2025届高三英语高考模拟风向卷（新高考II卷）01

■■■ 2025届高三英语高考模拟风向卷（新高考Ⅱ卷）01 随在各醒鞋的荐通性线内作荐，担性里色甲据收框限定以城的蒂家光益 英语·答题卡 第具部分写作〔共两节，禽分4切分】 第一节（海分15分） 名 味可 标起 局条形码区 0 注常率装 2 23 考生先自己过名，号号同写请笔，井 3 3 3 认气畅变脑考县所该系形网。 4 4 4 非选择题用a3 黑色学捷的善道填写。半体工塑 5 1 括号序在各题的若整区内作。想出区围 6 的若案更效，在意题，试表上作若更效。 》 保卡南洁。不要到叠、不随、弄。不生用 改清、制境刀。 王填■ 选择题（请用2B铅笔填涂】 I IAHRIIC) 61A1■ICI H14JIBIICI W IAIIBIICI 》141381c0 T IAIIRBICI BIAIIRIICI 节1411811c1 31411每HC可 IAIIRIICI D IAIIBIIC] n1411B1c1 41411n11c0 ◆1A1H#11C1 141A11IC1 191411811C1 多1411B11C I IAIISIICI IS IAIIBIICI 1n141011C EAIIRIICHD1 第IA1 lnc1It IAIIBIICIIDI XIAIIRIICHDIIEIIFIIGI 日1AIuC1时 T1A1IsIe1ID对 只1A1InIE11B 391411nIC11D11E1I11G1 第二节《裤分5分) IAIIIICIIDI 每1A1a1IC1H0 IAIISIICIDIIEIIFIIGI 41A1i11C1D时 号1A1181e11D 341A1181tC11B 391A1111C1D11E1111G1 IAIISIICJIDI 地1AHLC1HD 级1A1Ha11C11D1 4错1A11n11C11D1E1111C1 对1A18C11时 行1AI811e11叫 对1A1H811C11B1 0【A1H0ic11B 楼1A1HiC110 白IA1HaHC11D1 441A1I参Ie1D 4w1A1134e11 IAIIBIICIDI IAIIRIICIIDI 琴1A1量1HeI 非选择题（请在各试愿的答题区内作答） 第三常分语言运用（共两节，满分对分） 第二节（共10小题：每小恩L5分。清分15分》 7 5很 6记 请在器程日的唇整以减内作昏，想出图色见型边阳以城的许素主数！ P雪 请有洛道1们等题国域内作都，目出用色形边制用记区物酒案毛效1 Mark supported me as I took角o网fi寸eps md afier ci的tek线t4 as tine1 o let m things go 请勿在此区域内作答 或者做任何标记 有在各随日门运和非荣与衡店4事色和帮进制果《域初荐美七效 可师第4耳（共4耳司………………○………………外………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… ………………○………………内………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… 此卷只装订不密封 ………………○………………内………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… ………………○………………外………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… … 学校：______________姓名：_____________班级：_______________考号：______________________ 2025届高三英语高考模拟风向卷（新高考II卷）01 英语 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1．Where are the speakers? A．At a bookstore. B．At a gallery. C．At a meeting. 2．Why does the woman want to talk to Professor Monroe? A．For her article. B．For campus life. C．For a job interview. 3．When did the man watch a film? A．On Saturday. B．On Friday. C．On Tuesday. 4．What is the woman going to do? A．Go shopping. B．Leave the post office. C．Write the address on the envelope. 5．How is Sophie feeling now? A．Confused. B．Worried. C．Disappointed. 第二节（共15小题;每小题1．5分，满分22．5分） 听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第 6 段材料，回答第 6至7题。 6．What is the most probable relationship between the speakers? A．Parent and child. B．Taxi driver and passenger. C．Airport worker and air traveler. 7．Where does the woman’s brother live? A．In Ireland. B．In England. C．In France. 听第7段材料，回答第 8至9题。 8．What is the man doing? A．Having a job interview. B．Attending the new staff training. C．Discussing his career development. 9．What does the woman’s company offer? A．Competitive salaries. B．Flexible working hours. C．Promotion opportunities. 听第8段材料，回答第10至13题。 10．What was the most challenging for Amy in the first stage? A．Avoiding wasting the ingredients. B．Reflecting her character in the dish. C．Buying enough things within budget. 11．What did the competitors do in the second stage? A．They cooked for the restaurant. B．They submitted a four-course menu. C．They prepared a dish for the judges. 12．What happened to Amy in the second stage? A．She failed to use the oven. B．She forgot to take the pizza stone. C．She made the same dish as her competitor. 13．What was the judges’ reaction when tasting the food? A．Excitement. B．Calmness. C．Disappointment. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14．What do we know about the woman? A．She has taken Spanish classes. B．She has been to Spain many times. C．She has learned Spanish for work. 15．How long will the course last? A．About one month. B．About two months. C．About three months. 16．Why does the man advise the woman to register early? A．The number of places is decreased. B．The registering time is limited. C．The classes are very popular. 17．What does the woman request in the end? A．A list of the textbooks. B．A thin book on the courses. C．A way to contact the center. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18．Who is the most likely to use the new product? A．A man in his thirties. B．A woman aged forty. C．A girl student. 19．What can we know about this product? A．It has one size. B．It is convenient to use. C．It is available now. 20．What is probably the speaker? A．A salesman. B．A tourist. C．A hair designer. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A On August 18, 2025 the Artist Project will celebrate its 10th year with a three-day art fair at the Better Living Centre, Exhibition Place, Toronto. From collectors to designers, visitors can explore and discover works of art from 250 contemporary artists from Canada and abroad-allowing guests the unique opportunity to communicate and buy art directly from the artists and support the next generation of Canadian artists. Highlights: ·Art Chats: this popular seminar (研讨会) series will offer a range of fascinating talks hosted by leading art experts. ·Live Artist Competition: Art Battle Canada and the Artist Project have teamed up to bring a 20-minuite live artist competition. Members of the audience will vote for their favourite painting and later bid in a silent auction (拍卖), so they can leave with a piece they love to hang in their home. ·Emerging Artists Competition: Devoled to supporting the development of students, new graduates, and self-taught artists, the Artist Project will give recognition to 20 emerging artists through this competition, providing free space and a platform for them to launch their artwork and make connections within the world of contemporary art. Purpose statement We aim to create an environment that fuels enriching conversation and offer you a more personal experience with art. We are the place that connects art lovers with art makers, because we believe that how we view art is a reflection of our human experience. Ticket Information: Adult admission: $15 Door, $14 Online Group adult tickets: (10+ people) $10 Each, online only Youth admission:(13-17) $10 Children 12 or under: free Website: www. theartistproject. com 21．What can visitors do on the art fair? A．Vote for their favourite artists. B．Enjoy art works of ancient artists. C．Compete with the young artists. D．Purchase art works directly from artists. 22．What can we learn about the Emerging Artists Competition? A．It’s a fantastic opportunity for emerging artists. B．It is committed to teaching the new graduates. C．It will provide fund support for younger artists. D．It will recognize as many new artists as possible. 23．How much should a parent and a 13-year-old kid pay for two online tickets? A．$14. B．$15. C．$24. D．$25. B My doctor took me for a walk around the farm where she lived. I was physically and emotionally exhausted and discouraged by anxiety and depression. The place was full of life. There were insects, horses, rabbits, and a cat. She told me to focus on my body in the environment. When I was ill, I tended to withdraw into my mind and disconnect from the here and now. So, when I met a horse named Fira, I expected nothing. As I got closer to Fira, she rubbed her nose into my chest, putting a gentle pressure over my heart. Something happened inside me: I felt as if I had reached a wellspring of past hurts, fears and failings. I began to melt emotionally. I patted Fira’s nose and breathed in her smell. I found I didn’t have to concentrate on feeling better; Fira helped me feel loved and safe. I worked with Fira often, learning basic communication and leading methods to work together with her. Initially, I wasn’t sure exactly what one would do with a horse except riding it. But I knew that Fira had touched me in an uncommon way and had made me feel better. She connected with me by responding to my emotional state and reflecting it back to me in an open, affectionate way. In my meetings with Fira, I learned to live in the present, to focus on what was happening this day, in this moment, in this place. I learned to forget the past, with all its hurt. I learned to forget the future, which hasn’t happened yet. With Fira by my side, I saw into a life in which trust comes first, and compassion follows. I found a deep peace in leading her along a path, by using my own power of intention to indicate whether to start, stop, turn left or turn right. I felt an inner quiet and even joy. My work with this horse was part of a journey out of a very dark night in my soul. 24．Why did the writer expect nothing when meeting Fira? A．Because Fira’s reaction led the writer to feel hurt and fearful. B．Because the writer’s mentality kept her from connecting with others. C．Because the writer knew nothing about Fira and didn’t know what to expect. D．Because the animals on the farm distracted the writer from focusing on her body. 25．Which of the following statements about Fira is TRUE? A．Fira was the writer’s pet, living on her farm. B．Fira made the writer feel better by giving her rides. C．Fira got the writer to concentrate on her hurt feelings. D．Fira responded affectionately to the writer’s approach. 26．In the last paragraph, the writer shares her experience with Fira to imply that _______. A．animals can follow people’s instructions, thus gaining their trust B．interacting with animals can be a therapy to psychological distress C．meetings with animals can help people step out of their comfort zone D．people can access temporary peace and joy when working with animals 27．Which of the following can be the best title for the passage? A．My Doctor’s Farm: A Place of Healing B．Fira: The Horse that Saved My Life C．From Darkness to Light: My Journey with Fira D．Horse Smell: The Magic Power C Researcher Jesse Dodge did some math on the amount of energy AI chatbots use. “One query (查询) to ChatGPT uses about the same amount of electricity as lighting one electric lamp for about 20 minutes,” he says. “So, you can imagine with millions of people using something like that every day, that adds up to a really large amount of electricity.” Dodge has been studying how artificial intelligence consumes energy. To generate its answers, AI uses far more power than traditional Internet uses, like search queries or cloud storage. And as AI gets more complicated, it needs more energy to operate. In the U.S., a majority of that energy comes from burning fossil fuels like coal and gas which are primary drivers of climate change. Most companies working on AI, including ChatGPT maker OpenAI, don’t disclose their emissions. But, last week, Google released a new sustainability report. Deep within the 86-page report, Google said its greenhouse gas emissions rose last year by 48% since 2019. It owes that rise to its data center energy consumption and supply chain emissions. “As we further integrate AI into our products, reducing emissions may be challenging,” the report reads. Google has the goal of reaching net-zero emissions by 2030. Since 2007, the company has said its company operations were carbon neutral (碳中和的) because of the carbon offsets (碳补偿) it buys to match its emissions. But, starting in 2023, Google wrote in its sustainability report that it was no longer “maintaining operational carbon neutrality due to financial pressure”. The company says it’s still pushing for its net-zero goal in 2030. “Google’s real motivation here is to build the best AI systems that they can,” Dodge says. “And they’re willing to pour a ton of resources into that, including things like training AI systems on bigger and bigger data centers all the way up to supercomputers, which causes a large amount of electricity consumption and therefore CO2 emissions.” Microsoft has taken its climate pledge one step further than Google, saying it will be carbon negative by 2030. However, it too is facing difficulty because of its focus on AI. 28．What is mainly talked about in Paragraph 3? A．AI’s great demand for energy. B．AI’s scientific improvement. C．The powerful function of AI. D．The complicated operation of AI. 29．Why does Google change its promise to maintain operational carbon neutrality? A．It is becoming less important. B．The cost might be too large. C．It goes against the whole plan. D．The aim has nearly been achieved. 30．What does the underlined word “pledge” in the last paragraph probably mean? A．Commitment. B．Analysis. C．Feature. D．Change. 31．What is the aim of this text? A．To advertise. B．To persuade. C．To inform. D．To entertain. D When we’re tired or injured, we often go to bed earlier to recharge and mend our bodies. That’s because we often think that night is a golden time to deal with stress or injuries. But is it true? Nathaniel Hoyle, a scientist of the Laboratory of Molecular Biology in Cambridge, UK, has been leading a study into this topic. The team discovered that fibroblast cells (成纤维细胞) in the body switch off at night. These cells help close up a wound after the skin is broken and lay a foundation for new skin to grow. Why exactly are these cells less active at night? It’s all to do with your body’s circadian (昼夜节律的) rhythm — a 24-hour internal clock that helps your cells do their jobs on time. New Scientist reported that a group of 30 genes that control the fibroblasts worked only daytime shifts, causing the slower healing process at night. To test its theory, the Cambridge-based team examined data from the International Burn Injury Database, which records details of burn victims around the world. This analysis revealed that nighttime burns, on average, took 11 more days to heal than burns during the day. A similar result occurred while experimenting using live mice. Those that were cut during night-time hours recovered more slowly than those during the day. “You can see by eyes, when the cell is wounded only 8 hours apart from each other, in different circadian periods, the daytime wounded ones take off, and the nighttime ones drag,” research team member John O’Neill told Science Alert. He added, “The time-varying response may be an evolutionary adaptation. As people are more likely to sustain injuries when awake than when sleeping, perhaps our bodies are prepared to respond more quickly in the daytime.” He went on to say that it could be beneficial to schedule surgeries in time with people’s circadian rhythms, earlier for early birds and later for night owls, in order to lessen recovery time. However, in any case, it might be best not to use anything sharp once the sun goes down. 32．What is the purpose of the first paragraph? A．To explain how we recharge our bodies. B．To arouse the interest of the readers in the topic. C．To prove that everyone suffers stress and injuries. D．To introduce a new discovery for dealing with stress. 33．What do the researchers find during their research? A．Burns take the same time to heal regardless of their cut time. B．Fibroblast cells boost the healing by working nighttime shift. C．Mice respond differently in the healing process from humans. D．A body’s circadian rhythm matters in waking up fibroblast cells. 34．What can we learn according to John O’Neill? A．People tend to bear pain more when they are asleep. B．Sharp knives are not suggested in the middle of the day. C．Night owls operated on in the nighttime may recover sooner. D．Evolution adaptation causes people’s time-varying responses. 35．What can be a suitable title for this passage? A．Why We Heal Injuries Better in the Daytime B．A Research Offers Clues to Treating Injuries C．How We Heal Wounds and Injuries Effectively D．Scientists Unlock the Secret to Avoiding Injuries 第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How often do you have a conversation with someone, and think you are paying attention to him or her, only to realize shortly afterwards that you can't remember what he said? Or, perhaps you get distracted while he is speaking and miss the message that he is trying to deliver. 36 : TVs, radios, traffic noises, telephones, laptops and so on, which can make it difficult to listen with our full attention. But how can we listen more effectively? 37 . He said, “Mindfulness means paying attention in a particular way, with a purpose, at the present moment and non - judgmentally.” 38 ? Jon Kabat - Zinn describes three key elements of mindful listening that we can use to improve our listening skills. First of all, be present. When we listen mindfully, our focus should be on the person we are listening to without distractions. Then develop empathy (共鸣). We often see the world through our own experiences. When we're empathetic, we can understand a situation from someone else's point of view. 39 . Our cues are the thoughts, feelings and physical reactions that we have when we feel anxious or angry, and they can block out ideas and perspectives that we re uncomfortable with. Mindful listening can help us to be more aware of our cues. 40 In conclusion, the rule is straightforward: simply “Listen”! Listen carefully and attentively. Pay full attention to the other person, and don' t let other thoughts, like what we are going to say next, distract us. A．Finally, listen to our own “cues” B．What can we do with mindful listening C．But how can we apply mindful listening to our life D．At last, “cues” helps us understand the speaker's ideas E．In today's busy world, modern life is full of distractions F．Besides, it allows us to choose not to let them block communication G．Professor Jon Kabat - Zinn put forward the idea of mindful listening 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 I used to go to school on an empty stomach. I had to walk to school without shoes, each step an encounter on 41 paths, where sharp stones pressed against my bare feet. In those moments, l felt a mix of desperation and determination. Desperation about the 42 , but a growing determination that someday, somehow, I would 43 my story. We were eight children at home. Meeting basic needs was a constant 44 and even shoes were beyond our reach. I 45 got my first pair of shoes when I joined Senior Secondary School. I 46 hard for the primary level and was awarded a bursary (奖学金). That 47 my parents to buy me shoes. That first day I walked in my new shoes, each step felt 48 and sure beneath me. To me, they were not just shoes, but a(n) 49 that through hard work, I could change my 50 . The day I turned 18, I left home and 51 the unknown. My first job was in construction. That’s all I could 52 since I didn’t have any formal qualifications. Each day my 53 hardened. Every brick I laid, every bag of cement (水泥) I mixed, was 54 me, not just physically, but mentally and emotionally. Though life was not easy, I kept 55 myself, “Always remember, your future is 100% your responsibility.” 41．A．steep B．winding C．rough D．narrow 42．A．present B．future C．unknown D．impossible 43．A．relate B．believe C．spread D．change 44．A．reminder B．struggle C．interruption D．expectation 45．A．finally B．naturally C．surprisingly D．secretly 46．A．prayed B．studied C．applied D．saved 47．A．forced B．allowed C．inspired D．forbade 48．A．burdened B．effortless C．relieved D．solid 49．A．wish B．decision C．promise D．assumption 50．A．path B．job C．mind D．attitude 51．A．relied on B．held onto C．kept off D．stepped into 52．A．afford B．understand C．manage D．imagine 53．A．pride B．curiosity C．resolve D．loneliness 54．A．building B．relaxing C．testing D．exhausting 55．A．comforting B．reminding C．explaining D．cheating 第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 China will set up resources to advance the construction of the 5G network, expand the application of 5G technology in a 56 (various) of fields, and promote the research and development of 6G. This is 57 the officials and experts said at the 6th Digital China Summit. It ended on Friday in Fuzhou, Fujian Province. “China has built the world’s largest 5G network with the most advanced technologies,” said a leader of the information and telecommunications development department. He had expected 58 number of the country’s 5G base stations to be more than 2.64 million in March this year. He stated they would work 59 (efficient) to strengthen the building of the 5G network and accelerate 60 (it) industrial applications, push forward the development of 6G, and enhance international exchange and communication in 5G-related technology, standards and application. The superfast 5G wireless technology has been used in 52 of the 97 major economic categories, with large-scale application already 61 (expand) to mining, ports and electricity. Moreover, China has already established the IMT-2030 (6G) Promotion Group, a flagship platform in China promoting 6G and international cooperation. As 5G technology serves 62 a critical foundation supporting the development of artificial intelligence, big data and cloud computing, greater efforts should 63 (make) to explore application scenarios of 5G and empower the transformation of traditional industries. So far, China 64 (reveal) a plan for the overall layout of the country’s digital development, promising 65 (get) ahead in the construction of a digital China by 2025. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节 (满分15分) 上周五，你班举行了“科技创新在身边”主题班会。请你据此写一篇英文日记，内容包括： 1．班会目的； 2．班会过程； 3．班会反响。 注意： 1．写作词数应为80个左右； 2．请按如下格式作答。 ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节 （满分 25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 You’d never know that for years I’d been keeping a dirty secret. On the outside, I’m a doctor. But until a month ago, my own life was out of control. I loved filling up my home with useless possessions. From old clothes to broken televisions, I would keep them all. Having my own toys made me feel special. But if anything broke. It started when I was a kid. My mum would throw it away and that broke my heart. I remember crying for days when Mum poured my dead goldfish down the toilet. At 18, I moved into a shared house. With steady income from a job, I would hit the shops whenever I could. If anyone questioned how much I was buying, I always had an excuse. But no matter how much I owned, I was never satisfied. My flatmates began to get annoyed as my things occupied almost the entire apartment. After I moved into my own place, my demand for belongings stepped up a gear. As well as shopping, I started collecting things from the side of the street. I would pile everything in the back of my car and take it home regardless of whether I needed it or not. My husband Mark banned me from picking up anything when we were together. That made me feel anxious. Sometimes I’d sneak back when Mark had gone, picking up whatever I had my eye on and taking it back to my flat. With my apartment jam-packed, I started filling my car. Soon, giving anyone a lift was impossible and I started parking my car around the corner from Mark’s so he wouldn’t see my car. One day , I drove to Mia’s house. “ Your car is unbelievable ,” she said, taking a photo with her phone. I just shrugged. Mia uploaded the picture to Facebook and within minutes people were commenting on it. Some thought a homeless person must be living in it, and others said I needed psychological help. I was confused. Why were people being so mean? I found the courage to talk to my colleague Cindy about it. “You’re a hoarder (囤积狂),” she told me, softly squeezing my hand. 注意: 1.续写词数应为150左右; 2.请按如下格式作答。 As Cindy explained hoarding was a serious mental illness, it all clicked into place. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Mark supported me as I took those first steps and after eight weeks,  it was time to let my things go. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 试题 第11页（共12页） 试题 第12页（共12页） 试题 第9页（共12页） 试题 第10页（共12页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$ 2025届高三英语高考模拟风向卷（新高考II卷）01 英语 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1．Where are the speakers? A．At a bookstore. B．At a gallery. C．At a meeting. 2．Why does the woman want to talk to Professor Monroe? A．For her article. B．For campus life. C．For a job interview. 3．When did the man watch a film? A．On Saturday. B．On Friday. C．On Tuesday. 4．What is the woman going to do? A．Go shopping. B．Leave the post office. C．Write the address on the envelope. 5．How is Sophie feeling now? A．Confused. B．Worried. C．Disappointed. 第二节（共15小题;每小题1．5分，满分22．5分） 听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第 6 段材料，回答第 6至7题。 6．What is the most probable relationship between the speakers? A．Parent and child. B．Taxi driver and passenger. C．Airport worker and air traveler. 7．Where does the woman’s brother live? A．In Ireland. B．In England. C．In France. 听第7段材料，回答第 8至9题。 8．What is the man doing? A．Having a job interview. B．Attending the new staff training. C．Discussing his career development. 9．What does the woman’s company offer? A．Competitive salaries. B．Flexible working hours. C．Promotion opportunities. 听第8段材料，回答第10至13题。 10．What was the most challenging for Amy in the first stage? A．Avoiding wasting the ingredients. B．Reflecting her character in the dish. C．Buying enough things within budget. 11．What did the competitors do in the second stage? A．They cooked for the restaurant. B．They submitted a four-course menu. C．They prepared a dish for the judges. 12．What happened to Amy in the second stage? A．She failed to use the oven. B．She forgot to take the pizza stone. C．She made the same dish as her competitor. 13．What was the judges’ reaction when tasting the food? A．Excitement. B．Calmness. C．Disappointment. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14．What do we know about the woman? A．She has taken Spanish classes. B．She has been to Spain many times. C．She has learned Spanish for work. 15．How long will the course last? A．About one month. B．About two months. C．About three months. 16．Why does the man advise the woman to register early? A．The number of places is decreased. B．The registering time is limited. C．The classes are very popular. 17．What does the woman request in the end? A．A list of the textbooks. B．A thin book on the courses. C．A way to contact the center. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18．Who is the most likely to use the new product? A．A man in his thirties. B．A woman aged forty. C．A girl student. 19．What can we know about this product? A．It has one size. B．It is convenient to use. C．It is available now. 20．What is probably the speaker? A．A salesman. B．A tourist. C．A hair designer. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A On August 18, 2025 the Artist Project will celebrate its 10th year with a three-day art fair at the Better Living Centre, Exhibition Place, Toronto. From collectors to designers, visitors can explore and discover works of art from 250 contemporary artists from Canada and abroad-allowing guests the unique opportunity to communicate and buy art directly from the artists and support the next generation of Canadian artists. Highlights: ·Art Chats: this popular seminar (研讨会) series will offer a range of fascinating talks hosted by leading art experts. ·Live Artist Competition: Art Battle Canada and the Artist Project have teamed up to bring a 20-minuite live artist competition. Members of the audience will vote for their favourite painting and later bid in a silent auction (拍卖), so they can leave with a piece they love to hang in their home. ·Emerging Artists Competition: Devoled to supporting the development of students, new graduates, and self-taught artists, the Artist Project will give recognition to 20 emerging artists through this competition, providing free space and a platform for them to launch their artwork and make connections within the world of contemporary art. Purpose statement We aim to create an environment that fuels enriching conversation and offer you a more personal experience with art. We are the place that connects art lovers with art makers, because we believe that how we view art is a reflection of our human experience. Ticket Information: Adult admission: $15 Door, $14 Online Group adult tickets: (10+ people) $10 Each, online only Youth admission:(13-17) $10 Children 12 or under: free Website: www. theartistproject. com 21．What can visitors do on the art fair? A．Vote for their favourite artists. B．Enjoy art works of ancient artists. C．Compete with the young artists. D．Purchase art works directly from artists. 22．What can we learn about the Emerging Artists Competition? A．It’s a fantastic opportunity for emerging artists. B．It is committed to teaching the new graduates. C．It will provide fund support for younger artists. D．It will recognize as many new artists as possible. 23．How much should a parent and a 13-year-old kid pay for two online tickets? A．$14. B．$15. C．$24. D．$25. B My doctor took me for a walk around the farm where she lived. I was physically and emotionally exhausted and discouraged by anxiety and depression. The place was full of life. There were insects, horses, rabbits, and a cat. She told me to focus on my body in the environment. When I was ill, I tended to withdraw into my mind and disconnect from the here and now. So, when I met a horse named Fira, I expected nothing. As I got closer to Fira, she rubbed her nose into my chest, putting a gentle pressure over my heart. Something happened inside me: I felt as if I had reached a wellspring of past hurts, fears and failings. I began to melt emotionally. I patted Fira’s nose and breathed in her smell. I found I didn’t have to concentrate on feeling better; Fira helped me feel loved and safe. I worked with Fira often, learning basic communication and leading methods to work together with her. Initially, I wasn’t sure exactly what one would do with a horse except riding it. But I knew that Fira had touched me in an uncommon way and had made me feel better. She connected with me by responding to my emotional state and reflecting it back to me in an open, affectionate way. In my meetings with Fira, I learned to live in the present, to focus on what was happening this day, in this moment, in this place. I learned to forget the past, with all its hurt. I learned to forget the future, which hasn’t happened yet. With Fira by my side, I saw into a life in which trust comes first, and compassion follows. I found a deep peace in leading her along a path, by using my own power of intention to indicate whether to start, stop, turn left or turn right. I felt an inner quiet and even joy. My work with this horse was part of a journey out of a very dark night in my soul. 24．Why did the writer expect nothing when meeting Fira? A．Because Fira’s reaction led the writer to feel hurt and fearful. B．Because the writer’s mentality kept her from connecting with others. C．Because the writer knew nothing about Fira and didn’t know what to expect. D．Because the animals on the farm distracted the writer from focusing on her body. 25．Which of the following statements about Fira is TRUE? A．Fira was the writer’s pet, living on her farm. B．Fira made the writer feel better by giving her rides. C．Fira got the writer to concentrate on her hurt feelings. D．Fira responded affectionately to the writer’s approach. 26．In the last paragraph, the writer shares her experience with Fira to imply that _______. A．animals can follow people’s instructions, thus gaining their trust B．interacting with animals can be a therapy to psychological distress C．meetings with animals can help people step out of their comfort zone D．people can access temporary peace and joy when working with animals 27．Which of the following can be the best title for the passage? A．My Doctor’s Farm: A Place of Healing B．Fira: The Horse that Saved My Life C．From Darkness to Light: My Journey with Fira D．Horse Smell: The Magic Power C Researcher Jesse Dodge did some math on the amount of energy AI chatbots use. “One query (查询) to ChatGPT uses about the same amount of electricity as lighting one electric lamp for about 20 minutes,” he says. “So, you can imagine with millions of people using something like that every day, that adds up to a really large amount of electricity.” Dodge has been studying how artificial intelligence consumes energy. To generate its answers, AI uses far more power than traditional Internet uses, like search queries or cloud storage. And as AI gets more complicated, it needs more energy to operate. In the U.S., a majority of that energy comes from burning fossil fuels like coal and gas which are primary drivers of climate change. Most companies working on AI, including ChatGPT maker OpenAI, don’t disclose their emissions. But, last week, Google released a new sustainability report. Deep within the 86-page report, Google said its greenhouse gas emissions rose last year by 48% since 2019. It owes that rise to its data center energy consumption and supply chain emissions. “As we further integrate AI into our products, reducing emissions may be challenging,” the report reads. Google has the goal of reaching net-zero emissions by 2030. Since 2007, the company has said its company operations were carbon neutral (碳中和的) because of the carbon offsets (碳补偿) it buys to match its emissions. But, starting in 2023, Google wrote in its sustainability report that it was no longer “maintaining operational carbon neutrality due to financial pressure”. The company says it’s still pushing for its net-zero goal in 2030. “Google’s real motivation here is to build the best AI systems that they can,” Dodge says. “And they’re willing to pour a ton of resources into that, including things like training AI systems on bigger and bigger data centers all the way up to supercomputers, which causes a large amount of electricity consumption and therefore CO2 emissions.” Microsoft has taken its climate pledge one step further than Google, saying it will be carbon negative by 2030. However, it too is facing difficulty because of its focus on AI. 28．What is mainly talked about in Paragraph 3? A．AI’s great demand for energy. B．AI’s scientific improvement. C．The powerful function of AI. D．The complicated operation of AI. 29．Why does Google change its promise to maintain operational carbon neutrality? A．It is becoming less important. B．The cost might be too large. C．It goes against the whole plan. D．The aim has nearly been achieved. 30．What does the underlined word “pledge” in the last paragraph probably mean? A．Commitment. B．Analysis. C．Feature. D．Change. 31．What is the aim of this text? A．To advertise. B．To persuade. C．To inform. D．To entertain. D When we’re tired or injured, we often go to bed earlier to recharge and mend our bodies. That’s because we often think that night is a golden time to deal with stress or injuries. But is it true? Nathaniel Hoyle, a scientist of the Laboratory of Molecular Biology in Cambridge, UK, has been leading a study into this topic. The team discovered that fibroblast cells (成纤维细胞) in the body switch off at night. These cells help close up a wound after the skin is broken and lay a foundation for new skin to grow. Why exactly are these cells less active at night? It’s all to do with your body’s circadian (昼夜节律的) rhythm — a 24-hour internal clock that helps your cells do their jobs on time. New Scientist reported that a group of 30 genes that control the fibroblasts worked only daytime shifts, causing the slower healing process at night. To test its theory, the Cambridge-based team examined data from the International Burn Injury Database, which records details of burn victims around the world. This analysis revealed that nighttime burns, on average, took 11 more days to heal than burns during the day. A similar result occurred while experimenting using live mice. Those that were cut during night-time hours recovered more slowly than those during the day. “You can see by eyes, when the cell is wounded only 8 hours apart from each other, in different circadian periods, the daytime wounded ones take off, and the nighttime ones drag,” research team member John O’Neill told Science Alert. He added, “The time-varying response may be an evolutionary adaptation. As people are more likely to sustain injuries when awake than when sleeping, perhaps our bodies are prepared to respond more quickly in the daytime.” He went on to say that it could be beneficial to schedule surgeries in time with people’s circadian rhythms, earlier for early birds and later for night owls, in order to lessen recovery time. However, in any case, it might be best not to use anything sharp once the sun goes down. 32．What is the purpose of the first paragraph? A．To explain how we recharge our bodies. B．To arouse the interest of the readers in the topic. C．To prove that everyone suffers stress and injuries. D．To introduce a new discovery for dealing with stress. 33．What do the researchers find during their research? A．Burns take the same time to heal regardless of their cut time. B．Fibroblast cells boost the healing by working nighttime shift. C．Mice respond differently in the healing process from humans. D．A body’s circadian rhythm matters in waking up fibroblast cells. 34．What can we learn according to John O’Neill? A．People tend to bear pain more when they are asleep. B．Sharp knives are not suggested in the middle of the day. C．Night owls operated on in the nighttime may recover sooner. D．Evolution adaptation causes people’s time-varying responses. 35．What can be a suitable title for this passage? A．Why We Heal Injuries Better in the Daytime B．A Research Offers Clues to Treating Injuries C．How We Heal Wounds and Injuries Effectively D．Scientists Unlock the Secret to Avoiding Injuries 第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How often do you have a conversation with someone, and think you are paying attention to him or her, only to realize shortly afterwards that you can't remember what he said? Or, perhaps you get distracted while he is speaking and miss the message that he is trying to deliver. 36 : TVs, radios, traffic noises, telephones, laptops and so on, which can make it difficult to listen with our full attention. But how can we listen more effectively? 37 . He said, “Mindfulness means paying attention in a particular way, with a purpose, at the present moment and non - judgmentally.” 38 ? Jon Kabat - Zinn describes three key elements of mindful listening that we can use to improve our listening skills. First of all, be present. When we listen mindfully, our focus should be on the person we are listening to without distractions. Then develop empathy (共鸣). We often see the world through our own experiences. When we're empathetic, we can understand a situation from someone else's point of view. 39 . Our cues are the thoughts, feelings and physical reactions that we have when we feel anxious or angry, and they can block out ideas and perspectives that we re uncomfortable with. Mindful listening can help us to be more aware of our cues. 40 In conclusion, the rule is straightforward: simply “Listen”! Listen carefully and attentively. Pay full attention to the other person, and don' t let other thoughts, like what we are going to say next, distract us. A．Finally, listen to our own “cues” B．What can we do with mindful listening C．But how can we apply mindful listening to our life D．At last, “cues” helps us understand the speaker's ideas E．In today's busy world, modern life is full of distractions F．Besides, it allows us to choose not to let them block communication G．Professor Jon Kabat - Zinn put forward the idea of mindful listening 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 I used to go to school on an empty stomach. I had to walk to school without shoes, each step an encounter on 41 paths, where sharp stones pressed against my bare feet. In those moments, l felt a mix of desperation and determination. Desperation about the 42 , but a growing determination that someday, somehow, I would 43 my story. We were eight children at home. Meeting basic needs was a constant 44 and even shoes were beyond our reach. I 45 got my first pair of shoes when I joined Senior Secondary School. I 46 hard for the primary level and was awarded a bursary (奖学金). That 47 my parents to buy me shoes. That first day I walked in my new shoes, each step felt 48 and sure beneath me. To me, they were not just shoes, but a(n) 49 that through hard work, I could change my 50 . The day I turned 18, I left home and 51 the unknown. My first job was in construction. That’s all I could 52 since I didn’t have any formal qualifications. Each day my 53 hardened. Every brick I laid, every bag of cement (水泥) I mixed, was 54 me, not just physically, but mentally and emotionally. Though life was not easy, I kept 55 myself, “Always remember, your future is 100% your responsibility.” 41．A．steep B．winding C．rough D．narrow 42．A．present B．future C．unknown D．impossible 43．A．relate B．believe C．spread D．change 44．A．reminder B．struggle C．interruption D．expectation 45．A．finally B．naturally C．surprisingly D．secretly 46．A．prayed B．studied C．applied D．saved 47．A．forced B．allowed C．inspired D．forbade 48．A．burdened B．effortless C．relieved D．solid 49．A．wish B．decision C．promise D．assumption 50．A．path B．job C．mind D．attitude 51．A．relied on B．held onto C．kept off D．stepped into 52．A．afford B．understand C．manage D．imagine 53．A．pride B．curiosity C．resolve D．loneliness 54．A．building B．relaxing C．testing D．exhausting 55．A．comforting B．reminding C．explaining D．cheating 第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 China will set up resources to advance the construction of the 5G network, expand the application of 5G technology in a 56 (various) of fields, and promote the research and development of 6G. This is 57 the officials and experts said at the 6th Digital China Summit. It ended on Friday in Fuzhou, Fujian Province. “China has built the world’s largest 5G network with the most advanced technologies,” said a leader of the information and telecommunications development department. He had expected 58 number of the country’s 5G base stations to be more than 2.64 million in March this year. He stated they would work 59 (efficient) to strengthen the building of the 5G network and accelerate 60 (it) industrial applications, push forward the development of 6G, and enhance international exchange and communication in 5G-related technology, standards and application. The superfast 5G wireless technology has been used in 52 of the 97 major economic categories, with large-scale application already 61 (expand) to mining, ports and electricity. Moreover, China has already established the IMT-2030 (6G) Promotion Group, a flagship platform in China promoting 6G and international cooperation. As 5G technology serves 62 a critical foundation supporting the development of artificial intelligence, big data and cloud computing, greater efforts should 63 (make) to explore application scenarios of 5G and empower the transformation of traditional industries. So far, China 64 (reveal) a plan for the overall layout of the country’s digital development, promising 65 (get) ahead in the construction of a digital China by 2025. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节 (满分15分) 上周五，你班举行了“科技创新在身边”主题班会。请你据此写一篇英文日记，内容包括： 1．班会目的； 2．班会过程； 3．班会反响。 注意： 1．写作词数应为80个左右； 2．请按如下格式作答。 ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节 （满分 25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 You’d never know that for years I’d been keeping a dirty secret. On the outside, I’m a doctor. But until a month ago, my own life was out of control. I loved filling up my home with useless possessions. From old clothes to broken televisions, I would keep them all. Having my own toys made me feel special. But if anything broke. It started when I was a kid. My mum would throw it away and that broke my heart. I remember crying for days when Mum poured my dead goldfish down the toilet. At 18, I moved into a shared house. With steady income from a job, I would hit the shops whenever I could. If anyone questioned how much I was buying, I always had an excuse. But no matter how much I owned, I was never satisfied. My flatmates began to get annoyed as my things occupied almost the entire apartment. After I moved into my own place, my demand for belongings stepped up a gear. As well as shopping, I started collecting things from the side of the street. I would pile everything in the back of my car and take it home regardless of whether I needed it or not. My husband Mark banned me from picking up anything when we were together. That made me feel anxious. Sometimes I’d sneak back when Mark had gone, picking up whatever I had my eye on and taking it back to my flat. With my apartment jam-packed, I started filling my car. Soon, giving anyone a lift was impossible and I started parking my car around the corner from Mark’s so he wouldn’t see my car. One day , I drove to Mia’s house. “ Your car is unbelievable ,” she said, taking a photo with her phone. I just shrugged. Mia uploaded the picture to Facebook and within minutes people were commenting on it. Some thought a homeless person must be living in it, and others said I needed psychological help. I was confused. Why were people being so mean? I found the courage to talk to my colleague Cindy about it. “You’re a hoarder (囤积狂),” she told me, softly squeezing my hand. 注意: 1.续写词数应为150左右; 2.请按如下格式作答。 As Cindy explained hoarding was a serious mental illness, it all clicked into place. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Mark supported me as I took those first steps and after eight weeks,  it was time to let my things go. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 试卷第1页，共3页 试卷第1页，共3页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$ 2025届高三英语高考模拟风向卷（新高考II卷）01 英语 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1．Where are the speakers? A．At a bookstore. B．At a gallery. C．At a meeting. 【答案】B 【原文】W: Wow, I can’t believe I’m standing in front of a remarkable work of art! M: What’s the big deal? It’s just a picture of some woman. W: I’ve seen it so many times in books. I’ve never imagined I’d get to see it in person. 2．Why does the woman want to talk to Professor Monroe? A．For her article. B．For campus life. C．For a job interview. 【答案】A 【原文】W: Do you think that Professor Monroe would let me interview her? I’m writing an article on campus research projects for the newspaper. M: Why not? I mean, she loves discussing her research. 3．When did the man watch a film? A．On Saturday. B．On Friday. C．On Tuesday. 【答案】C 【原文】W: Tomorrow is Saturday. How about watching a film with me? M: Sorry. I just watched a film three days ago. Maybe you can do it with Helen. 4．What is the woman going to do? A．Go shopping. B．Leave the post office. C．Write the address on the envelope. 【答案】A 【原文】M: Since you are going shopping, can you post this letter for me on the way? W: Sure, but you don’t seem to have written the address on the envelope. M: Oh, thank you for reminding me. 5．How is Sophie feeling now? A．Confused. B．Worried. C．Disappointed. 【答案】B 【原文】M: All well, Sophie? W: Hmm. Not great. I’m just so down with writing this report. M: Are you almost done with it? W: Far from it. And I’ve got to present it in class tomorrow. 第二节（共15小题;每小题1．5分，满分22．5分） 听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第 6 段材料，回答第 6至7题。 6．What is the most probable relationship between the speakers? A．Parent and child. B．Taxi driver and passenger. C．Airport worker and air traveler. 7．Where does the woman’s brother live? A．In Ireland. B．In England. C．In France. 【答案】6．B 7．C 【原文】M: Where are you going, Miss? W: To the airport please, but I need to stop at my office very quickly. M: Okay. What time is your flight? W: Oh, I’m not flying. I’m going to meet my parents. They’re flying in from Ireland. M: That’s nice. When do they arrive? W: Not for another hour. M: In that case, we have plenty of time. How long are they staying? W: Five days and then they are getting a train to Paris to visit my brother. M: Making the most of their trip. W: Exactly. 听第7段材料，回答第 8至9题。 8．What is the man doing? A．Having a job interview. B．Attending the new staff training. C．Discussing his career development. 9．What does the woman’s company offer? A．Competitive salaries. B．Flexible working hours. C．Promotion opportunities. 【答案】8．A 9．C 【原文】W: So, James, why do you choose to work for us? M: Well, I’ll be honest. I’ve had offers from other companies with higher salaries, but that’s not my priority. W: I see. And are you aware that with this job, you may have to work late? M: Yes, I’m fine with that. My concern is that if I went to a bigger company, I’d be stuck in the same position for years. But your advertisement says that there are opportunities for better positions in the future. W: That’s correct. And we encourage people to be active about their career growth here. 听第8段材料，回答第10至13题。 10．What was the most challenging for Amy in the first stage? A．Avoiding wasting the ingredients. B．Reflecting her character in the dish. C．Buying enough things within budget. 11．What did the competitors do in the second stage? A．They cooked for the restaurant. B．They submitted a four-course menu. C．They prepared a dish for the judges. 12．What happened to Amy in the second stage? A．She failed to use the oven. B．She forgot to take the pizza stone. C．She made the same dish as her competitor. 13．What was the judges’ reaction when tasting the food? A．Excitement. B．Calmness. C．Disappointment. 【答案】10．A 11．C 12．B 13．B 【原文】M: Amy, I heard you took part in the Young Chef competition. What was the rule of the competition? W: Well, in the first stage, everyone had to submit a four-course menu for consideration. We had a budget and had to reveal our character in the dishes. We also had to make sure nothing was thrown away — that was where I really had to think. M: And you got through to the second stage! W: Right! That involved cooking a dish for the judges. We prepared our dishes in the kitchen of an actual restaurant. M: Did everything go as planned? W: Not exactly! I was relieved to find no one was making dishes anything like mine. But as I was about to start cooking, I realized that the pizza stone I wanted to cook my pizza on was in the back of my mom’s car, and she’d gone home! Anyway, the oven did the job just as well. However, it was tense watching the judges taste the food. Their faces completely lacked expression so I had no idea whether they liked it or not. But they loved my dish and I won! M: Congratulations! 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14．What do we know about the woman? A．She has taken Spanish classes. B．She has been to Spain many times. C．She has learned Spanish for work. 15．How long will the course last? A．About one month. B．About two months. C．About three months. 16．Why does the man advise the woman to register early? A．The number of places is decreased. B．The registering time is limited. C．The classes are very popular. 17．What does the woman request in the end? A．A list of the textbooks. B．A thin book on the courses. C．A way to contact the center. 【答案】14．B 15．C 16．C 17．B 【原文】M: Hello, Newington Adult Education Centre. How can I help? W: Well, I’m interested in learning Spanish. I’m calling to find out what courses you offer. I haven’t studied Spanish before, but I know a few words and phrases because I go to Spain quite often on holiday. M: It sounds like the Beginner Stage 2 class would be right for you. W: Ah, great. When the next course starts? And where is it? M: Well, the autumn term starts in the second week of September and ends in the first week of December. It takes place here at the Adult Education Centre, Room 19. W: OK. When does registration start? M: It starts in July. And I recommend that you register early, as the classes will fill up quickly. W: Thanks. Oh, just one last thing, would you mind sending me a brochure of the classes? M: No problem. Can you tell me your address and phone number, please? 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18．Who is the most likely to use the new product? A．A man in his thirties. B．A woman aged forty. C．A girl student. 19．What can we know about this product? A．It has one size. B．It is convenient to use. C．It is available now. 20．What is probably the speaker? A．A salesman. B．A tourist. C．A hair designer. 【答案】18．A 19．B 20．A 【原文】Hi, everyone. Thanks for coming to this short presentation on our new product design. As you know, we’ve already redeveloped our “Adventure” hair-care product to make it more modern and appealing. And we’ve renamed it “Adventure Tech”. The target market is men in the 18 to 40 age range who like to be outdoors. I’d like to talk to you through the following points. Firstly, let’s look at the design. It can fit smoothly in your hand and can be easily opened using one hand. Then I’d like to tell you about the sizes. It comes in two sizes: the regular size and a small travel size. We were thinking of starting with a small one and following with the travel-size in a few months, but we’ve worked hard and both are ready now. Finally, I’m going to talk to you about our timeline for production. You’ve probably heard that we’re going to be on the market in two months. In preparation for that, we’re starting the marketing campaign next month. OK. So, any questions? Feel free to email me for further information. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A On August 18, 2025 the Artist Project will celebrate its 10th year with a three-day art fair at the Better Living Centre, Exhibition Place, Toronto. From collectors to designers, visitors can explore and discover works of art from 250 contemporary artists from Canada and abroad-allowing guests the unique opportunity to communicate and buy art directly from the artists and support the next generation of Canadian artists. Highlights: ·Art Chats: this popular seminar (研讨会) series will offer a range of fascinating talks hosted by leading art experts. ·Live Artist Competition: Art Battle Canada and the Artist Project have teamed up to bring a 20-minuite live artist competition. Members of the audience will vote for their favourite painting and later bid in a silent auction (拍卖), so they can leave with a piece they love to hang in their home. ·Emerging Artists Competition: Devoled to supporting the development of students, new graduates, and self-taught artists, the Artist Project will give recognition to 20 emerging artists through this competition, providing free space and a platform for them to launch their artwork and make connections within the world of contemporary art. Purpose statement We aim to create an environment that fuels enriching conversation and offer you a more personal experience with art. We are the place that connects art lovers with art makers, because we believe that how we view art is a reflection of our human experience. Ticket Information: Adult admission: $15 Door, $14 Online Group adult tickets: (10+ people) $10 Each, online only Youth admission:(13-17) $10 Children 12 or under: free Website: www. theartistproject. com 21．What can visitors do on the art fair? A．Vote for their favourite artists. B．Enjoy art works of ancient artists. C．Compete with the young artists. D．Purchase art works directly from artists. 22．What can we learn about the Emerging Artists Competition? A．It’s a fantastic opportunity for emerging artists. B．It is committed to teaching the new graduates. C．It will provide fund support for younger artists. D．It will recognize as many new artists as possible. 23．How much should a parent and a 13-year-old kid pay for two online tickets? A．$14. B．$15. C．$24. D．$25. 【答案】21．D 22．A 23．C 【导语】本文一篇应用文，文章主要介绍了the Artist Project将举办为期三天的艺术博览会。在这里人们可以欣赏到250名当代艺术家的作品，并且有机会从艺术家那里直接购买自己喜欢的作品，并支持下一代加拿大艺术家。 21．细节理解题。根据第一段中“From collectors to designers, visitors can explore and discover works of art from 250 contemporary artists from Canada and abroad-allowing guests the unique opportunity to communicate and buy art directly from the artists and support the next generation of Canadian artists.(从收藏家到设计师，游客可以探索和发现来自加拿大和国外的250位当代艺术家的艺术作品，让客人有独特的机会直接从艺术家那里交流和购买艺术品，并支持下一代加拿大艺术家。)”可知参观者可直接从艺术家那里购买作品。故选D项。 22．细节理解题。根据Emerging Artists Competition部分的“Devoled to supporting the development of students, new graduates, and self-taught artists, the Artist Project will give recognition to 20 emerging artists through this competition, providing free space and a platorm for them to launch their artwork and make connections within the world of contemporary art.(“艺术家计划”旨在支持学生、应届毕业生和自学成才的艺术家的发展，将通过本次比赛表彰20位新兴艺术家，为他们提供自由的空间和平台，让他们展示自己的作品，并与当代艺术世界建立联系。)”可知，比赛将表彰20位新兴艺术家，为他们提供自由的空间和平台。这对新兴艺术家来说是个好机会。故选A项。 23．细节理解题。根据Ticket Information部分“Adult admission: $15 Door, $14 Online, Group adult tickets: (10+ people) $10 Each, online only Youth admission:(13-17) $10 (成人门票：门票15美元，网上门票14美元；成人团体票：（10人以上）每张$10，仅限网上购票；青少年门票：（13-17岁）10美元。)”可知，在网上购成人票需$14，而13-17岁的青少年票价是$10，$14+$10=$24。故选C项。 B My doctor took me for a walk around the farm where she lived. I was physically and emotionally exhausted and discouraged by anxiety and depression. The place was full of life. There were insects, horses, rabbits, and a cat. She told me to focus on my body in the environment. When I was ill, I tended to withdraw into my mind and disconnect from the here and now. So, when I met a horse named Fira, I expected nothing. As I got closer to Fira, she rubbed her nose into my chest, putting a gentle pressure over my heart. Something happened inside me: I felt as if I had reached a wellspring of past hurts, fears and failings. I began to melt emotionally. I patted Fira’s nose and breathed in her smell. I found I didn’t have to concentrate on feeling better; Fira helped me feel loved and safe. I worked with Fira often, learning basic communication and leading methods to work together with her. Initially, I wasn’t sure exactly what one would do with a horse except riding it. But I knew that Fira had touched me in an uncommon way and had made me feel better. She connected with me by responding to my emotional state and reflecting it back to me in an open, affectionate way. In my meetings with Fira, I learned to live in the present, to focus on what was happening this day, in this moment, in this place. I learned to forget the past, with all its hurt. I learned to forget the future, which hasn’t happened yet. With Fira by my side, I saw into a life in which trust comes first, and compassion follows. I found a deep peace in leading her along a path, by using my own power of intention to indicate whether to start, stop, turn left or turn right. I felt an inner quiet and even joy. My work with this horse was part of a journey out of a very dark night in my soul. 24．Why did the writer expect nothing when meeting Fira? A．Because Fira’s reaction led the writer to feel hurt and fearful. B．Because the writer’s mentality kept her from connecting with others. C．Because the writer knew nothing about Fira and didn’t know what to expect. D．Because the animals on the farm distracted the writer from focusing on her body. 25．Which of the following statements about Fira is TRUE? A．Fira was the writer’s pet, living on her farm. B．Fira made the writer feel better by giving her rides. C．Fira got the writer to concentrate on her hurt feelings. D．Fira responded affectionately to the writer’s approach. 26．In the last paragraph, the writer shares her experience with Fira to imply that _______. A．animals can follow people’s instructions, thus gaining their trust B．interacting with animals can be a therapy to psychological distress C．meetings with animals can help people step out of their comfort zone D．people can access temporary peace and joy when working with animals 27．Which of the following can be the best title for the passage? A．My Doctor’s Farm: A Place of Healing B．Fira: The Horse that Saved My Life C．From Darkness to Light: My Journey with Fira D．Horse Smell: The Magic Power 【答案】24．B 25．D 26．B 27．C 【导语】这是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了作者身心俱疲，因焦虑和抑郁而灰心丧气，这时遇到了一匹马费拉，在和费拉接触的过程中，作者也逐渐走出了黑暗。 24．细节理解题。根据第一段“I was physically and emotionally exhausted and discouraged by anxiety and depression. The place was full of life. There were insects, horses, rabbits, and a cat. She told me to focus on my body in the environment. When I was ill, I tended to withdraw into my mind and disconnect from the here and now.(我身心俱疲，因焦虑和抑郁而灰心丧气。这个地方充满了生机。有昆虫、马、兔子和一只猫。她告诉我在环境中要关注自己的身体。当我生病时，我倾向于退回到我的思想中，与此时此地脱节)”可知，作者见到费拉时没有任何期待是因为作者的心态使她无法与他人交流。故选B。 25．细节理解题。根据第一段“As I got closer to Fira, she rubbed her nose into my chest, putting a gentle pressure over my heart.(当我靠近菲拉时，她用鼻子蹭我的胸口，轻轻地压在我的心脏上)”以及第二段“She connected with me by responding to my emotional state and reflecting it back to me in an open, affectionate way.(她通过回应我的情绪状态，并以一种开放、深情的方式反馈给我，从而与我建立联系)”可知，D选项“费拉深情地回应了作者的靠近”正确。故选D。 26．推理判断题。根据最后一段“In my meetings with Fira, I learned to live in the present, to focus on what was happening this day, in this moment, in this place. I learned to forget the past, with all its hurt. I learned to forget the future, which hasn’t happened yet. With Fira by my side, I saw into a life in which trust comes first, and compassion follows. I found a deep peace in leading her along a path, by using my own power of intention to indicate whether to start, stop, turn left or turn right. I felt an inner quiet and even joy. My work with this horse was part of a journey out of a very dark night in my soul.(在与费拉的会面中，我学会了活在当下，专注于今天、此时此刻、这个地方正在发生的事情。我学会了忘记过去，忘记所有的伤痛。我学会了忘记尚未发生的未来。有费拉在我身边，我看到了一种信任为先、同情为辅的生活。我用我自己的意念来指示她是开始，是停止，是左转还是右转，在引导她沿着一条路走的过程中，我找到了一种深深的平静。我感到一种内心的平静，甚至是喜悦。我和这匹马的工作是我灵魂深处黑暗之夜旅程的一部分)”可知，作者分享了她与费拉的经历，暗示与动物互动可以成为一种心理困扰的治疗方法。故选B。 27．主旨大意题。根据最后一段“My work with this horse was part of a journey out of a very dark night in my soul.(我和这匹马的工作是我灵魂深处黑暗之夜旅程的一部分)”结合文章主要讲述了作者身心俱疲，因焦虑和抑郁而灰心丧气，这时遇到了一匹马费拉，在和费拉接触的过程中，作者也逐渐走出了黑暗。可知，C选项“从黑暗到光明：我和费拉的旅程”最符合文章标题。故选C。 C Researcher Jesse Dodge did some math on the amount of energy AI chatbots use. “One query (查询) to ChatGPT uses about the same amount of electricity as lighting one electric lamp for about 20 minutes,” he says. “So, you can imagine with millions of people using something like that every day, that adds up to a really large amount of electricity.” Dodge has been studying how artificial intelligence consumes energy. To generate its answers, AI uses far more power than traditional Internet uses, like search queries or cloud storage. And as AI gets more complicated, it needs more energy to operate. In the U.S., a majority of that energy comes from burning fossil fuels like coal and gas which are primary drivers of climate change. Most companies working on AI, including ChatGPT maker OpenAI, don’t disclose their emissions. But, last week, Google released a new sustainability report. Deep within the 86-page report, Google said its greenhouse gas emissions rose last year by 48% since 2019. It owes that rise to its data center energy consumption and supply chain emissions. “As we further integrate AI into our products, reducing emissions may be challenging,” the report reads. Google has the goal of reaching net-zero emissions by 2030. Since 2007, the company has said its company operations were carbon neutral (碳中和的) because of the carbon offsets (碳补偿) it buys to match its emissions. But, starting in 2023, Google wrote in its sustainability report that it was no longer “maintaining operational carbon neutrality due to financial pressure”. The company says it’s still pushing for its net-zero goal in 2030. “Google’s real motivation here is to build the best AI systems that they can,” Dodge says. “And they’re willing to pour a ton of resources into that, including things like training AI systems on bigger and bigger data centers all the way up to supercomputers, which causes a large amount of electricity consumption and therefore CO2 emissions.” Microsoft has taken its climate pledge one step further than Google, saying it will be carbon negative by 2030. However, it too is facing difficulty because of its focus on AI. 28．What is mainly talked about in Paragraph 3? A．AI’s great demand for energy. B．AI’s scientific improvement. C．The powerful function of AI. D．The complicated operation of AI. 29．Why does Google change its promise to maintain operational carbon neutrality? A．It is becoming less important. B．The cost might be too large. C．It goes against the whole plan. D．The aim has nearly been achieved. 30．What does the underlined word “pledge” in the last paragraph probably mean? A．Commitment. B．Analysis. C．Feature. D．Change. 31．What is the aim of this text? A．To advertise. B．To persuade. C．To inform. D．To entertain. 【答案】28．A 29．B 30．A 31．C 【导语】这是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了人工智能对能源的大量消耗，从而造成温室气体排放量的大幅度增加，给实现碳中和目标带来了困难。 28．主旨大意题。根据第三段“Most companies working on  AI, including ChatGPT maker OpenAI, don’t disclose their emissions. But,  last week, Google released a new sustainability report. Deep within the  86-page report, Google said its greenhouse gas emissions rose last year  by 48% since 2019. It owes that rise to its data center energy  consumption and supply chain emissions.(大多数从事人工智能研究的公司，包括ChatGPT的制造商OpenAI，都没有披露他们的排放量。但是，上周谷歌发布了一份新的可持续发展报告。在这份长达86页的报告中，谷歌表示，自2019年以来，其去年的温室气体排放量增长了48%。该公司将这一增长归因于其数据中心的能源消耗和供应链排放)”可知，本段中心讨论的话题是人工智能对能源的巨大需求。故选A。 29．推理判断题。根据第三段“Deep within the 86-page report, Google said its greenhouse gas emissions rose last year by 48% since 2019.(在这份长达86页的报告中，谷歌表示，自2019年以来，其去年的温室气体排放量增长了48%)”，第四段““As we further integrate AI into our products, reducing emissions may be challenging,” the report reads. Google has the goal of reaching net-zero emissions by 2030. Since 2007, the company has said its company operations were carbon neutral (碳中和的) because of the carbon offsets (碳补偿) it buys to match its emissions. But, starting in 2023, Google wrote in its sustainability report that it was no longer “maintaining operational carbon neutrality due to financial pressure”. The company says it’s still pushing for its net-zero goal in 2030.(“随着我们将人工智能进一步集成到我们的产品中，减少排放可能会面临挑战，”报告写道。谷歌的目标是到2030年实现净零排放。自2007年以来，该公司一直表示，由于其购买的碳补偿与排放量相匹配，因此其公司运营已实现碳中和。但谷歌在其可持续发展报告中写道，从2023年开始，由于财务压力，该公司将不再“保持运营碳中和”。该公司表示，它仍在努力实现2030年的净零目标)”可知，随着人工智能的大量使用，排放的碳越来越多，减少碳排放已经是一个挑战，很难做到再花大量的钱进行碳补偿。故选B。 30．词句猜测题。根据前文“The company says it’s still pushing for its net-zero goal in 2030.(该公司表示，它仍在努力实现2030年的净零目标)”可知，这是一个承诺，再根据后文“one step further than Google, saying it will be carbon negative by 2030.(比谷歌更进一步，表示到2030年将实现碳负排放)”可知，应是“微软在气候承诺方面比谷歌更进一步”之意，推知pledge意为“承诺”之意，和A项意思相近。故选A。 31．推理判断题。根据第一段“Researcher Jesse Dodge did some math on the amount of energy AI chatbots use. “One query (查询) to ChatGPT uses about the same amount of electricity as lighting one electric lamp for about 20 minutes,” he says. “So, you can imagine with millions of people using something like that every day, that adds up to a really large amount of electricity.”(研究人员Jesse Dodge对人工智能聊天机器人使用的能源进行了一些计算。他说：“对ChatGPT进行一次查询所消耗的电量相当于点亮一盏电灯20分钟。”“所以，你可以想象，每天有数百万人使用这样的东西，这加起来会产生非常大的电量。”)”以及纵观全文可知，文章主要介绍了研究人员杰西•道奇(Jesse Dodge)对人工智能聊天机器人使用能源的调查，并介绍了谷歌发布的可持续发展报告中碳排放的数据，告诉人们人工智能会耗费大量能源这一事实。故选C。 D When we’re tired or injured, we often go to bed earlier to recharge and mend our bodies. That’s because we often think that night is a golden time to deal with stress or injuries. But is it true? Nathaniel Hoyle, a scientist of the Laboratory of Molecular Biology in Cambridge, UK, has been leading a study into this topic. The team discovered that fibroblast cells (成纤维细胞) in the body switch off at night. These cells help close up a wound after the skin is broken and lay a foundation for new skin to grow. Why exactly are these cells less active at night? It’s all to do with your body’s circadian (昼夜节律的) rhythm — a 24-hour internal clock that helps your cells do their jobs on time. New Scientist reported that a group of 30 genes that control the fibroblasts worked only daytime shifts, causing the slower healing process at night. To test its theory, the Cambridge-based team examined data from the International Burn Injury Database, which records details of burn victims around the world. This analysis revealed that nighttime burns, on average, took 11 more days to heal than burns during the day. A similar result occurred while experimenting using live mice. Those that were cut during night-time hours recovered more slowly than those during the day. “You can see by eyes, when the cell is wounded only 8 hours apart from each other, in different circadian periods, the daytime wounded ones take off, and the nighttime ones drag,” research team member John O’Neill told Science Alert. He added, “The time-varying response may be an evolutionary adaptation. As people are more likely to sustain injuries when awake than when sleeping, perhaps our bodies are prepared to respond more quickly in the daytime.” He went on to say that it could be beneficial to schedule surgeries in time with people’s circadian rhythms, earlier for early birds and later for night owls, in order to lessen recovery time. However, in any case, it might be best not to use anything sharp once the sun goes down. 32．What is the purpose of the first paragraph? A．To explain how we recharge our bodies. B．To arouse the interest of the readers in the topic. C．To prove that everyone suffers stress and injuries. D．To introduce a new discovery for dealing with stress. 33．What do the researchers find during their research? A．Burns take the same time to heal regardless of their cut time. B．Fibroblast cells boost the healing by working nighttime shift. C．Mice respond differently in the healing process from humans. D．A body’s circadian rhythm matters in waking up fibroblast cells. 34．What can we learn according to John O’Neill? A．People tend to bear pain more when they are asleep. B．Sharp knives are not suggested in the middle of the day. C．Night owls operated on in the nighttime may recover sooner. D．Evolution adaptation causes people’s time-varying responses. 35．What can be a suitable title for this passage? A．Why We Heal Injuries Better in the Daytime B．A Research Offers Clues to Treating Injuries C．How We Heal Wounds and Injuries Effectively D．Scientists Unlock the Secret to Avoiding Injuries 【答案】32．B 33．D 34．D 35．A 【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了科学家对于人体细胞夜间活跃度降低，从而影响伤口愈合速度的研究发现。通过剑桥大学分子生物学实验室的研究，以及国际烧伤伤害数据库的数据分析和小白鼠实验，文章详细阐述了人体昼夜节律对于伤口愈合的影响，并提出了相应的手术时间安排建议。 32．推理判断题。根据文章第一段内容“When we’re tired or injured, we often go to bed earlier to recharge and mend our bodies. That’s because we often think that night is a golden time to deal with stress or injuries. But is it true?(当我们感到疲惫或受伤时，常常会早点上床睡觉，以便恢复精力、调养身体。那是因为我们通常认为夜晚是应对压力或伤痛的黄金时段。但这是真的吗？)”可知，文章第一段先是描述了人们通常会认为夜晚是应对压力或伤痛的黄金时段这一常见想法，然后通过一个问句“但这是真的吗？”来引发读者的思考，其目的就是为了激起读者对后续关于夜晚是否真的利于应对压力或伤痛这一话题的兴趣，引导读者继续往下阅读探究答案。故选B。 33．细节理解题。根据文章第二段“The team discovered that fibroblast cells (成纤维细胞) in the body switch off at night.(该研究团队发现，人体内的成纤维细胞在夜间会停止工作。)”以及第三段“It’s all to do with your body’s circadian (昼夜节律的) rhythm — a 24-hour internal clock that helps your cells do their jobs on time. New Scientist reported that a group of 30 genes that control the fibroblasts worked only daytime shifts, causing the slower healing process at night.(这都与人体的昼夜节律有关——这是一个24小时的生物钟，能帮助细胞按时履行职责。据《新科学家》报道，一组控制成纤维细胞的30个基因只在白天发挥作用，这就导致了夜间伤口愈合速度变慢。)”可知，研究团队发现成纤维细胞在夜间会停止工作，这是因为人体的昼夜节律，一组控制成纤维细胞的30个基因只在白天发挥作用，所以身体的昼夜节律对于成纤维细胞的激活很重要。故选D。 34．细节理解题。根据文章最后一段“He added, “The time-varying response may be an evolutionary adaptation. As people are more likely to sustain injuries when awake than when sleeping, perhaps our bodies are prepared to respond more quickly in the daytime.”(他还补充说：“这种随时间变化的反应可能是一种进化适应。由于人们在清醒时比睡觉时更容易受伤，或许我们的身体已经准备好在白天做出更迅速的反应。”)”可知，John O’Neill认为进化适应导致了人们随时间变化的反应。故选D。 35．主旨大意题。根据文章第一段内容“When we’re tired or injured, we often go to bed earlier to recharge and mend our bodies. That’s because we often think that night is a golden time to deal with stress or injuries. But is it true?(当我们感到疲惫或受伤时，常常会早点上床睡觉，以便恢复精力、调养身体。那是因为我们通常认为夜晚是应对压力或伤痛的黄金时段。但这是真的吗？)”以及全文内容可知，文章开篇提出人们通常认为夜晚是应对压力或伤痛的好时段，接着通过科学家的研究发现，介绍了人体成纤维细胞受昼夜节律影响，在夜间活跃度降低，导致伤口愈合速度变慢这一情况，并且通过对烧伤患者数据以及小鼠实验等进行验证，还提到按照昼夜节律安排手术时间可缩短恢复时间等内容，整体都是围绕为什么白天伤口愈合情况更好这一主题展开论述的。A“为什么我们在白天能更好地治疗伤病”符合主题，故选A。 第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How often do you have a conversation with someone, and think you are paying attention to him or her, only to realize shortly afterwards that you can't remember what he said? Or, perhaps you get distracted while he is speaking and miss the message that he is trying to deliver. 36 : TVs, radios, traffic noises, telephones, laptops and so on, which can make it difficult to listen with our full attention. But how can we listen more effectively? 37 . He said, “Mindfulness means paying attention in a particular way, with a purpose, at the present moment and non - judgmentally.” 38 ? Jon Kabat - Zinn describes three key elements of mindful listening that we can use to improve our listening skills. First of all, be present. When we listen mindfully, our focus should be on the person we are listening to without distractions. Then develop empathy (共鸣). We often see the world through our own experiences. When we're empathetic, we can understand a situation from someone else's point of view. 39 . Our cues are the thoughts, feelings and physical reactions that we have when we feel anxious or angry, and they can block out ideas and perspectives that we re uncomfortable with. Mindful listening can help us to be more aware of our cues. 40 In conclusion, the rule is straightforward: simply “Listen”! Listen carefully and attentively. Pay full attention to the other person, and don' t let other thoughts, like what we are going to say next, distract us. A．Finally, listen to our own “cues” B．What can we do with mindful listening C．But how can we apply mindful listening to our life D．At last, “cues” helps us understand the speaker's ideas E．In today's busy world, modern life is full of distractions F．Besides, it allows us to choose not to let them block communication G．Professor Jon Kabat - Zinn put forward the idea of mindful listening 【答案】36．E 37．G 38．C 39．A 40．F 【导语】本文是说明文。主要说明了倾听他人时容易分心的原因，提出了提高倾听效率的方法——用心倾听，及培养用心倾听的三个核心要素。 36．根据空格后的冒号及冒号后的内容“TVs, radios, traffic noises, telephones, laptops … our full attention.（电视、收音机、交通噪音、电话、笔记本电脑等都会让我们难以全神贯注地听）”可知，空格后向我们解释了导致我们分心的因素有哪些，所以空格处是要说明现代生活充满让人们分心的事物。E选项中的“distractions”与后面句子中的“…difficult to listen with our full attention（难以全神贯注地听）”进行呼应。故选E。 37．根据空格后的人称代词“He”可以判断，空格处需要先引出这个人是谁。G选项指出了是Professor Jon Kabat – Zinn提出了用心倾听的理念。另外，本段主要是要给我们引出提高倾听效率的方法---用心倾听，根据段落中心词也可以判断G选项合适。故选G。 38．根据空格后的问号及下文内容“three key elements（ 三个关键因素）”可知，空格处的问题主要围绕如何将用心倾听运用到我们的生活中。选项C符合题意，故选C。 39．根据上文“three key elements…first of all…then…（三个关键因素……首先……其次……）”及下文“Our cues are the thoughts, feelings and physical reactions（我们的提示是思想、感觉和身体反应）”可知，空格处要介绍第三个因素且要引出cues这个词。此外，祈使句“Finally, listen to our own “cues””与上文“First of all, be present”、 “Then develop empathy””句式对等。故选A。 40．根据上文“Mindful listening can help us to be more aware of our cues（用心倾听可以帮助我们更好地意识到自己的暗示）”可知，此处介绍“Mindful listening”的好处，紧接着写另一个好处“it allows us to choose not to let them block communication（它允许我们选择不让他们阻碍交流）”符合句意。且F选项中的代词“it”指代上文“mindful listening”。故选F。 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 I used to go to school on an empty stomach. I had to walk to school without shoes, each step an encounter on 41 paths, where sharp stones pressed against my bare feet. In those moments, l felt a mix of desperation and determination. Desperation about the 42 , but a growing determination that someday, somehow, I would 43 my story. We were eight children at home. Meeting basic needs was a constant 44 and even shoes were beyond our reach. I 45 got my first pair of shoes when I joined Senior Secondary School. I 46 hard for the primary level and was awarded a bursary (奖学金). That 47 my parents to buy me shoes. That first day I walked in my new shoes, each step felt 48 and sure beneath me. To me, they were not just shoes, but a(n) 49 that through hard work, I could change my 50 . The day I turned 18, I left home and 51 the unknown. My first job was in construction. That’s all I could 52 since I didn’t have any formal qualifications. Each day my 53 hardened. Every brick I laid, every bag of cement (水泥) I mixed, was 54 me, not just physically, but mentally and emotionally. Though life was not easy, I kept 55 myself, “Always remember, your future is 100% your responsibility.” 41．A．steep B．winding C．rough D．narrow 42．A．present B．future C．unknown D．impossible 43．A．relate B．believe C．spread D．change 44．A．reminder B．struggle C．interruption D．expectation 45．A．finally B．naturally C．surprisingly D．secretly 46．A．prayed B．studied C．applied D．saved 47．A．forced B．allowed C．inspired D．forbade 48．A．burdened B．effortless C．relieved D．solid 49．A．wish B．decision C．promise D．assumption 50．A．path B．job C．mind D．attitude 51．A．relied on B．held onto C．kept off D．stepped into 52．A．afford B．understand C．manage D．imagine 53．A．pride B．curiosity C．resolve D．loneliness 54．A．building B．relaxing C．testing D．exhausting 55．A．comforting B．reminding C．explaining D．cheating 【答案】 41．C 42．A 43．D 44．B 45．A 46．B 47．B 48．D 49．C 50．A 51．D 52．C 53．C 54．A 55．B 【导语】本文为记叙文。文章主要讲述了作者通过自己的努力和坚持，改变生活境遇的故事。 41．考查形容词词义辨析。句意：我不得不赤脚走路去学校，每一步都踏在崎岖不平的小路上，尖锐的石头硌着我的光脚。A. steep陡峭的；B. winding蜿蜒的；C. rough高低不平的；D. narrow狭窄的。根据后文“where sharp stones pressed against my bare feet.”可知，路上有石头硌脚，说明是一条崎岖不平的小路。故选C项。 42．考查形容词词义辨析。句意：对现状感到绝望，但内心却日益坚定，相信总有一天，以某种方式，我会改写自己的故事。A. present现在的；B. future未来的；C. unknown未知的；D. impossible不可能的。根据前文“I used to go to school on an empty stomach. I had to walk to school without shoes”可知，作者常常空腹和光着脚上学，所以是对现状感到绝望。故选A项。 43．考查动词词义辨析。句意：对现状感到绝望，但内心却日益坚定，相信总有一天，以某种方式，我会改写自己的故事。A. relate联系；B. believe相信；C. spread传播；D. change改变。根据后文“through hard work, I could change my 　　　　　.”可知，作者通过努力工作，改写自己的故事。故选D项。 44．考查名词词义辨析。句意：满足基本需求是一场持续的斗争，甚至连鞋子都买不起。A. reminder提醒；B. struggle斗争；C. interruption打断；D. expectation期待。根据前文“We were eight children at home.”可知，作者家里有八个孩子，所以满足基本需求是一场持续的斗争。故选B项。 45．考查副词词义辨析。句意：当我进入高中时，我终于得到了我的第一双鞋。A. finally最终；B. naturally自然地；C. surprisingly令人惊讶地；D. secretly秘密地。根据前文“even shoes were beyond our reach”可知，作者家连鞋子都买不起，所以是在高中终于得到了作者的第一双鞋。故选A项。 46．考查动词词义辨析。句意：我在小学阶段学习努力，因此获得了一份奖学金。A. prayed祈祷；B. studied学习；C. applied申请；D. saved拯救。根据后文“was awarded a bursary (奖学金).”可知，作者获得了奖学金，所以应是努力学习。故选B项。 47．考查动词词义辨析。句意：这样我父母就有钱给我买鞋了。A. forced强迫；B. allowed允许；C. inspired激励；D. forbade禁止。根据前文“was awarded a bursary (奖学金).”可知，作者获得了奖学金，所以父母就有钱给他买鞋了。故选B项。 48．考查形容词词义辨析。句意：穿上新鞋的第一天，我觉得脚下的每一步都很坚实。A. burdened负担沉重的；B. effortless不费力的；C. relieved宽慰的；D. solid坚固的。根据前文“where sharp stones pressed against my bare feet”可知，作者之前没穿鞋，总是硌脚，推知走路要小心翼翼，现在穿上鞋了，应是感觉每一步都很坚实。故选D项。 49．考查名词词义辨析。句意：对我来说，它们不仅仅是鞋子，而是一个承诺，通过努力工作，我可以改变我的道路。A. wish愿望；B. decision决定；C. promise承诺；D. assumption假设。根据前文“but a growing determination that someday, somehow, I would 　　　　　　 my story.”可知，作者曾下决心，要改变自己的故事，所以是一个承诺。故选C项。 50．考查名词词义辨析。句意：对我来说，它们不仅仅是鞋子，而是一个承诺，通过努力工作，我可以改变我的道路。A. path道路；B. job工作；C. mind思想；D. attitude态度。根据前文“that through hard work, I could change my”结合选项可知，应是“我可以改变我的道路”符合语境。故选A项。 51．考查动词短语辨析。句意：18岁那年，我离开了家，踏入了未知的世界。A. relied on依赖；B. held onto紧紧抓住；C. kept off避开；D. stepped into踏入。根据前文“The day I turned 18, I left home”可知，作者离开了家，所以是踏入了未知的世界。故选D项。 52．考查动词词义辨析。句意：因为我没有任何正式的资格证书，所以我只能做到这些。A. afford负担得起；B. understand理解；C. manage管理；D. imagine想象。根据后文“I didn’t have any formal qualifications”可知，作者没有任何正式的资格证书，所以之只能做建筑业。故选C项。 53．考查名词词义辨析。句意：我的决心一天比一天坚定。A. pride骄傲；B. curiosity好奇心；C. resolve决心；D. loneliness孤独。根据前文“but a growing determination that someday”可知，作者的决心一天比一天坚定。故选C项。 54．考查形容词词义辨析。句意：我铺的每一块砖，拌的每一袋水泥，都在塑造我，不仅是身体上的，还有精神上和情感上的。A. building建设；B. relaxing放松；C. testing测试；D. exhausting耗尽。根据前文“Each day my 　　　　　 hardened.”可知，作者的决心每天都在坚定，所以是铺的每一块砖，拌的每一袋水泥，都在塑造他。故选A项。 55．考查动词词义辨析。句意：虽然生活并不容易，但我一直提醒自己：“永远记住，你的未来100%是你自己的责任。”A. comforting安慰；B. reminding提醒；C. explaining解释；D. cheating欺骗。根据后文“Always remember, your future is 100% your responsibility.”可知，这是作者对自己的提醒。故选B项。 第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 China will set up resources to advance the construction of the 5G network, expand the application of 5G technology in a 56 (various) of fields, and promote the research and development of 6G. This is 57 the officials and experts said at the 6th Digital China Summit. It ended on Friday in Fuzhou, Fujian Province. “China has built the world’s largest 5G network with the most advanced technologies,” said a leader of the information and telecommunications development department. He had expected 58 number of the country’s 5G base stations to be more than 2.64 million in March this year. He stated they would work 59 (efficient) to strengthen the building of the 5G network and accelerate 60 (it) industrial applications, push forward the development of 6G, and enhance international exchange and communication in 5G-related technology, standards and application. The superfast 5G wireless technology has been used in 52 of the 97 major economic categories, with large-scale application already 61 (expand) to mining, ports and electricity. Moreover, China has already established the IMT-2030 (6G) Promotion Group, a flagship platform in China promoting 6G and international cooperation. As 5G technology serves 62 a critical foundation supporting the development of artificial intelligence, big data and cloud computing, greater efforts should 63 (make) to explore application scenarios of 5G and empower the transformation of traditional industries. So far, China 64 (reveal) a plan for the overall layout of the country’s digital development, promising 65 (get) ahead in the construction of a digital China by 2025. 【答案】 56．variety 57．what 58．the 59．efficiently 60．its 61．expanded 62．as 63．be made 64．has revealed 65．to get 【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章主要讲述了中国在5G网络建设、5G技术应用以及6G研发方面的计划和进展。 56．考查名词。句意：中国将设立资源来推进5G网络建设，扩大5G技术在多种领域的应用，并促进6G的研发。a variety of是固定短语，意为“各种各样的”，符合语境。故填variety。 57．考查宾语从句。句意：这是官员和专家在第六届数字中国建设峰会上所说的话。“_____ the officials and experts said at the 6th Digital China Summit”是表语从句，从句中缺少said的宾语，表示“官员和专家们所说的话”，应用连接代词what引导该从句。故填what。 58．考查冠词。句意：他预计今年3月该国5G基站的数量将超过264万个。the number of是固定短语，意为“……的数量”，符合语境。故填the。 59．考查副词。句意：他表示，他们将有效地加强5G网络建设，加速其工业应用，推动6G的发展，并加强5G相关技术、标准和应用的国际交流与合作。提示词修饰动词work，用副词efficiently作状语，意为“有效地”。故填efficiently。 60．考查代词。句意：他表示，他们将有效地加强5G网络建设，加速其工业应用，推动6G的发展，并加强5G相关技术、标准和应用的国际交流与合作。提示词修饰名词短语industrial applications，用形容词性物主代词its，意为“它的”。故填its。 61．考查非谓语动词。句意：超快的5G无线技术已经在97个主要经济类别中的52个中得到应用，大规模应用已经扩展到矿业、港口和电力领域。expand(扩展)是with复合结构中宾语补足语，与其逻辑主语large-scale application之间是被动关系，用过去分词表被动和完成。故填expanded。 62．考查介词。句意：由于5G技术是支撑人工智能、大数据和云计算发展的关键基础，因此应加大力度探索5G的应用场景，赋能传统产业转型升级。serve as是固定短语，意为“充当，担任”，符合语境。故填as。 63．考查语态。句意：由于5G技术是支撑人工智能、大数据和云计算发展的关键基础，因此应加大力度探索5G的应用场景，赋能传统产业转型升级。make(做，作出)是谓语动词，与主语efforts之间是被动关系，在情态动词should后用原形be made。故填be made。 64．考查时态语态和主谓一致。句意：到目前为止，中国已经公布了一个国家数字发展总体布局的计划，承诺到2025年在数字中国建设中走在前列。reveal(公布，透露)是谓语动词，与主语China之间是主动关系，根据时间状语So far可知，用现在完成时态描述过去的动作对现在的影响，主语China是专有名词，谓语动词需用单数形式has revealed。故填has revealed。 65．考查非谓语动词。句意：到目前为止，中国已经公布了一个国家数字发展总体布局的计划，承诺到2025年在数字中国建设中走在前列。promise to do sth.是固定短语，意为“承诺做某事”，用不定式to get作宾语。故填to get。 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节 (满分15分) 上周五，你班举行了“科技创新在身边”主题班会。请你据此写一篇英文日记，内容包括： 1．班会目的； 2．班会过程； 3．班会反响。 注意： 1．写作词数应为80个左右； 2．请按如下格式作答。 ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】     To arouse students’ interest in technology, our class held a class meeting titled “Technological Innovation Around Us” last Friday. The meeting began with our teacher’s giving examples of modern technological innovations to set the context, followed by student representatives showcasing their technological projects or innovations. Then, we had an interactive session, where we asked questions and discussed ideas about the development of technology in China and how technologies have changed our life. The meeting was well-received. It deepened our understanding of the significance of technological innovation in our daily life and motivated us to engage in future technological innovations. 【导语】本篇书面表达属于应用文。要求考生写一篇关于上周五举行的“科技创新在身边”主题班会的英文日记，内容需涵盖班会的目的、过程以及反响。 【详解】1.词汇积累 激发：arouse → stimulate/inspire 创新：innovation → creativity/novelty 展示：showcase → display/exhibit 重要性：significance → importance 2.句式拓展 合并简单句 原句：The meeting was well-received. It deepened our understanding of the significance of technological innovation in our daily life and motivated us to engage in future technological innovations. 拓展句：The meeting was well-received, which not only deepened our understanding of the significance of technological innovation but also motivated us to actively participate in future technological endeavors. 【点睛】[高分句型1] To arouse students’ interest in technology, our class held a class meeting titled “Technological Innovation Around Us” last Friday. (运用了不定式短语作目的状语) [高分句型2] Then, we had an interactive session, where we asked questions and discussed ideas about the development of technology in China and how technologies have changed our life.(运用了关系副词where引导非限制性定语从句和连接副词how引导宾语从句) 第二节 （满分 25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 You’d never know that for years I’d been keeping a dirty secret. On the outside, I’m a doctor. But until a month ago, my own life was out of control. I loved filling up my home with useless possessions. From old clothes to broken televisions, I would keep them all. Having my own toys made me feel special. But if anything broke. It started when I was a kid. My mum would throw it away and that broke my heart. I remember crying for days when Mum poured my dead goldfish down the toilet. At 18, I moved into a shared house. With steady income from a job, I would hit the shops whenever I could. If anyone questioned how much I was buying, I always had an excuse. But no matter how much I owned, I was never satisfied. My flatmates began to get annoyed as my things occupied almost the entire apartment. After I moved into my own place, my demand for belongings stepped up a gear. As well as shopping, I started collecting things from the side of the street. I would pile everything in the back of my car and take it home regardless of whether I needed it or not. My husband Mark banned me from picking up anything when we were together. That made me feel anxious. Sometimes I’d sneak back when Mark had gone, picking up whatever I had my eye on and taking it back to my flat. With my apartment jam-packed, I started filling my car. Soon, giving anyone a lift was impossible and I started parking my car around the corner from Mark’s so he wouldn’t see my car. One day , I drove to Mia’s house. “ Your car is unbelievable ,” she said, taking a photo with her phone. I just shrugged. Mia uploaded the picture to Facebook and within minutes people were commenting on it. Some thought a homeless person must be living in it, and others said I needed psychological help. I was confused. Why were people being so mean? I found the courage to talk to my colleague Cindy about it. “You’re a hoarder (囤积狂),” she told me, softly squeezing my hand. 注意: 1.续写词数应为150左右; 2.请按如下格式作答。 As Cindy explained hoarding was a serious mental illness, it all clicked into place. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Mark supported me as I took those first steps and after eight weeks,  it was time to let my things go. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】As Cindy explained hoarding was a serious mental illness, it all clicked into place. What a mess my life was! If I carried on the way I was, I’d end up with nowhere to live and possibly even have no friends. Things had to change. Cindy advised me to join a meditation course. By practicing meditation, not only can we get a clear mind, but we can also keep ourselves in an emotionally calm and stable state. Taking her advice, I signed up for a meditation course, which would help me change. Mark supported me as I took those first steps and after eight weeks, it was time to let my things go. It was when I welcomed Cindy into my home to help that I realized she was the first visitor I’d had in years. There were mountains of things I wanted to keep but Cindy thought they were useless.In the end, over 30 black bags were filled. We had to hire a van to take them to charity shops. Now never do I pick up anything in the street that I have my eye on. If I keep even one thing, I’ll be right back again. I hope other secret sufferers like me can get help from my story. 【导语】本文以人物为线索展开，主要讲述了作者在Cindy的帮助下认识到自己的囤积症是一种严重的心理疾病，并通过参加冥想课程、整理家中物品、得到朋友支持等过程逐渐改变的故事。 【详解】1.段落续写： ①由第一段首句内容“当Cindy解释囤积是一种严重的心理疾病时，一切突然变得清晰起来。”可知，第一段可描写作者在Cindy的建议下进行反思，并报名了冥想课程。 ②由第二段首句内容“马克在我迈出第一步时给了我支持，八周后，是时候放手了”可知，第二段可描写作者在Cindy帮助下对家中物品进行清理的过程。 2.续写线索：觉醒——决心——支持——清理——转变——感悟 3.词汇激活 行为类 ①建议：advise/ recommend/ suggest ②报名参加：sign up for/ enroll in/ register for ③租用货车：hire a van/ rent a truck/ borrow a vehicle 情绪类 ①镇静的：calm/ peaceful/ composed ②混乱：mess/ chaos/ disorder 【点睛】【高分句型1】If I carried on the way I was, I’d end up with nowhere to live and possibly even have no friends. (由连接词If 引导的条件状语从句和省略关系代词的定语从句) 【高分句型2】Taking her advice, I signed up for a meditation course, which would help me change. 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