内容正文:
全国九五高中协作体2025届高三联考(九五联考)
英语试题
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上,录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What does the woman offer to share with the man?
A. A book of poetry. B. An article. C. A poem.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
How does the woman benefit from volunteering?
A. She makes more friends.
B. She becomes more social.
C. She gains a stronger sense of community.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Which of the following is Helen interested in now?
A. Painting. B. Gardening. C. Playing music.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What did Amy do over the weekend?
A. She read books indoors.
B. She played with her friends.
C. She spent quality time with her family.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What does the man think of the history project?
A. It was difficult. B. It was exciting. C. It was helpful.
第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
6. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In a cleaner’s. B. In a coffee shop. C. In a clothes store.
7. What will the man do next?
A. Attend a party. B. Meet some friends. C. Buy a birthday gift.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
8. Why does the man come to the woman?
A. To try a new product. B. To do a promotion. C. To ask for feedback.
9. How does the woman feel about the voices on the app?
A. Most of them are unclear.
B. Some of them are strange.
C. All of them are correct in pronunciation.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
10. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Father and daughter. B. Teacher and student. C. University friends.
11. What is Kate’s problem?
A. She feels sad about leaving school.
B. She had an argument with her friends.
C. She doesn’t know which university to attend.
12. What might Kate want to be in life?
A. A university teacher. B. A software engineer. C. A fashion designer.
13. What does the man suggest Kate do?
A. Make more friends.
B. Choose a different major.
C. Give Melissa more time.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
14. What is the main idea of the conversation?
A. The secrets of the universe.
B. Some facts about dark matter.
C. Theories on dark matter.
15. What is the man doing?
A. Presenting research results.
B. Conducting an interview.
C. Watching a TV show.
16. What do we know about the dark matter?
A. It has no reaction to light.
B. It’s widely known by people.
C. It’s the most important part of the universe.
17. How much of the universe is made up of dark energy?
A. About 5%. B. About 26%. C. About 69%.
听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
18. Who might the speaker probably be?
A. A weather reporter. B. A town official. C. A rescue worker.
19. What is the first tip the speaker offers?
A. Keep informed. B. Look for supplies. C. Stay calm and quiet.
20. What does the speaker remind the listeners to do if their home is flooded?
A. Stay with families and wait for help.
B. Contact the local leaders right away.
C. Avoid driving cars through flooded roads.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳答案。
A
About Eider-Floating Lodge
It is the only one of its kind in the Fairwood Lakes Holiday Park. Enjoy the ultimate calm and relaxing stay in this 24m² house that boasts sliding doors, modern modular spaces and sheltered terrace (露台) and a two-person hot tub. Eider can accommodate up to 4 people thanks to its double bed and bunk bed. It has Freeview TV including a separate TV in the double bedroom and free Wi-Fi.
There is a separate WC and washroom with shower which completes the sense of comfort. The kitchen, equipped with microwave, oven and hob, opens to the outside deck, a perfect spot for terrace dining and to enjoy the summer evenings.
Accommodation Prices
2 nights
3 nights
4 nights
£410
£555
£620
(Please note there is an additional £50 charge per dog per stay in Eider)
Rules
* The park closes strictly at 9 pm. Check-in times are strictly between the hours of 4 pm-8 pm.
* Dogs must be kept under control, on a lead and accompanied by a responsible adult at all times. Dogs are not permitted in any play areas.
* Bicycles, electric scooters (踏板车), and motorized scooters are allowed, and all road rules must be observed.
* Vehicles must be parked in the main car park and keep to the 5mph speed limit.
21. What do we know about Eider-Floating Lodge?
A. It serves tasty food. B. It charges for Wi-Fi.
C. It gets noisy in the evening. D. It offers the comfort of home,
22. How much does it cost to stay in Eider with a pet dog for 3 nights?
A. £555. B. £605. C. £620. D. £705.
23. What are visitors prohibited from doing during the stay?
A. Walking a dog in a play area. B. Riding bicycles.
C. Parking in the main car park. D. Checking in at 7 pm.
B
In a community centre in Kenya’s Laikipia county, Juliana Loshiro stands before her pupils. They listen and repeat simple words and greetings in Yaakunte (also called Yaaku), the language of their community. Though it might seem strange that even older people cannot speak the language, one of the pupils stands up and explains why he is in the class: his grandparents died before they could teach him Yaakunte, he says, and his mother, a Maasai, did not know the language. “So we got lost.”
Loshiro teaches about 300 students twice a week. But the lessons are about more than just saving a language, they are about preserving the Yaakunte culture too. The Mukogodo Forest, one of the largest in East Africa, is the traditional home of the Yaaku. Originally hunter-gatherers, they looked after the 74,000-acre forest, using it for hunting, rituals (宗教仪式) and to collect plants and honey.
Loshiro believes that by saving the language she is also safeguarding the knowledge the language holds about the wildlife of the forest, empowering future Yaaku to protect it. Every week, she takes her students to the forest to plant trees such as wild olive or cedar. So far they have planted 10,000 seedlings and distributed 50,000 seedballs. They then tag trees with labels that have words in Yaakunte. “As the trees grow,” she says, “the language grows.”
Changes in the 20th century pushed Yaakunte to the edge of extinction. The Yaaku lived alongside the Maasai, a pastoral (田园生活) community who looked down on the hunter - gatherers for not having livestock. When Yaaku girls began marrying their neighbouring pastoralists, and parents received livestock as bride-wealth, Yaaku fathers began to demand cattle rather than just beehives as had been the Yaaku custom. The temptation (诱惑) to identify with pastoralists was stronger and the Yaaku gradually assimilated into the Maasai, and gave up their language for Maasai.
Loshiro is working on other ways to preserve Yaakunte, including building a website and app to digitize the language and make learning easier. She hopes her pupils will be fluent in Yaakunte after five years of classes and — apart from language — know their culture.
24. What can be learned from the first paragraph?
A. Yaaku kids are poorly educated. B. The Yaaku population is aging fast.
C. Yaakunte is in danger of extinction. D. The Yaaku community remains uncontacted.
25. Why does Loshiro plant trees in the forest with her students?
A. To get them close to nature. B. To give their culture a future.
C. To cultivate their hands-on abilities. D. To experience their ancestors’ hardships.
26. What does the underlined words “assimilated into” in paragraph 4 mean?
A. Won over. B. Turned against. C. Became part of. D. Lost control of.
27. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. Growing a word forest B. Changing old customs
C. Rescuing a lost community D. Preserving local landscapes
C
Real-time water quality monitors are being installed (安装) at wild swimming spots and beaches across southern England to help people assess their immediate risk of getting ill from polluted water. This initiative follows a successful pilot study at Warleigh Weir near Bath, where an AI-based system accurately predicted high bacterial (细菌) levels 87% of the time.
Wessex Water is installing sensors at three freshwater sites in Dorset, Somerset and Hampshire. Rather than measuring bacteria directly, it infers when levels of E coli or enterococci are high, by analyzing data from real-time sensors placed upstream, that measure pH, temperature, dissolved oxygen and ammonia.
One of the systems the company tested was an AI-based approach developed by the UK-based startup UnifAI Technology. During an initial training period of about six months, river water samples are repeatedly tested for bacteria levels, and the AI learns to correlate these with patterns in the sensor data. After this period, members of the public are given access to a convenient app that gives half-hourly predictions on bacteria levels in the river, and issues a water-quality warning when bacterial levels are likely to be high.
The campaign group River Action UK broadly welcomed the technology. “We need the environmental regulators to use pollution data as evidence of malpractice (渎职) to strengthen enforcement of the law and hold polluters to account. Only when it becomes less expensive to obey the law than breaking it will we see the necessary investment in maintaining and upgrading sewage (污水) treatment works,” said River Action’s chief executive, James Wallace.
Meanwhile, Southern Water is testing a different monitoring approach at coastal sites, with plans to extend the system to Hayling Island soon. This research involves using algorithms (算法) to estimate bacteria levels based on light scattering. Although these sensors have been in the water for about a year, they’ re still in the development phase and not yet providing that data to the general public.
28. Why were real-time water quality monitors installed?
A. To promote AI technology. B. To create a smart river network.
C. To ensure a safe swimming experience. D. To reduce bacterial levels in the water.
29. What information does the convenient app offer?
A. River flow forecasts. B. Types of water pollutants.
C. Short-term water level prediction. D. Real-time updates on water conditions.
30. What did James Wallace imply in paragraph 4?
A. Polluters should be severely punished. B. Pollution control costs can be further reduced.
C. Pollution data must be used as criminal evidence. D. Regulators should invest more in sewage treatment.
31. What do we know about Southern Water’s monitoring approach?
A. It has proven cost-effective. B. It has achieved initial success.
C. It has been adopted nationwide. D. It has yet to be put to practical use.
D
In soccer, the goalkeeper is a team’s last line of defense, whose primary role is to stand in the goal mouth and prevent the opposing team from scoring. This highly specialized position involves diving or jumping to block the ball and “save” it from entering the goal.
A goalkeeper’s view of the match play is often blocked by other players, so these explosive movements typically require split-second decisions based on limited sensory information. Michael Quinn of University College Dublin and his colleagues therefore predicted that goalkeepers would have an enhanced ability to combine information from the different senses compared to other players.
To test this, they performed a research to measure the so-called “temporal binding window” (the time period in which different sensory inputs are perceived as one event) in 20 professional goalkeepers, 20 outfield soccer players, and 20 age - matched control participants who do not play soccer. This involved showing the participants a series of flashes and beeps presented to them at varying intervals and asking them to report how many flashes they saw. Typically, one flash accompanied by two beeps creates the illusion (错觉) of perceiving two flashes, as long as the flash and the beeps are presented close enough together.
Quinn and his colleagues found that this temporal binding window was narrower in the professional goalkeepers than in the outfield players and non - players. In other words, the flash and beeps had to be presented fractions (片刻) of a second closer to each other in order for the goalkeepers to experience the illusion. They were not easily fooled.
Goalkeepers are apparently better at separating out different sorts of sensory input, which allows them to focus on what is important when faced with on-rushing players in a noisy stadium. The study also showed they were more efficient at processing confusing inputs, and at estimating the timing of events.
However, Quinn said that many questions remain. The research cannot tell if a goalkeeper’s experience trains them to separate these sensory signals to enhance their performance, or if a pre-existing tendency to separate auditory (听觉的) and visual signals may attract some to the position of goalkeeper. These will be the focus of further research.
32. Which aspect of soccer goalkeepers does the research focus on?
A. Their role in the team. B. Their athletic techniques.
C. Their basic psychological needs. D. Their multisensory processing ability.
33. What is paragraph 3 of the text mainly about?
A. The design of Quinn’s research. B. The causes of misperception.
C. The profile of soccer players. D. The basics of a research mindset.
34. What did the research reveal about soccer goalkeepers?
A. They had temporal illusions at smaller intervals.
B. They could rapidly and precisely separate sensory inputs.
C. They relied less on sensory inputs to make on - site decisions.
D. They were better at predicting the outcome of a football match.
35. What will be the focus of the future research on soccer goalkeepers?
A. What qualities they must possess. B. How they can enhance their performance.
C. Where their perceptual differences come from. D. Whether they should be trained at an earlier stage.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The more you read, the more you become cultured. ____36____ Reading can also tea ch you how to become a better human, one with good manners. Here are a few things I learned not from the books but from reading books.
● You learn how to listen.
When you read, you give your complete attention to the book to understand whatever it is about. ____37____ You learn to receive information without the need to say something. If you disagree in any way, you learn to silently digest the words you read, thinking why the author wrote that. If you apply this to actual people, you’d be a better listener.
● You develop empathy(共鸣).
If you listen with the purpose of understanding the other person, you learn to empathize. You try and analyze why a thing is said. Giving your unwavering (坚定的) attention to the book focuses you to solely receive the information. With that complete attention, you understand the story better. You understand the writer — the thoughts, emotions, beliefs that he wants you to know. ____38____
● You discover yourself.
____39____ But I think that it’s more appropriate to say that you are what you read. You’ll only take interest in books or topics that are close to your heart. By assessing the titles you have read, the better you understand your thinking process and eventually, who you are as a human being. There’s no better way to discover your identity than understanding your own mind.
● ____40____
Whether in faith, relationships, or life, we have our personal opinions. But there are some ideas that are too dangerous to discuss with others. As you read, you’ll be fortunate to find authors who think the same. Now you can claim that you are not crazy for considering ideas that are way out of the box.
A. You feel understood.
B. You value your privacy.
C. They say that you are what you eat.
D. You connect to the characters and feel for them.
E. Reading is an experience between you and the book.
F. That is true because you expose yourself to different ideas.
G. The amazing thing about it is that your opinion is not wanted.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
After graduating from an art school, I spent two years working in a personal loan company. I saw families ____41____ and people dying. That experience ____42____ my view of money and what it did to people. I was depressed and ____43____ all day long. I self - published a comic book about my mental health. I found myself drawn to superheroes to ____44____ myself. In 2017, I was diagnosed with autism (自闭症). It ____45____ me really hard. I realized that a weekly salary of£800 was not worth the ____46____ it did. I rang the office and told them I was done. Everything was ____47____ at the same time. I lost my parents. It broke me ____48____.
I tried many methods but in vain. So I decided to use comics as a way of ____49____ myself. _____50_____ helped me process situations. It was a source of _____51_____ for me and gave me something to focus on. I pitched (推送) the new comics book to a publisher but the process was taking too long, so I crowdfunded it. It _____52_____ £ 4,758 after celebrity support on social media so I _____53_____ the book in hardback (精装本). This gave me the confidence to _____54_____ big companies with samples and won commissions from Hollywood film studios.
Comics started out as escapism. They have given me a(n) _____55_____. Now I’m a consultant for an autism training centre. My autism has shown me a way to help make the world a better place.
41. A. moved B. broken C. cared D. united
42. A. presented B. justified C. contradicted D. backed
43 A. stuck B. adjusted C. focused D. prepared
44. A. forgive B. distinguish C. escape D. manage
45. A. pushed B. hit C. lifted D. freed
46. A. damage B. justice C. wonders D. mercies
47. A. taking off B. picking up C. going on D. breaking down
48. A. reluctantly B. hesitantly C. surprisingly D. eventually
49. A. celebrating B. reinventing C. disciplining D. entertaining
50. A. Art B. Time C. Life D. Failure
51. A. truth B. information C. concern D. comfort
52. A. cost B. raised C. made D. saved
53. A. collected B. donated C. lent D. printed
54. A. approach B. challenge C. found D. join
55. A. excuse B. home C. voice D. break
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Hanfu has a long and rich history that dates back to the Han Dynasty (206 BC-220 AD). The clothing style was influenced by the Silk Road trade and cultural exchange, ____56____ brought new textile materials and designs to China. It was made using silk, cotton, and other high-quality materials. From the ancient times to the modern era, Hanfu ____57____ (adapt) to suit changing times and trends.
Hanfu is not just a clothing style, but it also represents the Chinese culture and heritage. In ancient times, Hanfu ____58____ (reserve) for the upper class, and it symbolized the wearer’s social status and wealth. Today, it is worn by people from all ____59____ (walk) of life who want to showcase their love and appreciation for the Chinese culture.
The Silk Road allowed Hanfu to spread ____60____ the borders of China. It has influenced the traditional clothing of many neighbouring cultures ____61____ directly led to the development of the Japanese Kimono and Korean hanbok. However, this type of dress declined during the Qing dynasty (1644–1912) amid Manchu rule and the ____62____ (rise) influence of Western fashion trends.
Hanfu has experienced a resurgence (复苏) in popularity in recent years, ____63____ (drive) by a desire to reconnect with the cultural heritage of China and express ____64____ sense of national pride. By wearing Hanfu, individuals make a statement about the importance of preserving and honouring the _____65_____ (deep) of Chinese cultural heritage.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
66. 假定你是李华,上周五你们班组织了去南山观赏秋叶活动。请你给英国朋友Chris写一封邮件分享这次经历,内容包括:
(1)活动的过程;
(2)你的感想。
注意:
(1)写作词数应为80左右;
(2)请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
Dear Chris,
I’m writing to share with you the leaf-viewing trip our class organized last Friday.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The date had been circled on my calendar for months — Friday 30 December. Mum was coming to pick me up from university and bring me home for the New Year celebrations. I loved every second of university life, but I couldn’t wait to go home. There was nothing that made me happier than the thought of the celebrations with my family.
Our small celebrations were the same every year. Mum Dad, my younger brother Ollie and I all dressed up and created a special meal. Then we sat down to dinner and enjoyed it together, chatting happily. After that, we sat in front of the TV until bedtime.
The call came at 10 am that Friday. I was dressed and packed. “We’re not going to make it,” my mum said, sounding upset on the phone. “Kent has been blanketed overnight, with up to 20cm falling in three hours. We’ve crawled (缓行)as far as Detling, but they’ve closed the motorway. It’s already taken us two hours. There’s no way we can get to you.”
“What am I going to do?” I was hopeless and sick with anxiety. My life was different from that of other students. Being disabled means everything has to be organized ahead of time — a sudden change of plan isn’t an option. Even though I had my carer to help me cook wash and get into bed, I still missed the joy of our celebrations.
Alone in my student bedroom, I was a bit frustrated. Suddenly a picture on the wall caught my attention. It was a picture of a family reunion filled with laughter, hugs, and delicious food. It reminded me of the power of connection and the importance of cherishing these moments. I decided to push aside my fears about how I would ever get home.
Although I’d travelled with my family three times in my life, travelling independently using a wheelchair came with many challenges for me. I could imagine the difficulty of booking assistance at every train station, getting on and off the train... So I worked out a detailed plan, hoping everything would be fine.
注意:(1)续写词数应为150左右;(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1: Not long after that, a taxi took me to the railway station.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2: A taxi, three trains, five hours and 140 miles later, I was finally home.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
全国九五高中协作体2025届高三联考(九五联考)
英语试题
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上,录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
【1题答案】
【答案】A
【2题答案】
【答案】C
【3题答案】
【答案】A
【4题答案】
【答案】C
【5题答案】
【答案】A
第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
【6~7题答案】
【答案】6. A 7. B
【8~9题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. B
【10~13题答案】
【答案】10. A 11. B 12. C 13. C
【14~17题答案】
【答案】14. B 15. B 16. A 17. C
【18~20题答案】
【答案】18. B 19. A 20. C
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳答案。
A
【21~23题答案】
【答案】21 D 22. B 23. A
B
【24~27题答案】
【答案】24. C 25. B 26. C 27. A
C
【28~31题答案】
【答案】28. C 29. D 30. A 31. D
D
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32. D 33. A 34. B 35. C
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. F 37. G 38. D 39. C 40. A
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【41~55题答案】
【答案】41. B 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. B 46. A 47. D 48. D 49. B 50. A 51. D 52. B 53. D 54. A 55. C
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
【56~65题答案】
【答案】56. which
57. has been adapted
58. was reserved
59. walks 60. beyond
61. and 62. rising
63. driven 64. a
65. depth
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【66题答案】
【答案】Dear Chris,
I’m writing to share with you the leaf-viewing trip our class organized last Friday. We went to Nanshan, where the autumn leaves were breathtaking. The trees were adorned with vibrant shades of red, yellow, and orange. We hiked along scenic paths, took photos, and enjoyed a picnic surrounded by nature.
It was a wonderful experience! The beauty of the leaves and the fresh air made me feel relaxed and happy. Spending time with friends in such a lovely setting was unforgettable. I hope you can join us next time!
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
【67题答案】
【答案】Not long after that, a taxi took me to the railway station. I felt a mix of excitement and anxiety as I navigated the familiar route. My heart raced at the thought of taking this journey on my own, but I reminded myself of the warmth and joy waiting for me at home. Upon arriving, I quickly located the assistance desk and explained my needs. The staff were incredibly helpful, guiding me to the platform and ensuring I was comfortable. The train ride was smooth, and I found a window seat to enjoy the snowy landscape flashing by.
A taxi, three trains, five hours and 140 miles later, I was finally home. The moment I stepped through the door, I was enveloped in a wave of warmth and love. My family rushed to greet me, their faces lighting up with joy. We shared hugs and laughter, and I felt an overwhelming sense of belonging. We quickly gathered in the kitchen to prepare our traditional meal together, the familiar scents filling the air. As we sat down to dinner, I realized that despite the challenges, I had made it home for New Year celebrations.
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