason for drinking tea is to relax. A quarter of the British drink up to 10 cups a day. They seem to love milky and sugary tea. Around 85 percent of people who drink Earl Grey and English breakfast put milk in it. Nearly 45 percent of people sweeten their tea with sugar. Surprisingly, people with a sweet tooth put three teaspoons of sugar in their cup. 11. What’s the main idea of paragraph 1? A. When do British people drink tea? B. Why do British people drink tea? C. How many types of tea are there in the UK? D. How do British people drink tea? 12. How many tea lovers like green tea best according to the survey in paragraph 2? A. Over 2,000. B. Over 1,000. C. Over 500. D. Over 400. 13. Who might put three teaspoons of sugar in their tea? A. Children. B. Old people. C. People with a sweet tooth. D. People who exercise. 14. How does the writer support the underlined statement in paragraph 4? A. By asking questions. B. By giving examples. C. By telling stories. D. By making comparisons. 15. What can be a suitable title for this text? A. People’s favorite tea in the UK. B. The importance of tea in the UK. C. Different kinds of new tea in the UK. D. Traditional English tea losing popularity in the UK. 【答案】11. A 12. D 13. C 14. B 15. D 【解析】 【导语】本文主要讨论了英国传统茶的流行度降低，越来越多的人喜欢上了其他类型的茶。 【11题详解】 主旨大意题。根据“British people are big tea drinkers...People even ‘have a cuppa’ when they talk about their personal problems.”可知，文章第一段主要描述的是英国人什么时候喝茶。故选A。 【12题详解】 推理判断题。根据“Researchers carried out a survey of more than 2,000 tea lovers.”以及“Over a fifth of people chose green tea as their favourite brew (饮品).”可知，有超过五分之一的人选择绿茶作为他们最喜欢的饮品，即为400多人，故选D。 【13题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Surprisingly, people with a sweet tooth put three teaspoons of sugar in their cup.”可以确定，喜欢甜食的人会在茶中加入三勺糖。故选C。 【14题详解】 推理判断题。根据“A quarter of the British drink up to 10 cups a day...Surprisingly, people with a sweet tooth put three teaspoons of sugar in their cup.”可知，通过举例来支持划线句子的观点，故选B。 【15题详解】 最佳标题题。通读全文，本文主要讨论了英国传统茶的流行度降低，越来越多的人喜欢上了其他类型的茶。因此，选项D符合题意。故选D。 D Peter Rabbit hops into Beijing’s UCCA Lab The world-famous Peter Rabbit and his friends, from British novelist Beatrix Potter’s children’s books, jumped into the UCCA Lab in Beijing, ready to take children and adults on a new adventure with an exhibition. Once visitors come to the exhibition. Potter’s life stories, which describe her as a writer of more than 60 books, a wise businesswoman and a nature lover, will spread before them. First Peter’s family, all in sculptures (雕塑) greet visitors in a “rabbit hole”. Then they are led into Potter’s living room and can discover her love for nature through all those rocks and insects (昆虫) she collected as a child. They can also read the first version (版本) of The Tale of Peter Rabbit, which Potter wrote for the five-year-old son of her friend. Then visitors start “A Great Adventure” in the garden. Here visitors can take part in activities from hide-and-seek and saving Peter Rabbit to a flower pot (花盆) workshop, to get knowledge about plants and animals, and a fuller understanding of the hero’s adventurous spirit. In the third part. “A Fierce Battle”, visitors can watch the scene (场景) in The Tale of Mr. Tod, where Peter Rabbit and Benjamin are having a fight with their neighbors to save Benjamin’s stolen baby. After Peter Rabbit’s adventures come to an end, “Tell Me Another Story”, the fourth part, guides visitors into a tailor (裁缝) shop, where visitors can try on all the clothes worn by Potter’s animal characters. The exhibition ends in “A Beautiful Legacy (遗产)”, where the visitors are encouraged to express whatever they want to say about Potter and her literary (文学的) works through writing or drawing. The exhibition will give people a deeper understanding of Potter’s works and her commitment (贡献) to nature conservation (保护), according to the Beijing museum. If you go: Tuesday to Sunday, 10am to 7pm, before Septembers 5; UCCA Lab, 798 Art District, No.4 Jiuxianqiao L.u, Chaoyang District, Beijing 16. What does the passage introduce? A. An exhibition. B. Peter Rabbit. C. Beatrix Potter. D. Beatrix Potter’s books. 17. What can visitors do during their visiting? A. Collect rocks and insects. B. Read the first version of The Tale of Peter Rabbit. C. Act a role in The Tale of Mr. Tod. D. Have a fight with their neighbors. 18. What can visitors learn about Beatrix Potter? A. She loved nature since she was a child. B. She wrote The Tale of Peter Rabbit for her son. C. She had a tailor shop. D. She wrote many books about nature conservation. 19. What are visitors encouraged to do at the end of the visiting? A. Play hide-and-seek. B. Make some flower pots. C. Try on clothes of Potter’s animal characters. D. Write or draw about Potter and her literary works. 20. Where is the passage most probably from? A. A newspaper. B. A story book. C. A play. D. A survey. 【答案】16. A 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. A 【解析】 【导语】本文主要是一则有关比得兔展览的广告信息。 【16题详解】 推理判断题。根据“ready to take children and adults on a new adventure with an exhibition”可知，这篇文章介绍的是一个展览，故选A。 【17题详解】 细节理解题。根据“They can also read the first version (版本) of The Tale of Peter Rabbit”可知，他们可以阅读第一个版本《The Tale of Peter Rabbit》，故选B。 【18题详解】 推理判断题。根据“Then they are led into Potter’s living room and can discover her love for nature through all those rocks and insects (昆虫) she collected as a child.”可知，她从小就热爱大自然，故选A。 【19题详解】 细节理解题。根据“where the visitors are encouraged to express whatever they want to say about Potter and her literary (文学的) works through writing or drawing”可知，鼓励参观者通过写作或绘画来表达他们对波特和她的文学作品的任何看法，故选D。 【20题详解】 推理判断题。通读全文可知，本文主要是一则有关比得兔展览的广告信息，最可能来自报纸，故选A。 第二节 阅读七选五 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 So far, China has successfully sent a large number of satellites (卫星) and spaceships into space. ___21___ Space scientists have been greatly inspired (赋予灵感) by the old stories and ancient famous people when giving them names. Since thousands of years ago, Chinese people have dreamed of going to the moon. ___22___ As you can see, China’s first man-made satellite to circle around the moon was named Chang’e Ⅰ. More interestingly, the moon rover (巡视器) was named after the Jade Rabbit, who is the partner of Chang’e in the story. ___23___ With the development of science and technology, our scientists have made them come true. ___24___ For example, Mozi, an ancient scientist, discovered that light travels in a straight line over 2,000 years ago. His discovery made space study take a big step at that time. So, China’s first quantum (量子) science satellite was named Mozi. ___25___ From such simple things as giving names to the satellites, we can see how great our traditional culture is and what influence it has on our modern science and technology. A. These old stories carry people’s best wishes and dreams. B. But do you know how space scientists name them? C. However, there is still something unknown in space science. D. Chang’e Flies to the Moon is one of the most popular stories. E. Many famous poets in China express their love to the outer space. F. Besides the ancient stories, space scientists also get ideas from ancient famous people. G. And China became the first country in the world to achieve quantum communication between satellites and the ground. 【答案】21. B 22. D 23. A 24. F 25. G 【解析】 【导语】本文介绍了嫦娥一号、“玉兔号”月球车、“墨子号”空间量子科学实验卫星等与中国古代传统文化之间的渊源，展示了我国传统文化对太空技术的深远影响。 【21题详解】 根据“Space scientists have been greatly inspired (赋予灵感) by the old stories and ancient famous people when giving them names.”可知，太空科学家在为卫星和宇宙飞船命名时，从古老传说和古代名人身上获得了极大的灵感，这解释了太空科学家是如何给它们命名的。选项B“但你知道太空科学家是怎么给它们命名的吗”符合语境。故选B。 【22题详解】 根据“China’s first man-made satellite to circle around the moon was named Chang’e Ⅰ. More interestingly, the moon rover (巡视器) was named after the Jade Rabbit...”可知，中国第一颗绕月人造卫星被命名为“嫦娥一号”，月球车是以“玉兔”命名的，这些都跟“嫦娥奔月”这个故事有关，可以推断填入的句子提及了“嫦娥奔月”。选项D“嫦娥奔月是最受欢迎的故事之一”符合语境。故选D。 【23题详解】 根据“With the development of science and technology, our scientists have made them come true.”可知，随着科学技术的发展，科学家已经将它们变为现实，可以推断“它们”指代填入的句子中的内容。选项A“这些古老的故事承载着人们最美好的愿望和梦想”符合语境。故选A。 【24题详解】 根据“So, China’s first quantum (量子) science satellite was named Mozi.”可知，中国首颗量子科学实验卫星被命名为“墨子”，墨子是中国古代的名人。选项F“除了古老的故事，太空科学家还从古代名人那里获得灵感”符合语境。故选F。 【25题详解】 根据“So, China’s first quantum (量子) science satellite was named Mozi.”可知，此处提及了中国首颗量子科学实验卫星。选项G“中国成为世界上第一个实现卫星与地面量子通信的国家”符合语境。故选G。 第三部分 语言运用 (共三节，满分35分) 第一节 补全对话 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分) 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 Bob: Hello, this is Bob speaking. May I speak to Tim? Lucy: Oh, sorry. Tim isn’t in. This is Lucy speaking. ___26___ Bob: Yes, please. We have planned to go hiking in the mountain. Lucy: Oh, that would be dangerous. ___27___ Bob: Because we want to do sports and something exciting. Lucy: ___28___ I think it’s much safer. Bob: Don’t worry. Our class teacher will go with us and he can take care of us. Lucy: OK. Where will you meet? Bob: ___29___ At 9 o’clock in the morning. Lucy: All right. I’ll tell him to call you back later. Bob: ___30___ Goodbye. Lucy: Bye. 26. A. Can you help me? B. Are you his friend? C. May I take a message? D. Could you clean the room? 27. A. What are you doing? B. When were you born? C. Where are you from? D. Why do you want to do it? 28. A. Why not play volleyball? B. What’s wrong with you? C. How will you go there? D. Who will you go with? 29. A. Three or four times a day. B. For more than 9 hours. C. Less than 10 kilometers. D. Outside the school gate. 30. A. Thanks a lot. B. Sounds great. C. Don’t mention it. D. Good luck to you. 【答案】26. C 27. D 28. A 29. D 30. A 【解析】 【导语】本文是Bob打电话找Tim时与Lucy的对话。Bob告诉Lucy他们计划一起去爬山，而Lucy对此表示担忧。Bob解释说他们的班主任会陪同以保证安全。最后，Lucy答应转告Tim让他回电。 【26题详解】 根据“This is Lucy speaking.”和“Yes, please. We have planned to go hiking in the mountain.”可知，这里是给Tim留言。选项C“我可以帮你留言吗？”符合语境，故选C。 【27题详解】 根据“Because we want to do sports and something exciting.”可知，是询问原因。选项D“你为什么想这么做？”符合语境，故选D。 【28题详解】 根据“I think it’s much safer.”可知，此处是建议对方换一个运动。选项A“为什么不打排球呢？”符合语境，故选A。 【29题详解】 根据“Where will you meet?”可知，应回答见面地点。选项D“在学校大门外。”符合语境，故选D。 【30题详解】 根据“All right. I’ll tell him to call you back later.”可知，对对方的帮助表示感谢。选项A“非常感谢。”符合语境，故选A。 第二节 完形填空 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Grieg is one of Norway’s most famous musicians. His ___31___ for the Norwegian folk culture can be found in his music. His music ___32___ the beautiful sights of forests, mountains and sea of Norway. One autumn day, Grieg was walking in the ___33___. He met a little girl named Dagney. She often came to the forest with her father, a forest ranger (护林员). Grieg liked her very much and they soon became friends. Grieg helped her ___34___ many fruits. On their way back home, the girl said ___35___. “Bye, sir. Today is my birthday. My father will make a big cake for me.” Grieg felt sorry because he had ___36___ in his pocket. “Oh, I’m sorry. I didn’t know today is your birthday and I didn’t ___37___ any gifts for you,” Grieg said, “but I will bring you a gift in 10 years.” Dagney felt ___38___ and asked, “What kind of gift will ___39___ you 10 years to make?” Grieg smiled and said, “I can make it in a short time, ___40___ you can only get it when you grow up.” Ten years passed and Dagney was 18 years old. One day, she went to an outdoor ___41___. The host on the stage said, “The next song is for the ___42___ of the forest ranger, Dagney.” Dagney stood up ___43___ excitement and saw that the conductor (指挥家) on the stage was the old man she met in the forest 10 years ago! Hearing the ___44___, Dagney was moved to tears. She said, “Thanks for your birthday gift! But ___45___ did you send your gift after 10 years?” Grieg smiled and said, “Because wonderful things are worth waiting for. We should live with hope.” 31. A. trouble B. habits C. love D. hobbies 32. A. performed B. behaved C. reflected D. afforded 33. A. forest B. zoo C. park D. yard 34. A. buy B. pick C. plant D. sell 35. A. carefully B. sadly C. wisely D. excitedly 36. A. something B. nothing C. anything D. everything 37. A. prepare B. give C. invent D. throw 38. A. worried B. interested C. scared D. bored 39. A. take B. cost C. spend D. pay 40. A. though B. until C. and D. but 41. A. club B. film C. concert D. meeting 42. A. wife B. mother C. daughter D. sister 43. A. with B. by C. for D. from 44. A. sound B. music C. words D. suggestions 45. A. where B. whom C. how D. why 【答案】31. C 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. B 37. A 38. B 39. A 40. D 41. C 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. D 【解析】 【导语】本文主要讲述了著名音乐家格里格送给小女孩达格尼“十年之约的礼物”的故事，告诉我们：美好的事物值得等待。 【31题详解】 句意：他对挪威民间文化的热爱可以从他的音乐中找到。 trouble麻烦；habits习惯；love爱；hobbies爱好。根据“Grieg is one of Norway’s most famous musicians.”以及“His…for the Norwegian folk culture can be found in his music.”可知，此处是说他对挪威民间文化的“热爱”可以从他的音乐中找到。故选C。 【32题详解】 句意：他的音乐反映了挪威森林、山脉和海洋的美景。 performed表演；behaved表现；reflected反映；afforded承担得起。根据“His music…the beautiful sights of forests, mountains and sea of Norway.”可知，应该说音乐反映了挪威森林、山脉和海洋的美景。故选C。 【33题详解】 句意：秋天的一天，格里格在森林里散步。 forest森林；zoo动物园；park公园；yard院子。根据后文的“She often came to the forest with her father, a forest ranger (护林员).”可知，是在森林里。故选A。 【34题详解】 句意：格里格帮她摘了许多水果。 buy买；pick摘；plant种植；sell卖。根据“Grieg helped her…many fruits.”可知，此处是说摘水果。故选B。 【35题详解】 句意：在回家的路上，女孩兴奋地说。 carefully仔细地；sadly悲伤地；wisely明智地；excitedly兴奋地。根据女孩说的“Bye, sir. Today is my birthday. My father will make a big cake for me.”可知，她是兴奋地说。故选D。 【36题详解】 句意：格里格感到很难过，因为他口袋里什么也没有。 something某事；nothing没有什么；anything任何事；everything每件事。根据“Grieg felt sorry because he had…in his pocket.”可知，格里格感到很难过，因此是说他口袋里什么也没有，nothing符合语境。故选B。 【37题详解】 句意：我不知道今天是你的生日，也没有准备礼物给你。 prepare准备；give给予；invent发明；throw扔。根据“I didn’t know today is your birthday and I didn’t…any gifts for you”可知，此处是说没有准备礼物。故选A。 【38题详解】 句意：达格尼很感兴趣，问道：“你会花10年时间做什么样的礼物？” worried担心的；interested感兴趣的；scared害怕的；bored无聊的。根据“and asked”可知，女孩对礼物好奇，应该说她感兴趣。故选B。 【39题详解】 句意：达格尼很感兴趣，问道：“你会花10年时间做什么样的礼物？” take花费（时间）；cost花费（金钱），主语是物；spend花费（时间、金钱），主语是人；pay支付。根据“What kind of gift will…you 10 years to make?”可知，此处指的是做什么样的礼物会花费10年时间，take符合语境。故选A。 【40题详解】 句意：格里格笑着说：“我可以在短时间内做到，但你只有长大后才能做到。” though尽管；until直到；and和；but但是。根据“I can make it in a short time…you can only get it when you grow up.”可知，设空处前后为转折关系，but符合语境。故选D。 【41题详解】 句意：一天，她去听一场户外音乐会。 club俱乐部；film电影；concert音乐会；meeting会议。根据后文“excitement and saw that the conductor (指挥家) on the stage was the old man she met in the forest 10 years ago”可知，此处指的是音乐会。故选C。 【42题详解】 句意：舞台上的主持人说：“下一首歌是献给护林员的女儿达格尼的。” wife妻子；mother母亲；daughter女儿；sister姐妹。根据前文“She often came to the forest with her father, a forest ranger (护林员).”可知，此处应该说是护林员的女儿达格尼。故选C。 【43题详解】 句意：达格尼兴奋地站了起来，看到舞台上的指挥就是她10年前在森林里遇到的那个老人！ with和……一起；by通过；for为了；from来自。根据“Dagney stood up…excitement”可知，达格尼兴奋地站了起来，with excitement“兴奋地”，为固定短语。故选A。 【44题详解】 句意：听到音乐，达格尼感动得流下了眼泪。 sound声音；music音乐；words话语；suggestions建议。根据“excitement and saw that the conductor (指挥家) on the stage was the old man she met in the forest 10 years ago!”可知，此处是说听到了音乐，达格尼很感动。故选B。 【45题详解】 句意：可你为什么过了十年才送礼物呢？ where哪里；whom谁；how如何；why为什么。根据“But…did you send your gift after 10 years?”可知，此处是询问原因，why符合语境。故选D。 第三节 阅读填空 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Do you believe that picking up rubbish has become a world competition? In November of 2023, the first Rubbish Collection World Cup ____46____ (hold) in Asia. Teams from 21 ____47____ (country) took part in it. According to the rules, each team will have 60 minutes to collect rubbish as much as possible. Britain finally won the first prize. “We hope more people around the world ____48____ (pay) attention to environmental problems,” said a British team member. When Ken, the founder of the competition, was interviewed, he talked ____49____ how he came up with the idea. Several years ago, he found many sea animals died ____50____ they ate the rubbish in the sea. So he started to pick up rubbish on ____51____ (he) way to the beach every morning. “Picking up a piece of rubbish may save a turtle’s (海龟的) life. It’s also a good way ____52____ (keep) the beach clean.” In his eyes, changing people’s thoughts about rubbish was ____53____ (important) than other things. “Picking up rubbish is meaningful and helpful, more and more people ____54____ (realize) it.” Ken said _____55_____ (happy), “Now, I am glad to see that lots of people take part in it to protect our environment.” 【答案】46 was held 47. countries 48. will pay 49. about 50. because##after 51. his 52. to keep 53. more important 54. have realized 55. happily 【解析】 【导语】本文主要介绍了2023年11月在亚洲举办的首届垃圾收集世界杯，来自21个国家的队伍参加了这次比赛，强调了环保的重要性，以及比赛创始人Ken的环保行动和理念。 【46题详解】 句意：2023年11月，首届垃圾收集世界杯在亚洲举行。根据“In November of 2023”可知，事情发生在过去，且“the first Rubbish Collection World Cup” 与“hold”之间是被动关系，即世界杯“被举办”，所以这里应用一般过去时的被动语态，其结构为was/were done；主语为单数，be动词应用was，动词hold的过去分词为held。故填was held。 【47题详解】 句意：来自21个国家的队伍参加了比赛。空前为基数词“21”，所以这里应用名词复数形式countries。故填countries。 【48题详解】 句意：一位英国队员说：“我们希望世界上更多的人关注环境问题。根据语境可知，这里表达的是希望未来发生的事情，因此这里应用一般将来时，其结构为will+动词原形。故填will pay。 【49题详解】 句意：当比赛创始人Ken接受采访时，他谈到了自己是如何想出这个主意的。talk about“谈论”，动词短语。故填about。 【50题详解】 句意：几年前，他发现许多海洋动物因吃了海里的垃圾而死。“they ate the rubbish in the sea”是“many sea animals died”的原因，所以用连词because“因为”引导原因状语从句；也可以表示许多海洋动物吃了海里的垃圾之后死了，应用after“在……之后”引导时间状语从句。故填because/after。 【51题详解】 句意：所以他每天早上在去海滩的路上开始捡垃圾。on one’s way to...“在某人去……的路上”，固定搭配，所以这里应用he的形容词性物主代词his。故填his。 【52题详解】 句意：这也是保持海滩清洁的好方法。a good way to do sth.“做某事的好方法”，固定搭配，因此这里应用动词不定式。故填to keep。 【53题详解】 句意：在他看来，改变人们对垃圾的看法比其他事情更重要。根据“than”可知，此处应用important的比较级形式more important。故填more important。 【54题详解】 句意：捡垃圾是有意义和有帮助的，越来越多的人已经意识到这一点。根据上文“Picking up rubbish is meaningful and helpful,”可知，捡垃圾这件事本身具有积极意义，这种意义从过去到现在一直存在，并对现在产生了影响，即越来越多的人已经意识到了这一点，句子时态应用现在完成时，其结构为have/has done；主语为复数，助动词应用have，动词realize的过去分词为realized。故填have realized。 【55题详解】 句意：Ken开心地说：“现在，我很高兴看到很多人参与其中来保护我们的环境。”分析句子结构可知，此处应用形容词happy的副词形式happily“开心地”，在句中修饰动词“said”，作状语。故填happily。 第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分35分) 第一节 情境运用 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分) 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 56. A: ____________________? B: By a Canadian doctor named James Naismith. 57. A: Whose dictionary is this? B: ____________________. His name is on it. 58. A: What kind of music does Kate like? B: ____________________. 59. A: Is it polite to enter the room directly in China? B: No. ____________________. 60. A: Where were you at 8 o’clock this morning? B: At the bus stop. ____________________. 【答案】56. Who was basketball invented by 57. It must be Mike’s/It must belong to Mike 58 She likes music that she can dance to 59. We are supposed to knock at the door/We should knock at the door/We had better knock at the door 60. I was waiting for the bus 【解析】 【56题详解】 根据答句和图片可知，该句可以表达为“篮球是谁发明的”，该句是一般过去时的被动语态，其结构为“特殊疑问词+was/were+主语+done”；Who“谁”；was invented“被发明”；basketball“篮球”；by“被”。故填Who was basketball invented by。 【57题详解】 根据问句和“His name is on it.”并结合图片可知，该句可以表达为“它一定是Mike的”，该句是一般现在时，It“它”；must be/must belong to“一定是/属于”。故填It must be Mike’s/It must belong to Mike。 【58题详解】 根据问句和图片可知，该句可以表达为“她喜欢能跟着跳舞的音乐”，该句是一般现在时，She“她”；likes“喜欢”；music“音乐”；that引导定语从句；can“能”；dance to“跳舞”。故填She likes music that she can dance to。 【59题详解】 根据问句和图片可知，该句可以表达为“我们应该/最好敲门”，We“我们”；are supposed to/should“应该”；had better“最好”；knock at the door“敲门”。故填We are supposed to knock at the door/We should knock at the door/We had better knock at the door。 【60题详解】 根据问句和图片可知，该句可以表达为“我在等公共汽车”，该句是过去进行时，I“我”；was waiting for“在等”；the bus“公共汽车”。故填I was waiting for the bus。 第二节 作文 (满分25分) 61. 初中生活转瞬即逝。在这四年里，你可能学会了一项体育技能，或参加了一次精彩的演讲；也可能开展了一次有意义的研学，或参与了一项社团活动……这些都助力了你的成长，让你终身受益。最近，你们学校英语广播站正在开展以“难忘的时刻”为主题的征文活动，假如你是李华，请写一篇短文参赛，内容包括： 1.活动过程简介； 2.令你难忘的时刻； 3.你的感想。 注意： 1.词数100左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3.不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。 ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】例文 Unforgettable Moment During my four years in junior high school, I have experienced many unforgettable moments. One of the most memorable was when I participated in a school debate competition last year. Our team prepared for weeks, researching and practicing our arguments. On the day of the competition, I was very nervous, but as soon as I started speaking, my confidence grew. We presented our points clearly and rebutted the opposing team’s arguments effectively. In the end, we won the competition. This moment was unforgettable because it taught me the importance of preparation and teamwork. It also boosted my confidence in public speaking. I believe that this experience will benefit me throughout my life. 【解析】 【详解】[总体分析] ①题材：本文是一篇材料作文； ②时态：本文应使用“一般过去时”和“一般现在时”为主； ③提示：应注意题干给出的要点并适当补充，使文章内容充实。 [写作步骤] 第一步，介绍令自己难忘的事并描述活动过程； 第二步，详细描述难忘的时刻； 第三步，谈论自己的感想，并收尾。 [亮点词汇] ①participate in参加 ②prepare for为……做准备 [高分句型] ①One of the most memorable was when I participated in a school debate competition last year.（时间状语从句） ②This moment was unforgettable because it taught me the importance of preparation and teamwork.（原因状语从句） 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$