山东省济南市天桥区2024-2025学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题

八上期末测试参考答案 Ⅰ 听力 1-5 ACBAC 6-10 ACAAC 11-15 CBABC 16-20 BABCA Ⅱ阅读理解 21-25 BCABD 26-30 CABDC 31-35 BCACB 36-40 DCBCA Ⅲ 七选五 41-45 EDGAC Ⅳ 补全对话 46-50 ABCDD Ⅴ 完形填空 51—55 BCACD 56—60 CDABD 61—65 CCADB Ⅵ 阅读填词 66. lost 67. the 68. Though/ Although 69. to write 70. more 71. dishes 72. on 73. happily 74.will come 75.ourselves Ⅶ 书面表达 76. I bought a wallet (for her/my mother/mom). 77. Can you/Would you like to come to my birthday party? 78. There will be more trees (in the future). 79. How often does Tom play soccer/football? 80. Why do you like (watching) news? 八年级英语听力文稿 A) 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. Cut up the bananas. 2. People won’t use money. 3. We read books every day. 4. Did you buy anything? 5. What does Jack want to be? B) 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. W: Dad, what do we need for the salad? M: Three apples, four strawberries and two cups of yogurt. 7. W: Jason, can you come to see a movie with me tonight? M: I’d love to, but I’m afraid not. I have to study for the coming exam. 8. W: Wow! Jim. What nice photos! M: Thanks. I often had fun in the West Park before, but yesterday I found the Water Park was a much nicer place to take photos. 9. W: Bob, I watched your play last night. You acted so well. M: Thanks! I take acting lessons after school on Wednesday. 10.W：Oh, mom. I am too tired to walk. Is there a cinema near here? M: Well, Lisa. Sun Cinema and Moon Theater have the most comfortable seats. But Town Cinema is the closest. C) 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。对话读两遍。(听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间) A: Nancy, would you like to go shopping after school? B: Sorry, Ben. I will meet Mr. hunt at 5:00 in the afternoon. A: Mr. Hunt? Our art teacher? B: Yes. He will have an art show this Friday. I am going to help him prepare the show. A: Sounds great. What will you do? B:Well, yesterday we prepared pictures and posters. I think today I will probably clean up the hall with some students. A: Where is the show? B: It’s in our new library at our school. A: Well, can I go with you? I also have an interest in art. B: Of course! Mr. Hunt will be glad to see you. A: OK. Let’s go. D) 在录音中, 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。短文读两遍。(听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间) Do you like making things with your hands? Sandy is a 15-year-old girl from the US. She likes to make things out of old things. Last month, her best friend, Lily had a birthday party. She wanted to do something special for her. She thought for a while and decided to make a nice skirt for her with some old newspapers. She found some old newspapers at home. Then she started her work. She spent two days drawing, cutting and shaping the skirt, and it took her another two days to finish the skirt. “It’s not easy to make it,” Sandy said. “But when the skirt comes out, I think what I do is great.” Lily was so excited in her nice skirt. All her classmates liked it very much. They all wanted to take photos with Lily. “ I love this skirt so much and I will keep it forever,” said Lily. So, do you like making things with your hands? Just like Sandy, you can find so much pleasure in it. It doesn’t matter if it’s nice at first. The important thing is to enjoy what you make. Now give it a try and see what wonderful things you can make with your own hands. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$ 2024-2025学年第一学期八年级期末测试 英 语 试 题 本试卷共10页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 第一节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. A. Cut up the bananas. B. Let’s have a party. C. Mix these pieces together. 2. A. I can’t stand sitcoms! B. Sam isn’t free today. C. People won’t use money. 3. A. I do exercise once a week. B. We read books every day. C. Tina works harder than me. 4. A. Did you buy anything? B. Do they go shopping? C. Is Tom smarter than Sam? 5. A. How was the trip to Wuhan? B. Where did you go yesterday? C. What does Jack want to be? 第二节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. How much yogurt do they need? A. Two cups. B. Three cups. C. Four cups. 7. What is Jason going to do tonight? A. Go to a party. B. Go to a movie. C. Prepare for an exam. 8. Where did Jim go yesterday? A. Water park.       B. West Park.        C. Fun Park. 9. How often does Bob take acting lessons? A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week. 10. Which cinema will Lisa probably choose? A. Sun Cinema. B. Moon Theater. C. Town Cinema. 第三节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到一段对话, 对话后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. What time will Nancy meet Mr. Hunt in the afternoon? A. At 3:00. B. At 4:00. C. At 5:00. 12. Who is Mr. Hunt? A. An actor. B. A teacher. C. A doctor. 13. What will Nancy probably do to help Mr. Hunt? A. Clean up the hall. B. Draw some pictures. C. Make the posters. 14. Where is the art show? A. In the bookshop. B. In the library. C. In the supermarket. 15. Why does Ben want to go with Nancy? A. He is free after school. B. He is good at drawing. C. He is interested in art. 第四节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16. Where is Sandy from? A. The UK. B. The US. C. China. 17. Who had a birthday party last month? A. Lily. B. Helen. C. Sandy. 18. What did Sandy make for Lily’s birthday? A. A cake. B. A skirt. C. A painting. 19. How long did it take Sandy to make the gift? A. Two days. B. Three days. C. Four days. 20. What do you think of Sandy? A. Creative. B. Strict. C. Outgoing. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20个小题：每小题2分，满分40分） ASafe Cycling for Everyone Cycling is fun and is good for your health. However, we should always take safety seriously because we can hurt ourselves and others if we don’t. Make sure you read these pieces of safety advice before setting off on your bike! Where to cycle ∙Do cycle on roads for bicycles. Those are very safe. ∙Do not cycle on roads with “No cycling” signs. ∙Do not cycle in crowded places. Get off and push your bicycles at such places. How to cycle safely ∙Do not use your phones while cycling. You need to look at your surroundings (周围环境) carefully. ∙Do not perform dangerous moves. You could hurt yourself and those around you. What to wear ∙Wear your safety helmet (头盔) every time you ride your bicycle. If you meet with an accident, it will save your life. ∙It would be safer if you wear elbow guards (护具) and knee guards too. ∙Do not wear shorts, pants or dresses that are too loose (宽松的) because they may get in the bicycle wheels. 21. Why should people wear a safety helmet when cycling? A. To look cool. B. To keep safe. C. To cycle faster. D. To keep warm. 22. Which can we wear when we cycle? A. Shorts. B. Pants. C. Elbow guards. D. Dresses. 23. Where can we ride a bicycle? A. Roads for bicycles. B. Roads only for cars. C. Places with many people. D. Roads with “No cycling” signs. 24. Why is it dangerous to use phones when cycling? A. Because it is fun but not healthy. B. Because we may not look around carefully. C. Because they may get in the bicycle wheels. D. Because we may perform dangerous moves. 25. Where is the passage most probably from? A. A diary. B. A storybook. C. A letter. D. A magazine. B Yang Weiyun is 75 years old now. She comes from Huainan city of Anhui province and has much experience in teaching. She had been a Chinese teacher in a school for 30 years and a kindergarten head for another 20 years. Yang still wanted to do something meaningful after she stopped teaching at school. Three years ago, she got the idea of teaching through live streaming (直播) online. Yang started it and gave free pinyin lessons to kids in no time. But later she learned that there are many adults (成年人) who cannot read or write. Yang said she found that many illiterate adults were afraid to go to new places. They also worried that they couldn’t teach their children or read their boss’s words. “Many illiterate adults didn’t go to school when they were young. Now they really need to learn to read and write. So I wanted to give them a new starting point,”said Yang. Most of Yang’s adult students are busy at work. They have to make the time to learn the lessons, so Yang has two livestream lessons, starting at 8:30 a.m. and 8:30 p.m. every day. Yang’s live lessons show an easy way for those adults who want to learn to read and write. Now she has nearly 300,000 followers on Douyin. Yang has tried her best to find the best ways to help the students learn and remember better. Her biggest wish now is to see these students improve themselves. 26. When did Yang Weiyun begin teaching online? A. At the age of 20. B. At the age of 30. C. At the age of 72. D. At the age of 75. 27. Who did Yang Weiyun want to teach online at first? A. Young children. B. Chinese teachers. C. Busy adults. D. College students. 28. How often does Yang Weiyun give lessons online? A. Once a day. B. Twice a day. C. Once a week. D. Twice a week. 29. What’s Yang Weiyun’s biggest wish now? A. To have more followers on Douyin. B. To make more money from teaching. C. To teach more kindergarten students. D. To see her students become better. 30. What is the passage mainly about? .A. The way illiterate adults learn pinyin. .B. An easy way of learning to read and write. .C. A 75-year-old teacher teaches online for free. .D. Children want to learn to read and write online. C Chinese calligraphy (书法) is an important part of traditional Chinese culture. Calligraphy started in China and spread to other parts of Asia with Chinese culture. It has a history more than 4000 years. Calligraphy is the art of writing Chinese characters (汉字) and rules of writing with a brush. When you practice calligraphy, it is important to pay attention to the changes of the strokes (笔画) and the spaces between characters. There are many famous calligraphers in history, such as Wang Xizhi and Yan Zhenqing. Different calligraphy works can show different calligraphers’ feelings and personalities (性格). Today, they can be seen on the walls of offices, shops, hotels and many other places. “If I live in China, I will become a calligrapher rather than a painter for sure,” the world-famous artist, Picasso said. He fell in love with Chinese calligraphy as soon as he saw Zhang Daqian’s works. The tool for practicing calligraphy is calligraphy brushes. They are usually made of the hair of different animals. Practicing calligraphy takes a lot of time and many people take lessons to learn it. During the lessons, they can learn how to write different strokes of Chinese characters. If you’re interested in it, you may start practicing with a teacher right away. Calligraphy, an amazing traditional art form, shows the love that all Chinese people have for culture and beauty. Chinese people of all ages practice calligraphy often, not to be a calligrapher, but to enjoy the peaceful mind. 31. How long is the history of Chinese calligraphy? A. Less than 4,000 years. B. Over 4,000 years. C. More than 5,000 years. D. About 5,000 years. 32. How many calligraphers does the writer mention in the passage? A. One. B. Two. .C. Three. D. Four. 33. What does the underlined word “they” refer to in paragraph 2? A. Different calligraphy works. B. Wang Xizhi and Yan Zhenqing. C. Many famous calligraphers. D. Different calligraphers’ feelings. 34. What can we infer(推断) from paragraph 4? A. Learning calligraphy is a quite quick and easy thing. B. Calligraphy brushes are only made of the hair of sheep. C. Learning calligraphy well needs an experienced teacher’s help. D. Calligraphy brushes are too expensive for people to buy nowadays. 35. What’s the best title of the passage? A. The history of calligraphy. B. The beauty of calligraphy. C. The works of calligraphy. D. The stories of calligraphy. D Are you an “I” person or an “E” person? People have talked about it a lot online these days. The ideas come from a popular personality test called MBTI. They test the personality in eight ways. Each way uses a letter to show the meaning. For example, the letter “I” means you are shy and the letter “E” means you are outgoing. After the test each person will get a four-letter result to show the personality. In all, there are sixteen kinds of personality in the test. Why do people want to take the MBTI test? Most people take the MBTI test for fun, but some don’t. Here are the survey (调查) results from three people by Life Week magazine. “People want to learn about themselves and others,” Guo Yongyuan, an expert told the magazine. “When they know themselves and others better, they can learn to be with others. That helps them feel more relaxed.” Gao Yanyi, a middle school student from Shanxi, thinks that the MBTI test can help her find friends with similar MBTI results with her quickly. She adds, “But that should not be the only way to find friends. Sometimes it could make me lose possible good friends with different kinds of MBTI.” Ma Ruina, from Beijing No.4 Middle school, took the test once. He doesn’t want to use it in his life again. It made him feel like it’s limiting (限制) how people can be, as if there were only 16 kinds of people in the world. “Everyone is unique, and it’s not right to put people into simple groups,” he says. It can be sure that sixteen kinds of MBTI personality can never tell all the possibilities. I have to say, the personality test is just for fun. Everyone’s personality is different. Don’t let the test tell you who you are. 36. Why does the writer start the passage with a question? A. To get answers. B. To give an example. C. To make a survey. D. To get readers’ interest. 37. How many ways does MBTI test each person’s personality? A. One. B. Four. C. Eight. D. Sixteen. 38. What does the underlined word “unique” mean in paragraph 5？ A. Normal. B. Unusual. C. Famous. D. Common. 39. Which of the following is TRUE according to the survey results? A. The MBTI can tell every possibility in people. B. Guo Yongyuan advises people not to take the test. C. Gao Yanyi may use it to help find similar friends. D. Ma Ruina agrees to put people into the same groups. 40. What does the writer think about MBTI according to the Paragraph 6? A. He thinks we shouldn’t take it seriously. B. He really agrees with the results. C. He expects more people to take the test. D. He thinks it’s necessary and useful. 第二节 阅读七选五（共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Friends bring joy and fun to our life. To most of us, it’s always easy to make friends but hard to go on one more step closer to our friends. 41 Be yourself with your friends. Sometimes your friends may find out that you are different from what they thought. To keep them from losing trust in you, find some proper (合适的) time to tell them what you really often do and like to do. 42 Go through the difficult times with small tricks (窍门). 43 When your friends taste the bad one, why not do something interesting together, like watching a sitcom. Doing this, your friends may be happy again. The best friends may not always agree with each other and even have few words for days. Other small tricks like telling jokes or playing funny games may also help you get along with your friends better. 44 We all know that people like to communicate (交流) with their close friends as often as possible. When talking, you should talk about your feelings and what you like or don’t like in a nice way. Use “I” statements, such as “I’m here for you,” or “I feel happy when we hang out together”. 45 For example, if you’re upset, just say “I feel sad when you don’t invite me.” And always remember to say “please” and “thank you”. Good communication makes your friendships stronger. A. Find proper ways to communicate. B. Agree with your friends all the time. C. It’s also important to tell your true feelings. D. And they may know more about you and understand you. E. The ways below will help you build a stronger friendship. F. A true friend likes to do the same things as me and makes me laugh. G. Life is like a box of chocolates and you never know what you’ll get. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5个小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 A: How was your day off, Tina? B: Oh, it was boring. I just stayed at home. A: Really? 46 B: Well, I wanted to go camping, but the weather was terrible. 47 A: Oh, that’s too bad. Then what did you do? B: 48 But it wasn’t much fun. A: Well, not all talk shows are exciting. B: 49 Did you go out? A: Yes, I went to the city library and met a famous writer. B: Lucky you. What else did you do there? A: 50 And I got his autograph (签名) on it. B: That sounds wonderful. 46. A. What happened? B. Are you OK? C. Can you help me? D. How is the weather? 47. A. It is raining now. B. It rained all day. C. It is very sunny. D. It was fantastic. 48. A. I went there by ship. B. I had delicious food. .C. I watched a talk show. D. I went out for a walk. 49. A.Would you like to go with me? B. When did you get to the museum? C. Why did you meet a famous actor? D. How about your day off, Tony? 50. A. I’m going to be a nurse. B. I didn’t like action movies. C. I couldn’t stand soap operas. D. I bought a book by the writer. 第二节 完形填空（共15个小题：每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 For all his life, my grandfather has lived in the valley (山谷) of Koi. There’s a very beautiful flower 51 fire flower. Although life was good, my grandfather was always 52 about his people. “The mountains and river kept danger out, but they also kept us in. We must find a 53 to reach out to other villages,” grandfather said. “But it is impossible to 54 over the mountain and across the river,” people said. My grandfather knew that was true. He spent hours 55 through the valley, thinking. One day, he saw a spider (蜘蛛) build a web 56 two blades (叶片) of grass. Suddenly, my grandfather got an idea. Many villagers said. “It’s not easy. And what if bad people learned 57 the fire flowers grew?” “If I were a fire flower, it would be 58 to be picked and enjoyed than left alone and unseen,” grandfather said. Some villagers nodded. Soon they gathered to study plans. After years of hard work, 59 , the bridge was finished! But some villagers were afraid. “I will be the first to cross,” said grandfather. A few minutes later, grandfather 60 the other side. When my grandfather came back, a stranger came with him. Nobody knew him. His hair was white like my grandfather’s, 61 his clothing were different from ours. His face shone with kindness. “ 62 a long time, I have hoped to cross the river and see the fire flowers,” the stranger said. “And I have brought a 63 to you. This is an ice flower, the most 64 flower that grows on my side of the valley.” Our village is 65 small and quiet, but we are no longer cut off from the world. I’m going to leave our village for the first time. I would like to meet a stranger and share a fire flower of Koi. 51. A. used B. called C. watered D. discussed 52. A. surprised B. excited C. worried D. interested 53. A. way B. plan C. test D. result 54. A. watch B. build C. travel D. follow 55. A. swimming B. jumping C. flying D. walking 56. A. from B. into C. between D. after 57. A. who B. what C. when D. where 58. A. better B. easier C. worse D. harder 59. A. quickly B. finally C. certainly D. probably 60. A. saved B. studied C. touched D. reached 61. A. so B. and C. but D. because 62. A. In B. At C. For D. With 63. A. gift B. pet C. joke D. program 64. A. interesting B. comfortable C. expensive D. beautiful 65. A. often B. still C. already D. never 第三节 阅读填空（共10个小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Lily was a single mother who lived with her little son. She (66)__________ (lose) her job two years ago and they lived a very hard life. She felt sad every time her son asked, “Can I have some more bread, Mommy?” One day, when her son asked (67)__________ same question again, she bought some food with her only 5 dollars and cooked a big meal for him at home. After that meal, she made her mind to change (改变) their life. (68)__________ Lily was shy, she was also creative and strong-minded. She used to love writing, so she decided (69)__________ (write) some articles for magazines to make some money. At first, the articles by her were sent back all the time. As time went by, her efforts (努力) began to pay off. With the help of her payment from her articles and the free vegetables from the local food bank, they had (70)__________ (much) to eat than before. Things went much better. Once her son told Lily that the (71)__________ (dish) she made were very delicious. Suddenly, an idea came to Lily’s mind, “Why not share my recipes (食谱) (72)__________ the Internet?” She did so. Many people liked her recipes and she became popular. Soon after that, Lily wrote a book on cooking and got much money from it. Finally, she didn’t need to worry about their everyday life. Now Lily lives (73)__________ (happy), but she’ll never forget the days when she worked hard for a good life. Lily’s story shows us that if we use our talents and never give up, our dream (74)__________ (come) true. So why not take action now and build a better life for (75)__________ (we) and our loved ones. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35） 第一节 情境运用（共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片, 用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76. A: Lily, what did you buy for your mother on vacation? B: _______________________________________. 77. A: _______________________________________, Ted? B: Sorry, I’m not available. I have to study for a test. 78. A: What will the future be like? B: _______________________________________. 79. A: _______________________________________? B: Twice a week. 80. A: _______________________________________? B: Because I want to know what happens around the world. 第二节 作文 （满分25分） 百节年为首，四季春为先。最近，“春节(Spring Festival)——中国人庆祝传统新年的社会实践”被列入联合国教科文组织人类非物质文化遗产代表作名录。假如你是李华，你的笔友Paul听闻此消息，通过电子邮件向你表达了祝贺。请你回复他一封信，诚邀他寒假期间来中国体验春节的热闹与欢乐，并向他分享你的寒假计划。 内容包括： 1. 春节对于中国人的重要意义； 2. 你最想带Paul体验的一项春节传统活动； 3. 寒假期间的具体打算（至少两个不同的方面）。 注意： 1. 文中必须包含所有提示要点，可适当发挥使行文连贯； 2. 条理清晰，字迹工整，词数不少于100词；（开头已给出，不计入总词数。） 3. 文中不得出现真实的姓名、校名。 Dear Paul, I’m glad to receive your e-mail. __________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________ I am looking forward to seeing you soon! 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