辽宁省朝阳市重点中学2024-2025学年高一上学期11月期中联考英语试题

null 高一年级期中考试 英 语 试 题 考生注意： 1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4.本卷命题范围：人教版必修第一册。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a hotel. B. In a shop. C. In a restaurant. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 How many classes does the woman have today? A. Five. B. Four. C. Three. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 Why is the woman in a hurry? A. She is heading for school. B. She wants to fetch a book. C. She has to pick up the man. 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What did the man do last night? A. He went to a school. B. He saw a film on TV. C. He talked with his friend. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 When should the man pick up the woman? A. At six. B. At seven. C. At eight. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 6. Who will teach English? A. The woman. B. The man. C. Their teacher. 7. What will the speakers do with the program this Sunday? A. Carry it out. B. Discuss it. C. Give it up. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 8. What is the best thing for the woman in the Ski Club? A. Meeting new friends. B. Improving skiing skills. C. Planning skiing trips. 9. What does the man agree to do with the woman? A. Listen to some music. B. Go skiing. C. Attend the Ski Club meeting. 10. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Close friends. B. Teacher and student. C. Coach and player. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. What are the speakers? A. Students. B. Teachers. C. Tour guides. 12. How do the kids treat the boy from Brazil? A. Kindly. B. Impolitely. C. Badly. 13. How does the woman feel about the results of her work? A. Hopeless. B. Pleased. C. Angry. 听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 14. Who called Jenny Jenkins this morning? A. Bill Burton. B. Jenny Jenkins’ secretary. C. Bill Burton’s secretary. 15. Why did the man call the woman? A. To say sorry. B. To invite her out. C. To change the meeting time. 16. What can we know about the woman next Monday? A. She will be busy. B. She will call the man. C. She will book a ticket. 17. When will the speakers meet? A. Next Thursday. B. Next Tuesday. C. Next Monday. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 18. Where is Amsterdam Airport Schiphol located? A. In the north of the city centre. B. In the southeast of the city centre. C. In the southwest of the city centre. 19. Why is it a bad idea to drive a car to the city centre? A. It’s expensive. B. It’s boring. C. It’s difficult to park. 20. Where do most visitors begin their Amsterdam adventure? A. In the Museum Quarter. B. In the Old Centre. C. At the Amsterdam Airport. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Four Best Online English Courses Udemy: English for Beginners This 77-hour course is among the bestselling courses. The design based on real need makes it easy to adapt to even the busiest schedules. It opens to students with no knowledge of the language. Learners will become good enough to speak clearly and confidently and understand the language well enough to follow movies and TV. Price: $109 Time to complete: 20 weeks Coursera: English for Career Development Coursera is supported by the US Department of State’s Bureau of Educational and Cultural Affairs’ office of English learning. Coursera teaches English for business skills like job searching, resumes and interviewing. Learners can start at any time. Price: $100 Time to complete: 40 weeks Alison: English for Career Development This self-paced (自定进度的) course takes a unique approach to teaching business English. English language learners learn the basics of searching, applying, and interviewing for jobs in the United States. Though all parts of the course are free, certification costs $30 and is available only to those who receive 80 percent or higher on their assessments (认证). Price: Free Time to complete: Self-paced Perfectly Spoken: English for Daily Use This course helps non-locals with the kinds of English used on the street and on vacation. It covers common expressions, such as what to say when meeting and greeting people, and how to express feelings. The course includes the language used when traveling, ordering at a restaurant, and during the United Kingdom holidays. Price: $90 Time to complete: 36 weeks 21. How much should learners pay for Udemy? A. $30. B. $90. C. $100. D. $109. 22. What do Coursera and Alison have in common? A. They are free of charge. B. They must be finished in 40 weeks. C. They focus on business English. D. They are suitable for pupils. 23. Which course attracts non-locals who want to learn daily English? A. Perfectly Spoken. B. Coursera. C. Alison. D. Udemy. B By the time Joy Ryan, a US grandma, turned 85, she had never seen the ocean or mountains. For Joy, trips to the local fishing area with her husband were about the farthest place she had ever gone, even if she loved watching the Travel Channel. But one day Joy’s grandson, Brad Ryan, discovered that he and his grandma had a common interest in their love for traveling, when they began to visit the American great outdoors together. Brad said, “When I learned my grandma had never seen the great wildernesses of America—deserts, mountains and oceans, I thought there was something I needed to do.” It was after taking his grandma out of Ohio on a visit to the Great Smoky Mountains National Park that he came up with the idea of visiting all the 63 US national parks with her to create inspiring memories. Going to all the 63 US National Parks is a huge achievement even for a much younger adventurer (冒险家). Brad said his grandmother’s physical strength (体力) grew with their trips. For example, his grandma went water rafting (漂流) at 91, with class three rapids and when walking at the New River Gorge National Park in West Virginia, she broke the record by almost a decade! It wasn’t always like this, however. Joy was so wobbly (不稳的) on her first trip, challenged by her balance. A group of college students clapped their hands when she reached the top of a path they were following. Joy broke her age limitation (限制) and at the age of 93, she made history as the oldest living person to visit every US National Park. Joy believes it’s the mix of hopefulness, willpower, and the good health that gives her strength. 24 With whom did Joy Ryan visit all the 63 US national parks? A. Her grandson. B. Her husband. C. Her daughter. D. Her student. 25. What does Brad want to show by mentioning Joy Ryan’s water rafting at 91? A. She had a love for traveling. B Water rafting is dangerous for the old. C. There is no age limitation for water rafting. D. She had developed a strong body from traveling. 26. What is Joy Ryan’s challenge on her first trip? A. Her memory. B. Her balance. C. Her physical strength. D. Her sense of direction. 27. Which of the following can best describe Joy Ryan? A. Brave and hopeful. B. Humorous and outgoing. C. Hard-working and helpful. D. Thoughtful and self-confident. C It happens in every disaster (灾难): For those in need, people often donate (捐赠) things that turn out to be more of a trouble. Juanita Rilling remembers it happened in 1988 when she was a disaster expert trying to help people suffering from a hurricane (飓风) in Honduras. “One morning I received a call from one of our logistic operators (物流运营商), and he explained to me that there was a plane carrying medical supplies that needed to land,” says Rilling. “But the ground was full, with lots of donations that no one had required. The plane—full of needed supplies—had to find someplace else to go. And it ended up stopping everyone’s plans by about 48 hours, which is important time in a disaster.” Rilling now runs the Center for International Disaster Information, which is trying to make sure things like that don’t happen again. So when Superstorm Sandy hit, Rilling’s group started a project to encourage money donation. “Even a small donation can make a big difference and can quickly become exactly what people affected by a disaster need most,” Rilling says. But despite this, donators do that over and over. About 60% of the things donated after a disaster couldn’t be used. Often it’s old clothing or food. Meghan Hara, who deals with kind donations for the American Red Cross, says she knows that some people are careful with giving money. And she doesn’t think that the need to give something concrete (实物) should be completely stopped. “Part of what people are doing is that they’re helping, and they’re trying to help. What we need to work out is how to effectively deal with that,” Hara says. 28. What caused needed supplies to be put off after the hurricane in 1988? A. Workers on the plane. B. A weather report. C. Useless donations on the ground. D. The call from the operator. 29. What did Rilling’s group suggest donating when Superstorm Sandy hit? A. Clothing. B. Money. C. Medicine. D. Food. 30. What is Meghan Hara’s attitude towards donating concrete things? A. Supportive. B. Doubtful. C. Uncaring. D. Worried. 31. What might the author continue talking about? A Studies on natural disasters. B. The benefits of helping others. C. Tips on choosing useful donations. D. The ways of managing people’s donations. D Ritz has been teaching for nearly 10 years in a high school where the early graduation rate of the students was just 17%. He discovered a way to connect and intrigue these students, especially the ones who seemed the hardest to reach. Once, he received a package of flower bulbs (球茎) which he mistakenly thought were onions. He was afraid that they might become weapons (武器) in a classroom fight, so he hid them behind a radiator (暖气片) and forgot about them. Six weeks later, an angry girl ran after a boy who always made troubles. As usual, Ritz rushed towards them to break up what he thought was about to become a disaster. He saw the boy reach towards the radiator and thought he might have hidden a weapon there. To his surprise, the boy suddenly pulled out a bunch of yellow flowers and gave them to the girl as a peace offering. The girl decided to take the flowers home to her mother and peace came back. The forgotten bulbs were actually daffodils (黄水仙). The steam from the radiator had forced them into flowers. From such an experience, Ritz realized that if there was power in plants to stop a classroom fight, there must be power in plants to change students’ lives. He turned the moment of growing plants into a green course, a movement that would change his life and the lives of his students. He designed vegetable gardens into part of the school ground and on top of a building. Ritz’s students now have near-perfect attendance and graduation rates. His efforts have led him to be a great teacher who uses the power of a plant to give a voice to children. 32. What does the underlined word “intrigue” mean in paragraph 1? A. Interest. B. Protect. C. Punish. D. Challenge. 33. What stopped the fight between the boy and the girl? A. The radiator. B. A tasty dish. C. Some yellow flowers. D. The teacher’s words. 34. How are Ritz’s students affected by his green course? A. They have low attendance. B. They become the hardest to reach. C. They know how to make weapons. D. They fall in love with learning. 35. What is the best title for the text? A. What a Classroom Needs for a Fight B. Why a Plant Has an Effect on Students C. How a Teacher Changes His Students D. How a Teacher Becomes Popular 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 There are ways to make friends online while also keeping yourself protected. These are the top tips that you can follow to ensure this. Choose the right apps ___36___. However not all these apps are good. How can you tell the good apps from the bad ones? You should choose apps that only legal members can join. This will largely increase your chances of being safe with your new friends. ___37___ Don’t wait too long to figure out who your friend really is. If you find this person interesting and would like to continue chatting with him, you need to do a little background research. Trust your feeling This may seem like a rather old-fashioned idea but it is important. ___38___, make it a point to trust what that little voice is telling you. If you have been speaking to someone for a while and you feel uncomfortable, there is probably a reason for that. ___39___. Meet your “friend” in a public place You can't completely trust someone that you haven't actually met before. If you do decide that it is time to meet each other, then you should set up the place at a busy restaurant or coffee shop. ___40___, even if you have met. Try to avoid going to an unfamiliar place. A. Do some research B. Shorten your personal information C. When you are chatting with someone D. You should continue to remain in public areas E. There are many apps for you to look for friendship F. In such a situation, it is best for you to cut off all the contact with that person G. You should also be careful with the type of questions your online friends ask 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 In August 2022, I had my very first travel experience in the heart of nature. Although I was already well into adulthood and an experienced ____41____, I’d never spent much time in ____42____. A group of friends invited me to go hiking in the Canadian Rockies, and I ____43____. I had never joined in ____44____ in my life so at first I didn’t look forward to the ____45____, and as a self-described “city girl,” the ____46____ of vacationing in the middle of nowhere without cell service or WiFi was ____47____. But the minute we ____48____ Jasper National Park, I fell in love. The wide open spaces, beautiful views and sounds of nature ____49____ me. For the first time in a long time, I felt _____50_____ free. All that fresh air and walking was just what I wanted in my life. Back home, explaining my experience to my friends and family was _____51_____. My words failed me at first. After I _____52_____, I talked to my sister about the trip. Growing up, we shared many firsts: our first concert without parents, our first heartbreaks and so on. We shared such a _____53_____ relationship that I wished her to _____54_____ nature in the same way as I had. Experiencing nature for the first time _____55_____ a new world for me. 41. A. traveler B. reporter C. teacher D. guide 42. A. magazines B. nature C. discussion D. stories 43. A. recorded B. refused C. forgot D. accepted 44. A. running B. riding C. driving D. hiking 45. A. trip B. flight C. interview D. result 46. A. purpose B. time C. rule D. idea 47. A. exciting B. confusing C. terrible D. satisfying 48. A. left B. mentioned C. entered D. drew 49. A. troubled B. attracted C. directed D. changed 50. A. slightly B. thankfully C. completely D. gradually 51. A. challenging B. simple C. real D. imaginary 52 A. got up B. looked around C. came over D. calmed down 53. A. close B. strange C. far D. competitive 54. A. balance B. experience C. recommend D. treat 55. A. chose B. invented C. shaped D. connected 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The red panda, also called red cat-bear, has soft and thick fur with a red-brown stripe (条纹) from each eye to the corners of the mouth. Its body ____56____ (long) is about 50—65cm and its front legs are slightly ____57____ (short) than the back legs, which gives it a bit of a waddle (摇晃) when it walks. The red panda lives in an area ____58____ rocks and trees can be found. It seems to do most of its feeding on the ground. It is gentle and can easily ____59____ (keep) in the zoo. About two ____60____ (three) of the red panda’s diet is made up of bamboo. Red pandas do a lot of eating so providing plenty of food is important. There must be plenty of trees for them ____61____ (climb) and sleep too. The red panda can live together ____62____ (peace) with other pandas. Most of their activity happens at night, during sunrise or sunset. Now red pandas are ____63____ danger. Their main threat (威胁) is the disappearance of the forests and habitat loss. These ____64____ (animal) are also illegally hunted, and the number of them _____65_____ (drop) by 50% in the past forty years. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 66. 你刚参加了你校举办的秋季运动会。请为校英文报写篇报道，内容包括： 1.赛事介绍； 2.你的感受。 注意：1.写作词数应为80个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Our school hosted the fall sports meet on Monday morning. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节（满分25分） 67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 It was a beautiful day for sightseeing. We were a group of students just out for some fun. The weather was perfect for a picnic, so when lunch time came, we set our sights on a small park. Since we all had different things to buy, we decided to get what each of us wanted, and meet back on the grass in a few minutes. When my friend Joy headed for a hot dog shop, I decided to go with her. We watched the seller put together the perfect hot dog, just the way we wanted it. But when we took out our money to pay the bill, the seller surprised us. “You are the first customers to visit, and the first order is given to you for free,” he said. After we thanked him, we joined our friends in the park, and dug into our food. But as we talked and ate, I was distracted (分心) by a man sitting alone nearby, looking at us. I could tell that he hadn’t showered for days. Another homeless person, I thought, like all the others you see in cities. I didn’t pay much more attention than that. After we finished eating, we packed our lunch bags and prepared to throw them away. 注意：1.续写词数应为150左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Suddenly, a strong voice came from that homeless person. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Joy asked me to wait for her for a minute and ran to the hot dog shop. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 高一年级期中考试 英 语 试 题 考生注意： 1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。 3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 4.本卷命题范围：人教版必修第一册。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 【1题答案】 【答案】B 【2题答案】 【答案】C 【3题答案】 【答案】B 【4题答案】 【答案】C 【5题答案】 【答案】B 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 【6~7题答案】 【答案】6. B 7. A 【8~10题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. C 10. A 【11~13题答案】 【答案】11. B 12. A 13. B 【14~17题答案】 【答案】14. A 15. C 16. A 17. A 【18~20题答案】 【答案】18. C 19. C 20. B 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【21~23题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. C 23. A B 【24~27题答案】 【答案】24. A 25. D 26. B 27. A C 【28~31题答案】 【答案】28. C 29. B 30. A 31. D D 【32~35题答案】 【答案】32. A 33. C 34. D 35. C 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. E 37. A 38. C 39. F 40. D 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【41~55题答案】 【答案】41. A 42. B 43. D 44. D 45. A 46. D 47. C 48. C 49. B 50. C 51. A 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. C 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【56~65题答案】 【答案】56. length 57. shorter 58. where 59. be kept 60. thirds 61. to climb 62. peacefully 63. in 64. animals 65. has dropped 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【66题答案】 【答案】One possible version: Our school hosted the fall sports meet on Monday morning. The event had a variety of sports activities, including track and field, relay races, and team games. Participants from different grades competed against each other. The atmosphere was filled with cheers and encouragement from both the competitors and the audiences. Personally, I did enjoy participating in the sports event. It provided me with an opportunity to showcase my athletic abilities and compete alongside my classmates. It was also a great way to bond with my friends, promoting sportsmanship, teamwork, and a healthy lifestyle among us. 第二节（满分25分） 【67题答案】 【答案】Suddenly, a strong voice came from that homeless person. He said, “Excuse me, would you mind sparing a meal for a hungry soul?” His words struck a chord in my heart, reminding me of the privilege and abundance that I often take for granted. Feeling a mix of guilt and compassion, I turned to face him. As we talked, I discovered that he was once an accomplished musician, full of dreams and aspirations. It was disheartening to hear how circumstances had pushed him to this point of desperation. Joy asked me to wait for her for a minute and ran to the hot dog shop. She returned with an extra hot dog and a bottle of water in her hands. She handed them to the homeless man with a warm smile. His eyes sparkled with appreciation as he accepted the food. As I watched the exchange, a wave of realization washed over me. This encounter was more than just a random act of kindness; it was a reminder of the power we hold to make a difference in someone's life. I felt a renewed sense of empathy and the urge to do more. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$写作评分细则 第一节（满分 15 分） （一）评分原则 1.本题总分为 15 分，按 5 个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最 后给分。 3.词数少于 60 或多于 100 的，从总分中减去 2 分。 4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇 用法均可接受。 6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。 （二）各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档（13～15 分） ——完全完成试题规定的任务。 ——覆盖所有内容要点。 ——应用较多的语法结构和词汇。 ——语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 ——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 ——完全达到预期的写作目的。 第四档（10～12 分） ——完成试题规定的任务。 ——虽漏掉 1～2 个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 ——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 ——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致。 ——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 ——达到预期的写作目的。 第三档（7～9 分） ——基本完成试题规定的任务。 ——虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 ——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 ——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 ——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 ——整体而言，基本达到预期的写作目的。 第二档（4～6 分） ——未适当完成试题规定的任务。 ——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 ——语法结构单调，词汇有限。 ——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。 ——较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。 ——信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档（1～3 分） ——未完成试题规定的任务。 ——明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题的要求。 ——语法结构单调，词汇有限。 ——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。 ——缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 ——信息未能传达给读者。 0 分 ——未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判。 ——所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 第二节（满分 25 分） （一）评分原则 1.本题总分为 25 分，按 5 个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档 次，最后给分。 3.词数少于 120 的，酌情扣分；只写一段的原则上不超过 10 分。 4.评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑： （1）与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度； （2）内容的丰富性和关键信息的利用情况； （3）应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性； （4）上下文的连贯性。 5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及 词汇用法均可接受。 6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。 （二）各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档（21～25 分） ——与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接合理。 ——内容丰富，利用了文中的关键信息。 ——所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。 ——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。 第四档（16～20 分） ——与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接较为合理。 ——内容比较丰富，基本利用了文中的关键信息。 ——所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。 ——比较有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。 第三档（11～15 分） ——与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。 ——写出了若干有关内容，部分利用了文中的关键信息。 ——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。 ——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 第二档（6～10 分） ——与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。 ——写出了一些有关内容，较少利用文中的关键信息。 ——语法结构单调，词汇有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，且影响了意义的表达。 ——较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。 第一档（1～5 分） ——与所给短文和所提供的各段落开头语的衔接较差。 ——写出的内容较少，很少利用文中的关键信息。 ——语法结构单调，词汇很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。 ——缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。 0 分 ——未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。