内容正文:
三台县2024年秋高二半期教学质量调研测试
英语
本试卷满分150分,共8页,考试结束后,将答题卡交回。
注意事项:
1.答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写在答题卡上。
2.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂;非选择题必须使用0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔书写,字体工整、笔迹清楚。
3.请按照题号顺序在答题卡各题目的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效;在草稿纸、试卷上答题无效。
4.保持卡面清洁,不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、修正带、刮纸刀。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置,听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题,每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What’s David’s plan for tonight?
A. Visiting some relatives. B. Doing sports. C. Watching a tennis game.
2. How did the woman get home last night?
A. By train. B. By car. C. By bus.
3. Who is the woman most probably speaking to?
A. Her father. B. Her guest. C. Her husband.
4. When does the conversation take place?
A. On Saturday. B. On Friday. C. On Thursday.
5. What does the man like about the movie?
A. Its actors. B. Its funny plot. C. Its music.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间,每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6至7题
6. Why does the woman talk to the man?
A. To cancel their plan. B. To make an invitation. C. To ask for information.
7. What does the man decide to do this evening?
A. See a band show. B. Accompany his parents. C. Buy tickets online.
听第7段材料,回答第8至9题。
8. What do the speakers need money for?
A. A car. B. The summer camp. C. The soccer team.
9. How will the woman make money?
A. By washing cars. B. By working at a snack bar. C. By selling cold drinks
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. What are the speakers talking about?
A. Mount Huang. B. Mount Hua. C. Mount Tai.
11. What can we know about the man?
A. He stopped climbing halfway
B. He reached the top of the mountain.
C. He met many famous people.
12. What does the woman mean at the end of the conversation?
A. She doesn’t like climbing mountains
B. She has been to the mountain before.
C. She wants to climb the mountain, too.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. Why did old Peter look terribly sad?
A. He lost his job. B. His wife was dead. C. His daughter left him.
14. What does Dora do now?
A. She is a model. B. She is a doctor. C. She is a teacher.
15. What does the man think of Dora?
A. Selfish. B. Popular. C. Helpful.
16. Where did the woman meet Johnson for the first time?
A. In the hospital. B. At school. C. In the street.
听第10段材料,回普第17至20题。
17. What does the speaker do?
A. He is a professor. B. He is a businessman. C. He is an engineer.
18. What was the speaker’s major in college?
A. Business. B. Marketing. C. Computer science.
19. Where did the speaker get the idea of starting his career in AI?
A. From Apple’s Siri. B. From his teacher. C. From a famous scientist.
20. How do people feel about the development of AI according to the speaker?
A. Worried. B. Unconcerned. C. Glad.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。
A
Shows in the New Theatre Cardiff in 2023
The Yorkshire Shepherdess
In this warm-hearted and informative show, Yorkshire Shepherdess Amanda Owen shares memorable moments and charming stories from her remarkable farming, family life in North Yorkshire. It’s a life that has almost gone in today’s modern world, one ruled by animals and the four seasons.
Date &Time: Saturday, 22 April, 7:30 p.m. & Sunday, 30 April, 6:30 p.m. & 9:30p.m., 2023
Wild
Ben Fogle’s new show Wild brings to life on stage, stories and tales of hope, possibility, and positivity. In this brand-new show full of hope and harmony, Wild is a hair-raising, uplifting and wildly entertaining show that tells the true stories of Ben’s amazing encounters with(相遇)people and animals, and how they changed his life…and the discovery of helping you find your ocean of possibility.
Date & Time: Tuesday, 25 April, 8:30 p.m. & Saturday, 29 April, 3:30pm, 2023
Pop Princesses
A magical show where beautiful princesses become pop stars! This is the children’s pop concert with a big difference. A musical spectacular(盛大演出)stars four fairy tale princesses who just love to sing! It’s the perfect mix.
Date & Time: Saturday, 8 April, 7:00 p.m., 2023
Titanic The Musical
Based on real people aboard the most legendary ship in the world, Titanic The Musical is a stunning(惊人的)and stirring production focusing on the hopes, dreams and wishes of her passengers who each boarded with stories and personal ambitions of their own.
Date & Time: 9-13 April, 6:00 p.m., 2023
Click www.newtheatrecardiff.co.uk for more information.
1. Which show brings totally true stories on stage?
A. The Yorkshire Shepherdess. B. Wild.
C. Pop Princesses. D. Titanic The Musical.
2. What do Pop Princesses and Titanic The Musical have in common?
A. They both attract young children. B. They both mention the ambition of people.
C. They are both musical plays. D. They are shown at the same time.
3. What is the purpose of the text?
A. To educate people. B. To celebrate a special festival.
C. To meet people’s needs. D. To inform people.
B
I used to overeat. I’ve never been significantly overweight, so people are surprised to hear this. When you think of overeating, you think of someone who is above their natural weight range, right? Well, I used to purposefully undereat as well. I was able to keep my weight within some control, but only through a lot of physical and mental pain.
Here’s a glimpse (一瞥) into my life as a first-year university student:
Friday: Go to a party and eat a lot of chips. Feel guilty and regretful. Vow (发誓) to wake up and run an extra mile.
Saturday: Run 6 miles, come home and only eat a tiny breakfast. Eat like a bird for the rest of the day. Feel proud of myself.
Sunday: Study and snack on chocolate chips all day. Feel sick.
Monday: Head to class with no snack and no money so that I can’t buy any food. Feel hungry but full of willpower. Go home and overeat at dinner. Feel out of control.
My feelings were changing regularly. I was proud and in control one moment, and then full of regret and out of control the next. It was exhausting.
As I studied nutrition and human anatomy (人体解剖学) in university, I started to learn just how amazing the human body is! The human body is an amazing, self-regulatory (自动调节的) system. It knows exactly how much food it needs. When I learned this, my whole world changed. I stopped trying to manage my eating with willpower. Instead of trying to power through my hunger, I would provide my body with healthy foods, so I would feel hungry less often.
This process definitely took some work and reflection, but after a while it became second nature. Eating has become a joyful experience, instead of a source of stress and worry in my life. All my eating is now guilt-free! I shamelessly eat unhealthy snacks without regret. Of course, the majority of my food intake does come from whole, healthy foods that are close to nature.
4. What can we know about the author’s weekly life as a freshman?
A. Run extra miles on Friday. B. Only eat breakfast on Saturday.
C. Eating nothing but chips on Sunday. D. Eat nothing with willpower on Monday.
5. What did the author do after studying nutrition and human anatomy?
A. She exercised in order to lose weight. B. She began to listen to her body’s needs.
C. She stopped eating unhealthy food. D. She started to go on a diet.
6. Which is the most suitable title for this passage?
A. Learn about nutrition and human anatomy. B. Control your weight.
C. Enjoy snacks without guilt. D. Eating can be a pleasant thing.
7. How does the author develop the text?
A. By giving instructions. B. By explaining a process.
C. By discussing research findings. D. By sharing a personal experience.
C
Meet Johanna Quaas, a remarkable 98-year-old gymnast from Germany who has been competing since she was 10 years old in 1935.
Born in 1926 in Hohenmolsen, Germany, Johanna Quaas discovered her love for gymnastics at a young age. It was all because of this love that she started training and competing in the sport during a time when women’s gymnastics was still in its early stages of development. Despite the challenges and limitations she faced as a female athlete during that time, Johann stuck to her interest and constantly sharpened her skills, eventually becoming an excellent member of the gymnastics world.
Johanna believes that age should never be a barrier to following one’s dreams. Johanna’s good mindset serves as an inspiration to people of all ages, showcasing that age is just a number when it comes to following our interests and dreams.
Back in 2012, Johanna earned the Guinness World Record of the world’s oldest gymnast. She was 86 years old at the time. She maintains a strict exercise routine, eats a balanced diet, and prioritizes her physical and mental well-being. Her staying fit and active has enabled her to continue competing and performing gymnastics routines that would challenge even athletes half her age. What she has done has earned her the admiration of fans and fellow athletes alike.
Johanna’s love for gymnastics has not only brought her personal achievements and joy but has also inspired countless individuals to follow their own dreams and goals, regardless of age or circumstances. As Johanna approaches her 100th birthday, she shows no signs of slowing down. She continues to train, compete, and share her love for gymnastics with the world. Her story serves as a reminder that with interest and a healthy attitude, anything is achievable.
8. What can we say about Johanna when it comes to gymnastics?
A. She is a pioneer in this field. B. She established the rules for it.
C. She’s made the seniors love it. D. She laid the foundation for it.
9. What set Johanna apart from other gymnasts?
A. Her poor family and courage. B. Her luck and achievements.
C Her age and positive attitude. D. Her failures and determination.
10. What can be inferred about Johanna from paragraph 4?
A. She often challenges young people. B. She is a role model for healthy aging.
C. She attended many famous competitions. D. She has strong desires for greater success.
11. What can we learn from Johanna’s story?
A. Passion and interest make one keep going. B. One’s talent is everything.
C. The older you get, the easier it is to succeed. D. Success requires support.
D
Life as an astronaut has various unique attractions. This can include experiencing weightlessness and looking back at Earth as a pale blue dot. Food is not among them. Space travelers over the years have become used to certain foods such as freeze-dried ice cream and liquid salt and pepper. Now, the menu is set to be augmented, with the first space-grown lettuce (生菜) found to be as safe, nutritious and fresh as the Earth-grown variety.
Gioia Massa of NASA Kennedy Space Center is the lead scientist on the lettuce-growing project. She said that growing food in space could be wonderful for astronauts on missions lasting more than one month. “If you store packaged food for a long time, not only will the flavour and nutritional quality decrease, but the vitamins will degrade. After eating such food, astronauts’ intake of nutrition is not ensured,” she said. “Besides, for them, there may also be psychological benefits of growing and looking after plants.
Lettuce has been grown in batches (分批) onboard the International Space Station (ISS). The vegetable production system is known as Veggie. It is composed of plant pillows (sealed units containing ceramic soil), LED lighting and a watering system that allows astronauts to inject water through a tube. The lettuce crops grow undisturbed for 33 to 56 days before being harvested and eaten, or deep-frozen and returned to Earth for chemical and biological analysis.
The space-grown lettuces are similar in make-up to Earth-grown ones but they have higher levels of bacteria (细菌), possibly due to their growth in a warmer, more humid (潮湿的) and closed-air system. But they are not found to carry any harmful bacteria.
NASA is now enlarging the range of produce grown onboard the ISS. It will be quite some time before any vegetables can be transformed into a dish, however. “While we have nowhere to cook up there now, we can look forward to more things that taste fresh,” Massa explained.
12. What does the underlined word “augmented” probably mean in Paragraph 1?
A. Enlarged.
B Engaged.
C. Reduced.
D. Measured.
13. What do we know about growing space-grown lettuce?
A. It’s flavor and nutritional quality decline.
B. It is terrible for astronauts on missions.
C. It can contribute to astronauts’ mental health.
D. It will make sure the astronauts’ intake of nutrition.
14. What can we infer from the text?
A. Lettuces will be grown in batches onboard.
B. The vegetable production system consists of three parts.
C. It will take at least 56 days to harvest the space-grown lettuce crop.
D. Thanks to growing environment, the space-grown lettuces don’t contain any harmful bacteria.
15. What does Massa mainly intend to explain in the last paragraph?
A. The difficulty in growing produce onboard.
B. The necessity to enlarge the space onboard.
C. The desire to enjoy cooked vegetables onboard.
D. The expectation to enrich the variety of produce grown onboard.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
What exactly does it mean to shop with a conscience (良知)? There are several factors to consider. Here are some basic rules for you to use the next time you shop. ____16____ or simply keep all of them in mind the next time you purchase a product.
Look for fair trade products. Fair trade, in its simplest form, is a movement to provide fair prices to producers of goods in developing countries, with the goal of reducing poverty, treating workers in an ethical (道德的) way, and promoting environmentally sustainable practices. ____17____ or coffee shop. When you purchase that coffee, you know that the farmers who produced the coffee beans — most likely in a remote part of a developing country — received a fair price for their crop.
____18____. Research the products and companies from which you typically purchase. One way is to look up their corporate social responsibility(CSR) programs online, which can tell you how devoted the company is to being responsible and accountable for social and environmental issues. ____19____.
Create a plan. It can be hard to think about making many changes all at once. You don’t have to throw out everything in your cupboard of cleaning supplies if you are concerned about environmental effects. ____20____. Step by step, these small decisions will become more of a habit over time.
If you keep practicing the tips, you are making our world a better place.
A. Purchase fair trade coffee
B. Consider the environmental impact
C. You can pick one and start from there
D. You’ve probably seen fair trade coffee in your local grocery store
E. If one doesn’t exist or is extremely hard to find, that is your first red flag
F. Start the businesses that have the awareness of protecting the environment
G. Rather, as you run out of a product, replace it with a more eco-friendly version
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I was 23 and had just started a new job in a large, Midwestern city. I had to take the ____21____ bus to and from work. One day after work a little old lady boarded, ____22____ a huge shopping bag. Nobody offered her a seat except me.
One week later an ice storm hit. After work on my way to the bus stop I ____23____ on some ice and badly injured my ankle and knee. My ____24____was evident but nobody offered me a seat except that ____25____ old lady. This time she had a wooden cane(手杖). I was extremely ____26____—there was no way I could have stayed on my ____27____ for the 30-minute ride home.
When my ____28____ came, she gave me her cane and got off with me. I was shocked! This ____29____woman helped me get to my _____30_____ and asked for first aid supplies. While _____31_____ my injuries, she told me her friends called her Miss Gladys, a registered nurse, and that she was 93.
While waiting for a friend to take me to the clinic, she and I sat around and talked. She was bright, funny, and energetic. I _____32_____ had her cane in my hands when my friend _____33_____. I handed it back to her but she said _____34_____, “You keep it. I have more.”
This happened 20 years ago. Now, I still _____35_____ the meaningful cane.
21. A. yellow B. crowded C. dangerous D. quiet
22. A. returning B. spotting C. dropping D. carrying
23. A. stood B. walked C. slipped D. drove
24. A. cold B. hunger C. tiredness D. pain
25. A. same B. new C. extra D. confident
26. A. proud B. grateful C. modest D. thoughtful
27. A. seat B. bag C. feet D. cane
28. A. stop B. bus C. suitcase D. ticket
29. A. sick B. rich C. unsocial D. ancient
30. A. office B. apartment C. table D. car
31. A. referring to B. searching for C. turning over D. dressing up
32. A. still B. just C. even D. also
33. A. called B. arrived C. finished D. continued
34. A. indirectly B. secretly C. firmly D. temporarily
35. A. seek B. support C. treasure D. share
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式
Recently, a new-style Chinese tea chain, Molly Tea, has attracted beverage (饮料) enthusiasts with ___36___ (it) latest creation, Yongchun Foshou. Made from the famous oolong tea of ___37___ same name from Yongchun county, Quanzhou, Fujian province, this new offering has quickly become a hit. Yet, it is ___38___ (mere) a highlight in a series of new brands, which have taken the tea market by storm.
Data from the food delivery platform Eleme reveals a ___39___ (significance) increase in demand. Longjing milk tea orders have quintupled (增五倍) since the start of April, 2024, compared to March, while deliveries of milk teas made from bases of rock tea (a type of oolong) and biluochun (a type of green tea) ___40___ (increase) rapidly over the past year, recording increases of 100 times and 34 times respectively.
Young consumers ___41___ are eager to try new things are really getting into new Chinese-style tea drinks and desserts. Even though they’ve been enjoying milk tea and fruit tea, their interest ___42___ traditional Chinese tea keeps growing.
As young people aged 18 to 30 gradually became the main drinkers of the beverage and younger consumers prefer products ___43___ (produce) innovatively with Chinese elements such as with aspects of intangible cultural heritage, such trends as guochao (National tide) are gaining ___44___ (popular). Modern Chinese tea houses have emerged as a fresh socializing spot for the youth, ____45____ (signal) an upgrade (升级) of the drink’s consumption.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15 分)
46. 假如你是希望中学李华,负责本校英语周刊Agony Aunt Column。最近你收到一位名叫Tom的读者来信。他说自己较内向,有时还会因观点不和与同学发生争论,就交朋友一事他很苦恼。他希望Agony Aunt Column能给他一些建议。请你给Tom写一封回信,内容如下:
1.表示理解;
2.提出建议;
3.表达祝福。
注意: 1.词数 80 左右。 2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
Dear Tom,
I’m Agony Aunt
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Agony Aunt
第二节:读后续写(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
An Act of Neighborliness
The skies were dark. A strong wind was blowing hard, cutting my face like a sharp knife. Rain fell in big drops and thunder and lightning flashed across the skies. I shook with cold and fear as I walked home, through the streams of muddy water. Some people were rushing by, completely wet in the heavy rain.
Along the way, I saw some schoolchildren holding their heavy schoolbags tightly and rushing home, I also saw that some road repair work had been abandoned by workers. Obviously, the workers had left in a hurry because of the storm. There were few signs and it was hard to see what was on the road. There were pieces of wood and metal and it looked like a hole had been dug and hurriedly covered with boards.
I moved on but suddenly stopped as I heard some sounds. It sounded like children crying. I quickly turned back and went back to the place from where the sounds came. I was frightened! To my sadness, I found that two small children had fallen into the hole on the road. The boards had moved away with the force of the rushing water. I could hardly see the children as it was dark all around me. I told them that I was going to look for help. I knew the neighbors well, and they all shared a sense of neighborliness, willing to give a hand.
注意:
1. 续写词数应为100左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
I rushed to the nearest house, Mr. Lee’s, and told him about the problem.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Hearing of what had happened the children’s parents were in relief.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1—5 BBCCA 6—10 BCBAC 11—15BCAAA 16—20 BCBAC
三台县2024年秋高二半期教学质量调研测试
英语
本试卷满分150分,共8页,考试结束后,将答题卡交回。
注意事项:
1.答题前,考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写在答题卡上。
2.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂;非选择题必须使用0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔书写,字体工整、笔迹清楚。
3.请按照题号顺序在答题卡各题目的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效;在草稿纸、试卷上答题无效。
4.保持卡面清洁,不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱,不准使用涂改液、修正带、刮纸刀。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置,听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题,每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What’s David’s plan for tonight?
A. Visiting some relatives. B. Doing sports. C. Watching a tennis game.
2. How did the woman get home last night?
A. By train. B. By car. C. By bus.
3. Who is the woman most probably speaking to?
A. Her father. B. Her guest. C. Her husband.
4. When does the conversation take place?
A. On Saturday. B. On Friday. C. On Thursday.
5. What does the man like about the movie?
A. Its actors. B. Its funny plot. C. Its music.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间,每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6至7题
6. Why does the woman talk to the man?
A. To cancel their plan. B. To make an invitation. C. To ask for information.
7. What does the man decide to do this evening?
A. See a band show. B. Accompany his parents. C. Buy tickets online.
听第7段材料,回答第8至9题。
8. What do the speakers need money for?
A. A car. B. The summer camp. C. The soccer team.
9. How will the woman make money?
A. By washing cars. B. By working at a snack bar. C. By selling cold drinks
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. What are the speakers talking about?
A. Mount Huang. B. Mount Hua. C. Mount Tai.
11. What can we know about the man?
A. He stopped climbing halfway
B. He reached the top of the mountain.
C. He met many famous people.
12. What does the woman mean at the end of the conversation?
A. She doesn’t like climbing mountains
B. She has been to the mountain before.
C. She wants to climb the mountain, too.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. Why did old Peter look terribly sad?
A. He lost his job. B. His wife was dead. C. His daughter left him.
14. What does Dora do now?
A. She is a model. B. She is a doctor. C. She is a teacher.
15. What does the man think of Dora?
A. Selfish. B. Popular. C. Helpful.
16. Where did the woman meet Johnson for the first time?
A. In the hospital. B. At school. C. In the street.
听第10段材料,回普第17至20题。
17. What does the speaker do?
A. He is a professor. B. He is a businessman. C. He is an engineer.
18. What was the speaker’s major in college?
A. Business. B. Marketing. C. Computer science.
19. Where did the speaker get the idea of starting his career in AI?
A. From Apple’s Siri. B. From his teacher. C. From a famous scientist.
20. How do people feel about the development of AI according to the speaker?
A. Worried. B. Unconcerned. C. Glad.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. B 2. C 3. D
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. C 5. B 6. D 7. D
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. A 9. C 10. B 11. A
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. A 13. C 14. B 15. D
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. D 18. B 19. E 20. G
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. D 23. C 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. B 31. D 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. C
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. its
37. the 38. merely
39. significant
40. have increased##have been increasing
41. who##that
42. in 43. produced
44. popularity
45 signaling
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15 分)
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Tom,
I’m Agony Aunt and I’ve just received your letter. There are quantities of readers facing the same issue, so I deeply understand your depression and concern. With effective solutions waiting for you, you can have a sigh of relief now.
Firstly, as a reserved person, it is suggested that you engage yourself in sports, such as football, where your skills and team spirit are more important and impressive than words, then friends come naturally. Secondly, keep in mind that different people have different preferences and points of view. Sometimes you just need to keep silent, listen and compromise. Whatever way you choose, remember argument will never destroy true friendships.
I sincerely hope you will soon go through the uncomfortable time. May true friends be around you.
Yours,
Agony Aunt
第二节:读后续写(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】Para 1:
I rushed to the nearest house, Mr. Lee’s, and told him about the problem. He readily said that he would get a torch and some rope. He also called his good friends to come along with him. A few other neighbors also quickly joined the rescue party and together went to the road. They managed to get the children out of the watery hole safely. The children were scared silly and they shook all over with cold, daring not to make a movement.
Para 2:
Hearing of what had happened, the children’s parents were in relief. They were very grateful to the neighbors who had helped to rescue the children and thanked them repeatedly. A flood of happiness welled up in me because I had been part of this act of neighborliness. It was a wonderful moment, one I would never forget. The neighbors had been great. They had helped people in need without hesitation. Bathed in much warmth, I headed for home.
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