内容正文:
2024—2025学年七年级英语(上册)学科素养形成练习
期末(Unit 1—Unit 8)
(满分:75分)
第一部分 选择题(50分)
Ⅰ. 完形填空(10分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入相应空白处的最佳选项。(共10小题,每小题1分)
A man was ___1___ because he tried hard but always failed. He went to the ___2___ and met a wise hermit (隐士). The man asked, “Why should I keep trying?”
“Look,” the hermit said, pointing towards ___3___ plants. “Do you see that fern (蕨) and bamboo there?”
“Yes,” the man nodded.
“When I planted the fern and the bamboo seeds, I took very good care of them. Within a short period of time the fern ___4___ grew from the earth,” the hermit continued. “But even though the bamboo seed was cared for years, there was no sign of ___5___. But I did not give up on the bamboo seed and continued to water and take care of it. By the fifth year, a very small sprout (芽) came out from the earth. And within six months, the tree grew ___6___ tall. It was as tall as a seven-storey building.”
“Did the bamboo stay still for four years and then grow a lot in the fifth?” asked the hermit. The man didn’t know what to say.
“It’s simple,” said the hermit. “It was making ___7___ roots underground. These roots helped it grow big in the fifth year and keep growing.”
“Did you know that all the times you had been struggling (挣扎), you were growing strong ___8___ ?” said the hermit.
The man learned his ___9___ that day. He understood that persistence and hard work can ____10____, even if it takes time. The fern and the bamboo stood right in front of him as he walked towards his life to continue to work on his dreams.
1. A. happy B. excited C. sad D. tired
2. A. forest B. river C. sea D. grassland
3. A. one B. two C. three D. four
4. A. quickly B. slowly C. happily D. luckily
5. A. flower B. stop C. growth D. death
6. A. one metre B. ten metres C. thirty metres D. a hundred metres
7. A. strong B. weak C. few D. some
8. A. leaves B. barks C. trunks D. roots
9. A. sight B. lesson C. scene D. words
10. A. make a difference B. create a problem C. make a change D. miss a chance
Ⅱ. 阅读理解(40分)
第一节 阅读下列短文,从下面每小题的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。(共15小题,每小题1.5分)
A
Wang Yan is a student at Northeastern University (东北大学) in Shenyang. She likes to spend her weekends exploring the narrow streets of the city. She is especially looking for unknown bookstores. In these bookstores, she can relax and read. “Each store is special,” she said. “We can enjoy the beauty of the city and read a good book.”
Since the beginning of this year, “City Read” has become a popular topic. Many young people share their favourite bookstores and talk about their experiences of finding “reading freedom” near home.
In Shenyang, there are many private bookstores hidden away in the small streets. Some are quite famous. The 101-year-old Gede Bookstore has a grand style. Whoop Book & Cafe, a former boiler room (锅炉房), suggests new books every week. And at the When Paper Talk Bookstore, new books are never sealed (塑封).
“These bookstores are very close to my place. They feel like home. I love sitting there. It’s just wonderful,” said Zhang Qi from Shenyang.
In Beijing, 24-hour libraries are very popular. Their convenient locations and all-day service attract many young people.
“City Read” has become popular because public (公共的) facilities are much better than before. In Shenyang, for example, old buildings have been turned into cultural spaces. Across China, “10-and 15-minute reading circles” are being set up to improve public reading facilities.
11. What does Wang Yan especially enjoy doing during her weekends?
A. Staying in the university. B. Drawing narrow streets.
C. Looking for bookstores. D. Going to the libraries.
12. What has become a popular topic since the beginning of this year?
A. City Walk. B. City Read. C. City Sports. D. City Art.
13. Why does Zhang Qi like the bookstores near her place?
A. Because they are very special and interesting to her.
B Because they offer unwrapped books for new readers.
C. Because they feel like home and are wonderful to sit in.
D. Because the bookstores offer different kinds of new books.
14. What can we learn from the passage?
A. In Shenyang, each private bookstore has the same style.
B. All the libraries offer round-the-clock service in Beijing.
C. There are many bookstores with a long history in Shenyang.
D. Reading is popular because the community places are better.
15. In which part of the newspaper can you read this article?
A. Culture. B. Business. C. Sport. D. Travel.
B
Many players at the Olympics represent (代表) their countries. However, some players cannot do this because they are refugees. Refugees are people who had to leave their home countries because of war, problems, or being treated badly. There are more refugees now than before.
To help these players, the International Olympic Committee (IOC) made a special team for refugees. This team started in 2016 to let refugees take part in the Olympics. They don’t represent any country, but they can still win medals.
The refugee team first played in the 2016 Olympics in Rio. They also took part in the 2020 Tokyo Olympics and the 2024 Paris Olympics.
This year, the team had 37 players from 11 countries. They showed that more than 100 million people around the world who had to leave their homes could still do great things. In Paris, they played in 12 different sports like swimming, running, badminton, boxing, and more.
The IOC President said that even though these players didn’t have a flag or a national anthem (国歌), they were welcomed at the Olympics with the Olympic flag and song. They showed that people could be strong and do well even in difficult situations. This gave hope to many people who had to leave their homes.
16. What does the underlined word “refugee” in paragraph 1 mean in Chinese?
A. 难民 B. 贫民 C. 移民 D. 居民
17. Why did the International Olympic Committee (IOC) create a special team for refugees?
A. To have more teams take part in the Olympics.
B. To give refugees a chance to play in the Olympics.
C. To let more people know more about the Olympics.
D. To show how different each team is in the Olympics.
18. When did the refugee team first participate in the Olympics?
A. 2000 Sydney Olympics. B. 2008 Beijing Olympics.
C. 2016 Rio Olympics. D. 2024 Paris Olympics.
19. How many countries do the refugee players in the Paris Olympics team come from?
A. Five countries. B. Eight countries. C. Eleven countries. D. Fifteen countries.
20. Which is the best title for the passage?
A. Wonderful Olympic games B. More refugees around the world
C. Different players in the Olympics D. A Special team in the Olympics
C
28th July, 1973, is a big day for fish. Two little mummichogs (花鳉) became the first fish in space. They lived in a plastic bag aboard Skylab. Three weeks later, they learned how to swim in zero gravity (零重力).
51 years later, four zebrafish are now swimming aboard China’s Tiangong Space Station. This is for a space experiment to see how very little gravity changes how fish live and grow.
We know people feel weightless in space. But very little gravity can cause more changes. It affects almost all our body activities. If we’re going to live more in space in the future, we need to understand these changes. People are hard to study though. So, scientists study fish instead.
Zebrafish have helped us learn about living things. They may seem different, but have many similar body parts with us. “Their bodies often work like ours,” explains Aaron van Loon, a biologist at the University of Washington. Zebrafish are also small and easy to take care of. And, they’re clear before they are born. Scientists can look inside them while they’re growing.
Zebrafish have been in many medical studies. In space too, they’re studied since the 1970s. In 2015, zebrafish on the International Space Station helped learn how muscles get weak in very little gravity.
Like astronauts, fish are carefully picked for space trips. They always have a job to do. Our little friends in water are helping us learn to travel in space safely.
21. Why was 28th July, 1973 a big day for fish?
A. Because mummichogs were first used in an experiment.
B. Because two mummichogs became the first fish in space.
C. Because fish farming became successful in space since then.
D. Because two mummichogs were successfully hatched that day.
22. What does the zebrafish study on China’s Tiangong Space Station want to find out?
A. How zebrafish get used to space life.
B. If zebrafish live without gravity.
C. How little gravity changes the way fish grow and live.
D. If zebrafish live the same in space as on the Earth.
23. What does the passage tell us?
A. Fish are used in many studies in space today. B. Fish are leading the way to explore space safely.
C. Fish help check how our body changes in space. D. Fish are used to check if space has very little gravity.
24. What does the writer think of these fish?
A Helpful. B. Interesting. C. Wonderful. D. Amazing.
25. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Fish were taken into space successfully. B. Fish have many body parts like ours.
C. Fish are see-through for scientists to study. D. Fish help us learn about living in space.
第二节
以下是一则短文,请阅读全文,并从下列的六个句子中选择五个还原到原文中,使原文的意思完整、连贯。
Chinese poets speak highly of the beauty of the four seasons. ____26____
In spring, poets praise the vitality of spring. In Meng Haoran’s “Spring Dawn”, it describes the morning of spring. ____27____
____28____ In Bai Juyi’s “Observing the Harvesting of Wheat”, the poet shows the warmth of summer by telling scenes of summer work.
In autumn, poets tell us a grand autumn. In Cao Cao’s “Observing the Sea”, there is a famous sentence “The autumn wind blows drear and bleak; The monstrous billows surge up high.” ____29____
In winter, poets praise the beauty of life through coldness of winter. ____30____
Their poetry makes us feel that the changes of the seasons are not just natural phenomena (现象), but also a reflection (反映) of life, time, and history. Through these poems, we can deeply understand and feel the beauty of the four seasons.
A. The songs of birds wake the sleeping world.
B. In Liu Yuxi’s “Yang Liu Zhi”, he shows the beauty of life in winter through comparison.
C. The birds sing when the moon rises up in the sky.
D. They use rich imagination and words as brushes to paint unique pictures of them.
E The poet shows the power of autumn through the bleak wind and the rolling waves.
F. In summer, poets describe the warmth of summer.
第三节 信息匹配
下面的材料A—F分别是多元智能中的六种。请根据Darwin,Lin Yutang,Hua Luogeng,Carnegie,Zheng Qinwen五位名人的不同特点分析他们擅长的是哪种智能,并将其标号填入括号内。
____31____ Darwin got interested in nature. He liked to learn about different plants. One of his famous books is called “On the Origin of Species”.
____32____ Lin Yutang knew a lot of words when he was young. He understood many foreign languages. He also wrote a lot of famous books.
____33____ Hua Luogeng loves maths. He showed his talent in maths at a very young age. He finally worked out a group of very difficult passwords.
____34____ Carnegie is good at reading people and has a natural ability to get on well with others. He can understand people’s feelings better.
____35____ Zheng Qinwen is a natural-born player. She can play tennis well. She won the gold medal in Paris Olympics.
A. Naturalist (nature smart)
B. Musical (sound smart)
C. Mathematical (number smart)
D. Interpersonal (people smart)
E. Linguistic (word smart)
F. Bodily-kinesthetic (body smart)
第二部分 非选择题(25分)
Ⅲ. 语法填空(10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
____36____ (recent), Ding Xiaoyun’s school held a special exhibition with many “ancient artifacts” finished by students. She ____37____ (make) a gold buyao, which looks ____38____ an antler (鹿角) with a horse head. It is a type of ____39____ (woman) headwear (头饰) from a very long time ago, during the Southern and ____40____ (north) dynasties. People wondered ____41____ she made it.
She made it by ____42____ (cut) out 10 ____43____ (leaf), two heads, and three antlers from pieces of copper sheet (铜片) and put them together with iron wires (铁丝) and glue. The hardest part was cutting the copper sheet ____44____ it was too thick. Instead of using scissors, she ended up using a knife. It was very hard for ancient people ____45____ (make) these kinds of decorations.
Ⅳ. 书面表达(15分)
46. 业余爱好不但可以陶冶情操,还可以放松身心。请以“My favourite hobby”为题,写一篇英文演讲稿,并与英语俱乐部小伙伴们分享你的业余爱好。
内容如下:1. 你的业余爱好是什么;
2. 关于业余爱好最难忘的一次经历;
3. 业余爱好对你产生的影响。
要求:1. 80词左右,标题、开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数;
2. 文中不得出现真实姓名和校名;
3. 可适当增加细节,以使语句通顺、条理清楚、意义连贯;
4. 标点正确,书面整洁。
My favourite hobby
Good morning, guys,
I’m very happy to share my hobby with you. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
That’s all. Thank you for listening.
2024—2025学年七年级英语(上册)学科素养形成练习
期末(Unit 1—Unit 8)
(满分:75分)
第一部分 选择题(50分)
Ⅰ. 完形填空(10分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入相应空白处的最佳选项。(共10小题,每小题1分)
【1~10题答案】
【答案】1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. A
Ⅱ. 阅读理解(40分)
第一节 阅读下列短文,从下面每小题的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。(共15小题,每小题1.5分)
A
【11~15题答案】
【答案】11. C 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. A
B
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. A 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. D
C
【21~25题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. C 23. C 24. A 25. D
第二节
【26~30题答案】
【答案】26. D 27. A 28. F 29. E 30. B
第三节 信息匹配
【31~35题答案】
【答案】31. A 32. E
33. C 34. D
35. F
第二部分 非选择题(25分)
Ⅲ. 语法填空(10分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. Recently
37. made 38. like
39. women’s
40. Northern
41 how 42. cutting
43. leaves 44. because
45. to make
Ⅳ. 书面表达(15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】例文
My favourite hobby
Good morning, guys,
I’m very happy to share my hobby with you. My hobby is playing table tennis.
At five, my mother took me to a competition. The game caught my attention, so I started learning. I enjoyed playing because it exercised my body, sharpened my mind, and let me express myself. My father plays with me, and I play whenever I have time.
Table tennis helps me concentrate, which is good for my studies. I’ve also made friends through the sport, making my life more enjoyable and meaningful.
That’s all. Thank you for listening.
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