2025届十五校教育集团鄂豫皖五十三校高三上学期8月联考英语试题

十五校教育集团·鄂豫皖五十三校2025届8月联考 英语 注意事项： 1.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、座位号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将考生号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置. 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑.如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号.回答非选择题时，用黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上对应的答题区域内.写在本试卷上无效. 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回. 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What programs does the woman prefer? A. Talk shows. B. Sports programs. C. Cooking programs. 2. What does the woman ask the man to do? A. Have dinner. B. Pick up a gift. C. Look at a piece of jewelry. 3. What does the man usually take with him on vacation? A. A suitcase. B. A backpack C. A sports bag. 4. How does the woman feel? A. Excited. B. Confused. C. Nervous. 5. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. A post. B. A candidate. C. A college. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What should the woman do first? A. See her family doctor. B. Make an appointment. C. Get a number ticket. 7. What is the man most probably? A. A receptionist. B. A patient. C. A doctor. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Where does the conversation take place? A. At a restaurant. B. At the train station. C. At a bus stop. 9. When will the man’s sister arrive? A. At 4:10. B. At 4:20. C. At 4:30. 10. How often does the No.1 bus run? A. Every 5 minutes. B. Every 10 minutes. C. Every 15 minutes. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. Why does the woman invite the man to the beach? A. To relax. B. To see a whale. C. To collect some plastic. 12. Who will deal with the garbage? A. The community. B. The government. C. A recycling company. 13. What is the woman like? A. Lazy. B. Emotional. C. Responsible. 听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。 14. Which is the woman’s favorite hobby? A. Doing exercise. B. Collecting recipes. C. Writing at home. 15. Why does the woman suggest cooking? A. It is good to do alone. B. It is a creative hobby. C. It helps avoid going to restaurants. 16. What does the man probably think of cooking? A. It’s hard to learn. B. It’s healthy to cook his own food. C It’s a fun thing to do with his family. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What is the purpose of this activity? A. To offer the locals leisure time. B. To train more volunteers. C. To promote rural travel. 18. What is provided in the activity? A. Tools. B. Supper. C. Trainers. 19. What will help people find the site? A. Experts’ direction. B. Arrow signs. C. The brochure. 20. What are necessary for people that are watching? A. Walking boots. B. Warm clothes. C. Gardening gloves. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题，每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Explore, Learn and Make Friends — Locally and Globally! Are you ready for a summer camp that’s fun and engaging and offers a variety of classes? You can dance, make music, act onstage and bring an artistic vision to life, dive into Marine Biology, design a robot or build an architectural model. It is all possible this summer. You can look forward to: ·Creating your own schedule from a wide variety of classes ·Being part of a culture of belonging and possibility ·Making connections with campers from around the world ·Refueling your body and mind with tasty eco-friendly lunches Visit Beautiful Seattle During the Summer! Enjoy the natural beauty of the Seattle region and have fun integrating with campers from Seattle during the day. It’s a great way to improve your English while making new friends and learning new things. 2024 Tuition & Fees per Session (Lunch Included) ·Half day: $600 ·Full day: $1075 ·Full day + boarding:$2600 Registration Registration begins February 12,2024 on a first-come, first-served basis. A $100, nonrefundable deposit, per session, per camper, holds your registration. Full payment is due June 1,2023. Payment can be made via Credit Card, Bank Transfer or Money Order. Click here for more detailed information. 1. What is not the feature of the summer camp? A. Choose to study anthropology in summer camp. B. Improve cross-cultural communication skills. C. Improve aesthetic ability and engineering literacy. D. Enjoy delicious and environmentally-friendly food. 2. How much do two full-day campers without boarding have to pay? A. $1,075 B. $1,200 C. $2,150 D. $2,350 3. What can be inferred from the text? A. Campers can admire the scenery and culture of various regions of the US. B. Summer camp registration has a fixed payment method. C. Readers could find the text in a travel and vacation magazine. D. Campers have access to a cultural power of possibility. B Aleksey Vasiliev is a photographer based in the remote Russian region of Yakutia, a freezing place where temperatures can get as low as -58 degrees Fahrenheit(-50 degrees Celsius).He is known for capturing the daily lives of Yakutians, and his photos are both fascinating and a little eerie. In a recent interview with us, the photographer admitted that he used to be an alcoholic in the past, and when he finally decided to stop drinking, he needed something to fill the void that quitting left. That’s when he got into photography. Aleksey says that he’s inspired by Yakutia, even though he used to dream of traveling the world. “Yakutia seemed to me like a hole, an icy desert” said the photographer. Until 2018, photography was nothing more than a hobby for Aleksey. But then he won a grant and went on to study documentary photography at the DocDocDoc photography school in St. Petersburg. The photographer explained that Yakutia has long and freezing winters, where the temperatures can drop all the way down to -50 or even -60 degrees Celsius (-58 Fahrenheit to -76 Fahrenheit). “This winter was really cold, so we had to live in -60 Celsius for a while,” said Aleksey. “If it were not for the daily need to go out, people would prefer to stay at home all the time, drink hot tea and wait for spring. In winter, life practically stops, a dense fog during severe frosts obscures the sunlight for several weeks or months.” However, even despite that, Aleksey welcomes people to visit Yakutia: “You will never forget this trip in your life. I promise you.” 4. What does the underlined word “void” in paragraph 2 refer to? A. Gap. B. Form. C. Emptiness. D. Anger. 5. What do we know about Aleksey Vasiliev? A. He has been an alcoholic in Russian region of Yakutia. B. He travelled to an icy desert named Yakutia. C. He began to take photography as a hobby in 2018. D. He took up photography thanks to the inspiration from Yakutia. 6. What can we learn about Yakutia? A. People there tend to stay at home unless they want daily necessities. B. The temperature ranges from -50 Fahrenheit to -60 Fahrenheit. C. The life there runs smoothly all year round. D. The sunlight time in winter remains long. 7. What words can best describe Aleksey Vasiliev? A. Mean and alcoholic. B. Brave and enthusiastic. C. Honest and modest. D. Kind and emotional. C It’s one of Hollywood’s favorite bits of pseudoscience (伪科学): human beings use only 10percent of their brain, and awakening the remaining 90 percent — supposedly dormant — allows otherwise ordinary human beings to display extraordinary mental abilities. How do we know? For one thing, if we needed only 10 percent of our brain, the majority of brain injuries would have no discernible (明显) consequences, since the damage would affect parts of the brain that weren’t doing anything to begin with. We also know that natural selection discourages the development of useless structures: early humans who devoted scarce physical resources to growing and maintaining huge amounts of excess brain tissue would have been outcompeted by those who spent those precious resources on things more necessary for survival and reproductive success. Tougher immune systems, stronger muscles, better looking hair —just about anything would be more useful than having a head full of lazy tissue. We’ve been able to back up these logical conclusions with hard evidence. Imaging techniques allow doctors and scientists to map brain activity in real time. The data clearly shows that large areas of the brain — far more than 10 percent — are used for all sorts of activity, easy or complex. Scientists have yet to find an area of the brain that doesn’t do anything. So how did we come to believe that 90 percent of our brain is useless? The myth (错误看法) is often incorrectly attributed to 19th-century psychologist William James, who proposed that most of our mental potential goes untapped. But he never specified a percentage. In reality, the concept most likely came from the American self-help industry. One of the earliest mentions appears in the preface to Dale Carnegie’s 1936mega best seller, How to Win Friends and Influence People. Obviously, this is bad news for anyone hoping to find the secret to becoming a genius overnight. The good news, though, is that hard work still works. There is plenty of reason to believe that you can build brainpower by regularly working at challenging mental tasks, such as playing a musical instrument, doing arithmetic, or reading a novel. 8. What does the underlined word in the first paragraph probably mean? A. Inactive. B. Dead. C. Dynamic. D. Sleepy. 9. How does the second paragraph doubt the idea that human beings use only 10 percent of their brain? A. By raising a question. B. By making comparisons. C. By listing figures. D. By giving real examples. 10. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the last three paragraphs? A. Completing hard tasks enables to improve the brainpower. B. Almost every area of the brain is used more or less. C. The pseudoscience was created and spread by psychologist William James. D. Imaging techniques help to reveal how many areas are used for different activities. 11. Which is the best title of the passage? A. How should we make good use of our brain? B. Do we really use only 10 percent of our brain? C. Can making good use of our brain help us be a genius overnight? D. Do we really need to use every area of our brain in daily lives? D In a trailblazing new study, researchers have discovered bottled water sold in stores can contain 10 to 100 times more bits of plastic than previously estimated—nanoparticles (纳米塑料) are so tiny that they cannot be seen under a microscope. At 1,000th the average width of a human hair, nanoplastics are so teeny they can migrate through the tissues of the digestive tract or lungs into the bloodstream, distributing potentially harmful synthetic chemicals throughout the body and into cells, experts say. One liter of water—the equivalent of two standard-size bottled waters—contained an average of 240,000 plastic particles from seven types of plastics, of which 90% were identified as nanoplastics and the rest were microplastics, according to the new study. Microplastics are polymer fragments that can range from less than 0.2 inch(5millimeters)down to1/25,000th of an inch(1 micrometer). Anything smaller is a nanoplastic that must be measured in billionths of a meter. In the new study, published Monday in the journal Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences, researchers from Columbia University presented a new technology that can see, count and analyze the chemical structure of nanoparticles in bottled water. Instead of 300 per liter, the team behind the latest study found the actual number of plastic bits in three popular brands of water sold in the United States to be in between 110,000 and 370,000, if not higher. The innovative new techniques presented in the study open the door for further research to better understand the potential risks to human health, said Jane Houlihan, research director for Healthy Babies, Bright Futures, an alliance of nonprofits committed to reducing babies’ exposures to neurotoxic (毒害神经的) chemicals, who was not involved in the study. “Infants and young children may face the greatest risks, as their developing brains and bodies are often more vulnerable to impacts from toxic exposures.” said Houlihan in an email. Nanoplastics are the most worrisome type of plastic pollution for human health, experts say. That’s because the particles can invade individual cells and tissues in major organs, potentially interrupting cellular processes and depositing endocrine-disrupting (扰乱内分泌的) chemicals such as bisphenols, phthalates, flame retardants, per- and polyfluorinated substances, or PFAS, and heavy metals. There are things people can do to reduce their exposure to plastics, said Houlihan. “We can avoid consuming foods and beverages in plastic containers. We can wear clothing made from natural fabrics and buy consumer products made from natural materials,” Houlihan said. “We can simply take stock of the plastic in our daily lives and find alternatives whenever feasible.” 12. Where can nanoplastics be found in our body? A. The blood. B. The lung. C. The stomach. D. Almost everywhere. 13. What are the differences between nanoplastics and microplastics? A. Nanoplastics are harmful, while microplastics aren’t. B. Nanoplastics exist in bottled waters, while microplastics don’t. C. Nanoplastics can migrate through certain tissues, while microplastics can’t. D. Nanoplastics are much shorter than microplastics. 14. Why is Jane Houlihan’s statement mentioned? A. To add more background information for the new study. B. To make preparations for the following contents. C. To provide an objective evaluation for the significance of the new study. D. To encourage readers to consistently and enthusiastically focus on the new study. 15. What is the structure of the passage? A. Finding→Explanation and analysis→Solutions. B. Finding→Reasons and background→Solutions. C. Finding→Discussion and background→Conclusion. D. Finding→Discussion and reasons→Conclusion. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 What are the Physical Benefits of Exercise? Exercise is often thought of as activities that help a person lose weight or prevent weight gain. Having a body that is slimmer and trimmer is certainly one of the physical benefits of exercise, but there are many others. ____16____ Doing push-ups can help strengthen the upper body. Diet pills may help a man shed weight but they will not help him build or strengthen his muscles. The physical benefits of exercise are generally experienced simultaneously. ____17____ This benefit is not limited to males and the types of exercises that produce these results are not limited to weight lifting. Jogging can provide an aerobic (有氧的) workout. Exercise also strengthens bones, which becomes more important the older a person gets. Bones go through a natural process of breaking down and rebuilding. ____18____ Physical activity produces that stimulation and, therefore, helps decrease the likelihood of conditions such as osteoporosis. ____19____ Many people are concerned with looking older. Slowing and reversing the effects of aging are benefits of physical exercise. Cellulite (皮下脂肪团), for example, can make a young woman appear older than she is. ____20____Wrinkles are another sign of aging that can be reduced by exercise since physical activity tends to improve the condition of skin. A. Many people want to change or improve their bodies. B. Taking regular exercise can lead to higher energy and better condition of skin. C. Exercise has the ability to help a person change his body shape, and make him stronger. D. As people grow older, however, the rebuilding process reduces unless it is stimulated. E. The appearance of cellulite can be diminished with basic exercises such as walking or jogging. F. As we all know, exercise also reduces the negative physical effects which a person feels when she ages. G. These include strengthening the bones, strengthening the muscles, and reducing the effects of aging. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A new study by researchers from the Monell Chemical Senses Center found that the different ways we experience smells is in our DNA. Published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences, the study found that small ____21____ in just one olfactory(嗅觉的)receptor gene can affect how strong or pleasant an odor is for one person. Every person’s nose has about 400 different types of ____22____ sensor proteins, known as olfactory receptors. One smell can ____23____ several different of these receptors, and receptors can be activated by several different smells. The brain interprets these receptor activation patterns to ____24____ millions (maybe trillions) of different smells. “We still know very little about how olfactory receptors translate information from an odor molecule into the perception(感知)of an odor’s ____25____, intensity, and pleasantness,” said senior author Joel Mainland, Ph.D., an olfactory neurobiologist at Monell, in a news release. “By ____26____ how variation in an olfactory receptor gene changes odor perception, we can begin to understand the ____27____ of each receptor. This ____28____ will help us learn how the receptors work together so that we can decipher the olfactory code and digitize olfaction.” For the study, researchers asked 332 people to rate how they ____29____ the intensity and pleasantness of nearly 70 odors. Researchers also collected DNA _________30_________ from all the participants. They used genetic information to identify people who had broken _________31_________ of certain receptors and compared their odor reception to people who had normal versions of the same receptor. They wanted to find out if the same odor appeared more pleasant or not as _________32_________or both. Scientists were surprised to find that a change in a single gene could inspire _________33_________ in how people perceived the same smell. “Because most odors activate several receptors, many scientists thought that _________34_________ one receptor wouldn’t make a difference in how we perceive that odor. Instead, our work _________35_________ that is not the case and changes to a single receptor can make a big difference in how you perceive an odor.” said Mainland. 21. A. standards B. qualities C. competitors D. changes 22. A. detailed B. specialized C. polluted D. relieved 23. A. target B. appreciate C. activate D. monitor 24. A. identify B. ignore C. discipline D. interact 25. A. decision B. status C. success D. quality 26. A. choosing B. examining C. assessing D. studying 27. A. interest B. experience C. function D. launch 28. A. in turn B. on duty C. on sale D. in addition 29. A. received B. given C. brought D. perceived 30. A. strategies B. samples C. objects D. items 31. A. forms B. tails C. teams D. hands 32. A. active B. alert C. strong D. narrow 33. A. measures B. problems C. factors D. differences 34. A. creating B. losing C. getting D. offering 35. A. affects B. points C. shows D. predicts 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Unlike in America,____36____ the length of time spent in school usually stays constant ____37____ first grade through high school, the Chinese public school day, and study competition, increases as students grow ____38____(old). High school students in China get up early and arrive at school at 7:00 am, ____39____ (begin) their morning reading. Reading is followed with nine lessons, including English, Math, Biology, Physics, Chinese, Chemistry, Social Studies and Physical Education. Students have a busy day with just ____40____ short break at noon. After the end of their lessons at 5:30 pm, students need to go back to school for self-learning, when students take ____41____(quiz), finish homework and make preparations for new topics. During class, teachers work fast, focusing on the hardest part of the topics. Students have to prepare ____42____ (thorough) ahead of the class, with a basic understanding of theories and concepts. A deep understanding would be appreciated by the teacher. It seems to be a rule that students conquer the basics,____43____ teachers focus on mastery. Students need lots of practice on homework in order to get familiar with complex topics. This means the school day does not end when the students leave the teacher. Chinese students ____44____ (face) many difficulties, because of the complex development of Chinese society. This is the ____45____ (real) Chinese students must deal with. For all students believing in ourselves and believing in our future is the highest priority! 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 假设你是校学生会主席李华，为了帮助英国交换生（exchange student）更好地了解中国文化和培养本国学生的文化意识，学生会将举办一个“中国节”活动。请你根据以下提示，用英语写一份通知。内容包括： 1.时间地点； 2.活动内容。注意： 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯 ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 My niece Anna is a lovely girl with a gold heart. We live quite near to each other. She would join us on weekends or holidays and do some little things for people in need around us. Last summer, 12-year-old Anna was staying with us for a couple of days. She was remembering some acts of kindness that we did together when she was less than five years old. We talked about how much things have changed, and with the pandemic, how difficult it would be to do so many of those things, especially when it comes to strangers. The next day, I needed something for painting from the downtown area and happened to take Anna with me. It was a hot afternoon. Trees along the street stood still under the burning sun. People with or without masks passing by seemed bored or spiritless. We were walking on the street when we heard a beautiful male voice singing a very soulful song. We turned around to find a middle-aged man sitting on a street corner with his guitar, a bowl placed in front him. Cars raced by and some pedestrians just cast a look at him and continued their walk. Then, an old couple paused and seated themselves on a bench at a distance listening to his music. After finishing our shopping, we happened to sit at an outdoor dining restaurant across from him on the other side of the street. My niece was deeply touched by his singing. “Aunt, I love his singing so much, but how blue it sounds! It seems to be telling a sad story.” The girl said softly. There were even tears in her big eyes. Seeing how moved she was with his music, at the end of our meal, I bought a freshly made chicken leg. I put it in her hand with a ten-dollar bill and asked her to walk across the street and do what she wanted. “Really?” she hugged me, bright eyes sparkling with surprise and joy. 注意： 1.续写词数应为150左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 She headed over and as she approached, the man was just finishing a song. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Last weekend my niece and I were enjoying a live concert downtown when my niece let out a cry in excitement. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 十五校教育集团·鄂豫皖五十三校2025届8月联考 英语 注意事项： 1.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、座位号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将考生号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置. 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑.如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号.回答非选择题时，用黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上对应的答题区域内.写在本试卷上无效. 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回. 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What programs does the woman prefer? A. Talk shows. B. Sports programs. C. Cooking programs. 2. What does the woman ask the man to do? A. Have dinner. B. Pick up a gift. C. Look at a piece of jewelry. 3. What does the man usually take with him on vacation? A. A suitcase. B. A backpack C. A sports bag. 4 How does the woman feel? A. Excited. B. Confused. C. Nervous. 5. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. A post. B. A candidate. C. A college. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What should the woman do first? A. See her family doctor. B. Make an appointment. C. Get a number ticket. 7. What is the man most probably? A. A receptionist. B. A patient. C. A doctor. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Where does the conversation take place? A. At a restaurant. B. At the train station. C. At a bus stop. 9. When will the man’s sister arrive? A. At 4:10. B. At 4:20. C. At 4:30. 10. How often does the No.1 bus run? A. Every 5 minutes. B. Every 10 minutes. C. Every 15 minutes. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. Why does the woman invite the man to the beach? A. To relax. B. To see a whale. C. To collect some plastic. 12. Who will deal with the garbage? A. The community. B. The government. C. A recycling company. 13. What is the woman like? A. Lazy. B. Emotional. C. Responsible. 听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。 14. Which is the woman’s favorite hobby? A. Doing exercise. B. Collecting recipes. C. Writing at home. 15. Why does the woman suggest cooking? A. It is good to do alone. B. It is a creative hobby. C. It helps avoid going to restaurants. 16. What does the man probably think of cooking? A. It’s hard to learn. B. It’s healthy to cook his own food. C. It’s a fun thing to do with his family. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What is the purpose of this activity? A. To offer the locals leisure time. B. To train more volunteers. C. To promote rural travel. 18. What is provided in the activity? A Tools. B. Supper. C. Trainers. 19. What will help people find the site? A. Experts’ direction. B. Arrow signs. C. The brochure. 20. What are necessary for people that are watching? A. Walking boots. B. Warm clothes. C. Gardening gloves. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题，每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. A 2. C 3. D B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. C 5. D 6. A 7. B C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. A 9. B 10. C 11. B D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. D 13. D 14. C 15. A 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. G 17. C 18. D 19. F 20. E 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. C 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. where 37. from 38. older 39. beginning 40. a 41. quizzes 42. thoroughly 43. while 44. are facing 45. reality 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】Notice In order to make the exchange students have a better understanding of Chinese culture and develop everyone’s cultural awareness, the Students’ Union will organize a Chinese Festival on the afternoon of October 9th, which will be held in the school hall. Here are some relevant details about it. To begin with, various activities will be arranged to experience traditional Chinese culture, such as paper cutting, kung fu and Chinese calligraphy. What’s more, you will be welcome to enjoy the Peking Opera performed by our students. Wish you would like the activities and join us. The Students’ Union 第二节（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】She headed over and as she approached, the man was just finishing a song. Anna stood there for a moment, then stepped forward and gently placed the chicken leg and the ten-dollar bill in the bowl. The man looked up, surprise and gratitude in his eyes. “Thank you, little one,” he said with a smile. Anna returned the smile and said, “Your singing is wonderful. It made my day.” Then she turned and ran back to me, her face beaming. Last weekend my niece and I were enjoying a live concert downtown when my niece let out a cry in excitement. “Look, Aunt! It’s that man!” Following her gaze, I saw the same middle-aged man on the stage. His voice was as soulful as before. After the performance, Anna rushed to the stage. The man recognized her and gave her a big hug. “You were my inspiration, kid,” he said. Anna’s kindness that day had made a difference in his life. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $$