山东济南市历下区2026-2027学年上学期九年级英语阶段学情调研试题

九年级英语学情调研（2026.11） 本试卷共8页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五个句子，从每小题A、B、C中选出适当的应答语。每个句子听两遍。 1. A. That’s OK. B. Good morning! C. Nice to meet you, too. 2. A. Mr. Green. B. Five yuan. C. This weekend. 3. A. No problem. B. Enjoy yourself. C. See you. 4. A. Good idea! B. Last Sunday. C. It was windy. 5. A. I like dancing. B. Glad to hear that. C. It’s nice of you. 第二节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. What will the boy do first? A. Do homework. B. Play basketball. C. Clean the classroom. 7. When will the lecture begin? A. At 2:00. B. At 2:10. C. At 2:20. 8. Where will the speakers probably go? A. To the cinema. B. To the park. C. To the supermarket. 9. Why did Jack invent the smart cup? A. To help his friends. B. To show off his skill. C. To sell for money. 10. What do we know about Peter? A. He loves woodwork. B. He enjoys sports outside. C. He cares for animals. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. When did Wang Wei start running? A. At eight. B. At thirteen. C. At fifteen. 12. What does Wang Wei do to help him relax? A. Run. B. Swim. C. Ride. 13. Who encouraged Wang Wei when he met difficulties? A. His coach. B. His hero. C. His parents. 14. What does Wang Wei learn from Su Bingtian? A. Make good plans. B. Have a balanced diet. C. Never give up. 15. What advice does Wang Wei offer? A. Start simple. B. Train regularly. C. Stay interested. 第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16. Where did Jenny find the map? A. In the bedroom. B. In the garden. C. In the living room. 17. What did Jenny find behind the big tree? A. A box. B. A toy. C. A book. 18. Who wrote the note? A. Her Grandma. B. Her Grandpa. C. A strange boy. 19. Why did Jenny hide her favorite things? A. To buy new toys. B. To remember Grandma. C. To pass her childhood. 20. What is Jenny like? A. Quiet and lonely. B. Clever and funny. C. Curious and lucky. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A FORUM: HOW TO USE AI AI doesn’t have to be serious. One of the best ways to get comfortable with AI is to play with it. So what do students do with AI? We made a survey about it. Here are the results and some opinions: NUMBERS OF AI USERS Sandhya, an AI and education expert. Playing with AI is fun, but remember: the best ideas still come from yourself. Use AI wisely to make us better! Ellie McBee, 13, South Carolina 3 hours age Do you know Quick Draw? In this fun game, the AI tries to guess my funny drawings — even bad ones! I learned that AI “sees” things differently from us. It just finds rules in lots of data (数据). So AI is a cool tool for fun and learning, not magic. Tom Lee, 14, Canada 2 hours ago I tried to design my own game on Roblox. I used AI to make smart NPCs and they could make choices by themselves. It was so cool! My friends and I played it for hours every day. I started to wonder: is it just a game? Maren Altrup, 14, Kenya 1 hour ago I used an AI tool “Suno” to make music for a poem last week. I chose the topic “bright night sky” and picked soft piano music. The AI soon made a short and slow piece of music. I felt surprised and amazed that I could make music so easily. 21. What do most students use AI for? A. Painting. B. Music creation. C. Information. D. Chatting. 22. How does Sandhya advise students to use AI? A. In a polite way. B. In a wise way. C. In a direct way. D. In a rapid way. 23. What do Ellie McBee and Tom Lee think of AI? A. Magic. B. Cheap. C. Cool. D. Useless. 24. What information is NOT mentioned in this table? A. The address of the forum. B. The number of AI users. C. The suggestions from a teacher. D. The ages of the students. 25. Which section of a website does the forum probably taken from? A. Travel. B. Technology. C. Arts. D. Environment. B Mark, a middle-aged man, is a head officer in an international company. He owns nice houses and enough money, but he often feels upset about his life. He hopes to find answers to dealing with his worries. One day, tired from busy city life, Mark drove far to get away from his noisy world. He walked around in a peaceful village and saw an old farmer working patiently in his fields under the soft sunlight. Mark watched him for a long time. He thought to himself “What a relaxing scene!” So he went over to greet and talk with the farmer. After a while, he asked, “How do you stay so calm? I keep meeting all kinds of problems. Some I solve quickly, some I try hard but still cannot work out.” The old farmer smiled and pointed to his farm. “Look at my land. Different crops grow for different seasons. We can harvest (收获) corn in four months. However, wheat needs to go through a whole cold winter, and it takes almost eight months to get ripe. Some plants grow faster, while others need longer months of sun and rain. No matter how hard you push, you cannot make all crops be harvested at the same time.” He went on, “Some matters can be changed with our hard work. Some things need to wait for their own season. Even with great effort, certain things will not come early. We cannot force every good result to happen right away.” Mark listened carefully. He suddenly understood a valuable lesson. His whole opinion towards life’s problems began to change. He left the village with a lighter heart that day. He finally got peace of mind. 26. What makes Mark unhappy? A. Short of money. B. Full of worries. C. Lack of sleep. D. Tired of village life 27. What was the old man doing when Mark saw him? A. Selling farm crops. B. Working in fields. C. Talking to villagers. D. Picking summer wheat. 28. What’s the farmer’s opinion towards life? A. Work solves everything. B. Modern life is peaceful. C. Some things need to wait. D. Problems must be controlled. 29. How did Mark feel at the end of the story? A. Comforted. B. Worried. C. Surprised. D. Proud. 30. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. The Old Man’s Farm. B. A Mysterious Village. C. A Talk Between Two Friends. D. The True Meaning of Life. C ①Like every other machine, satellites do not last forever. Whether they observe the weather, measure greenhouse gases in the atmosphere (大气), or study the stars far from Earth, they will all grow old, wear out and die one day, just like old washing machines and vacuum cleaners. When a satellite’s time has finally come, how do people deal with it? In fact, there are two different ways, and the choice depends mainly on how high the satellite is flying. ②For satellites in lower orbits (轨道), engineers usually use the last bit of fuel to slow them down. As a result, they fall out of orbit and burn up in the atmosphere. For smaller satellites, this process is quite simple: the heat produced by air friction (空气阻力) burns them up completely as they rush toward Earth at thousands of miles per hour. ③However, bigger objects like space stations and large spacecraft may not burn up completely before reaching the ground. To solve this problem, operators carefully plan a safe final path for them so that any remaining debris (剩余碎片) falls into a remote area in the middle of the Pacific Ocean — the farthest place from human civilization. This special and lonely area has a special name: the Spacecraft Cemetery. ④What about satellites in very high orbits? For these, the situation is quite different. Slowing down enough to fall back to Earth takes a great deal of fuel, so it is actually cheaper and easier to push them farther into space instead. These satellites are sent into a “graveyard orbit,” about 200 miles beyond the farthest active satellites and 22,400 miles above Earth. ⑤So is that the end of it for these far-away satellites? For us, perhaps yes. However, these far-away satellites will stay in orbit for a very long time. Maybe one day in the near future, humans will need to send “space garbage (太空垃圾) trucks” to clean them up. Until then, at least, they are safely out of the way. 31. What decides the way people deal with useless satellites? A. Their size. B. Their function. C. Their working time. D. Their flying height. 32. What happens to large low-orbit satellites at last? A. They stay in orbit all the time. B. They are pushed into farther space. C. They fall into the Pacific Ocean. D. They burn up fully in the atmosphere. 33. What can we know from paragraph 4? A. Satellites in graveyard orbit still work well. B. Graveyard orbit is away from active satellites. C. High-orbit satellites need little fuel to go back. D. It costs less to bring high satellites back to Earth. 34. What’s the structure of the text? A. B. C. D. 35. What will people probably focus on in the near future? A. Inventing tools to clear space rubbish. B. Building new satellites for space research. C. Improving satellites to work much longer. D. Studying orbits for closer weather satellites. D About 20 years ago, British researcher Miles Richardson started the habit of taking daily walks to relax himself. At that time, he had to work long hours sitting at a desk, which made him tired both physically and mentally. These daily walks allowed him to get up and exercise, making him feel much better. During each walk, he carefully observed and recorded tiny natural changes, from newly budding flowers to slight shifts in local weather conditions. In the first year, he wrote over 50,000 words of notes, and the total number doubled by the end of the second year. This special experience had a deep influence on him and completely changed his relationship with nature, greatly improving his personal sense of well-being. Today, Richardson has become one of the world’s leading researchers on nature connectedness. This term refers to the emotional connection people build with nature, which is totally different from simply spending time outdoors. He strongly believes that the real secret of gaining benefits from nature is to actively keep an eye on the details around you, whether you are hiking in wild valleys or resting on a common park bench. In 2025, a study published in Nature Cities shows that just 15 minutes of outdoor time can bring huge positive changes. Nature helps people break away from daily stress and focus on the present moment, effectively reducing anxiety and raising positive emotions. After studying different green spaces, researchers found that urban forests produce the best effects, because they can shelter people from noisy and polluted urban environments. Richardson also created the “Three Good Things in Nature” plan. People are encouraged to record three beautiful natural sights every day, like singing birds, blowing wind and sweet flower scents. A week of such simple practice can improve mental health, and the positive effects can last for one month. People can also appreciate nature further by taking photos, writing journals or creating artworks. In fact, people can enjoy these benefits easily, as small green spaces are widely available near homes. Additionally, kids can also protect local green environment through small volunteer actions, making nature livelier and more beautiful. 36. Why did Miles Richardson start daily walks about 20 years ago? A. To look for sweet wild flowers. B. To relax himself from long-time work. C. To collect materials for his research. D. To test nature’s effect on people’s mood. 37. What does the underlined phrase “nature connectedness” in paragraph 3 probably mean? A. Skills to predict weather changes. B. Knowledge of different kinds of plants. C. Time spent on outdoor activities. D. Emotional link between man and nature. 38. What can we learn from the study published in Nature Cities? A. Valley hiking beats city park visits. B. Longer outdoor time brings better effects. C. Urban forests benefit people most. D. Green spaces help stop noise and pollution. 39. According to Richardson, what is the real key to benefiting from nature? A. Noticing small things around you. B. Keeping written records of nature. C. Spending outdoors as long as possible. D. Exploring wild places and city parks. 40. What is the writer’s purpose of writing the text? A. To show the value of being a volunteer. B. To describe Richardson’s study on nature. C. To encourage protection of urban forests. D. To introduce a way to improve mental health. 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Many students spend hours studying every day but hardly make progress. They put in plenty of time yet get little return. 41 They read textbooks and do exercises repeatedly without knowing what they really need to improve. But what if we can learn smarter instead of just harder? Smart learning with AI is changing students’ studies across China. One great advantage of smart learning is personalized education. It is not the same lesson for everyone. AI watches students’ progress in real time and changes learning tasks to fit different students’ levels and needs. 42 Students can spend more time on their weak points and learn at their own speed. They will not waste time practicing knowledge they have already mastered well. 43 AI systems can mark homework by themselves, examine mistakes and find what knowledge students have not mastered. This saves teachers much time on checking homework. Teachers can use the free time to give one-to-one help and prepare better lessons for the whole class. Besides, smart learning helps share good education resources. AI study rooms and smart devices are popular in cities and even countryside areas. It brings high-quality educational resources to faraway areas. This breaks the old uniform teaching model. Students in poor areas can also get useful learning support with technology. 44 However, smart learning has some risks. Some experts say too much use of AI may stop students thinking independently. Depending too much on AI may weaken students’ critical thinking and problem-solving skills. 45 The key is to treat AI as a helpful tool, not a replacement for our own thinking. Smart learning does not mean machines finish all the work for us. It means we use technology wisely to help every learner grow with confidence and clear goals. A. So why not start with what you can do? B. However, many still stick to old learning ways. C. AI can solve our learning problems in a short time. D. Smart learning also makes teaching more effective. E. As a result, learning becomes more focused and useful. F. For them, this new way opens a door to better learning chances. G. Such worries tell us we must keep a proper balance when we use AI. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5个小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 David: Hi, Cathy. I need to give a speech about a person I admire. 46 Cathy: Sure. Go ahead. David: Well, 47 Cathy: To start with, tell readers who this person is and why you admire him or her. David: Got it. What’s next? Cathy: Talk about his or her stories. You’d better write about their great experiences and achievements. David: OK. 48 Cathy: Of course. You can talk about your own feelings. That would be perfect. David: One more thing, I can’t memorize my speech well. Any advice? Cathy: 49 Then remember the key words. After all, nobody knows your speech except you. David: These tips are really useful. 50 Cathy: You’re welcome. Good luck! 46. A. Could you help me? B. Do you like reading? C. Why not write a report? D. Have you read the book? 47. A. where can I get books? B. how do I begin the speech? C. is the task difficult? D. who is your best friend? 48. A. Could I add my opinions? B. Where can I find him? C. Is the person famous? D. When can I hand it in? 49. A. There are 18 speakers in total. B. They eat well and sleep well. C. You must remember each word. D. Create a speech outline first. 50. A. That’s true! B. I’m kidding! C. Thanks a lot! D. Never mind! 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 James shook his money box again. Nothing came out. He carefully counted the coins 51 on the bed. All he had was 90! He wondered 52 he was going to get the rest of the money? All his friends had cool bicycles, and they often rode bikes to play together. It was hard to hang out with people when you were the only one 53 a bicycle. Watching his friends 54 happily, James really hoped he could have one of his own. He thought hard about what he could do to make more money. Then he realized there was only one way to get money: he had to earn it. That meant finding a(n) 55 . So he decided to ask his neighbour Mr Clay for 56 . “Well, you can 57 right here,” said Mr Clay. “You see, my windows need cleaning and my car needs washing.” That was how James began his part-time job. For the next three months he worked every day 58 finishing his homework. His jobs were 59 but sometimes difficult to deal with. For example, he walked dogs, cleared out cupboards and painted walls. 60 the work made him sore, he never gave up no matter how tired he felt. Finally, the day came when James counted his money 61 — $94. He 62 to the shop to pick up the bicycle he wanted. He rode home 63 , excited to show his new bicycle to his friends. It had taken a lot of 64 , but James knew that he valued his bicycle even more because he had bought it with his own money. He had achieved what he thought was 65 , and that feeling of success felt even better than the bicycle itself. 51. A. lying B. standing C. sleeping D. hiding 52. A. where B. how C. why D. what 53. A. for B. on C. without D. behind 54. A. sing B. jump C. learn D. ride 55. A. truth B. job C. bank D. excuse 56. A. advice B. protection C. freedom D. explanation 57. A. rest B. start C. leave D. sit 58. A. since B. after C. while D. until 59. A. common B. confusing C. wonderful D. uneasy 60. A. Because B. So C. But D. Although 61. A. soon B. already C. again D. once 62. A. flew B. rushed C. moved D. drove 63. A. proudly B. calmly C. quietly D. safely 64. A. effort B. risks C. courage D. chances 65. A. unimportant B. simple C. strange D. impossible 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Ni Zijie, a 19-year-old student from Hubei Land Resources Vocational College, has achieved surprising progress in fossil (化石) research. He studies land resources survey and management. For many years, he (66) ______ (look) for ancient life remains at building sites, road sides and river banks around China. Born in Guangzhou in 2006, Ni became interested in fossils (67) ______ he was in Grade Seven. A video documentary about the old world changed his thought. With no early professional help, he learned knowledge by (68) ______ (he). He bought simple tools and read papers online. (69) ______ his father’s support, he has travelled to 122 places in China and collected more than 7,000 fossil samples, weighing over 7 tons. He has found many valuable objects, such as dinosaur footprints. A special Bauhinia leaf fossil he found in Foshan is one of (70) ______ (important) fossils among all his discoveries. He worked together with experts to study it and (71) ______ (write) research articles about it. A national meeting in 2021 was his big turning point: He got advice from top experts and took part in research (72) ______ (task). Though he has rich practical experience, his weak English creates (73) ______ big challenge. He hopes (74) ______ (finish) more courses and then further his studies in the university. Now his school offers him a lot of support. To reach his goals, all his free time will (75) ______ (put) into his lifelong interest and future fossil research. He believes that his dream will come true one day. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节 情境运用（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76. A: Lin Na, how do you learn new English words? B: ________________________________________. 77. A: Chen Lei, why do you admire Yuan Longping the most? B: ________________________________________. 78. A: Hi, Rick. _________________________________? B: Yes, and my family will go together with me. 79. A: Sam, what have the villagers done to solve sandstorms? B: ________________________________________. 80. A: ________________________________________? B: In 1995. Since then, it has become an important railway station in China. 第二节 作文（满分25分） 假定你是校英语杂志社小记者李华。秋季运动会刚刚落幕，你拍摄了以下一组照片。请你根据照片内容，写一篇英文报道。 内容包括： 1．描述图片故事； 2．分享你的感悟。 注意： 1．词数100词左右； 2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3．不得出现真实人名、校名等相关信息。 参考词汇提示词：temporarily 临时地 standing water 积水 the long jump 跳远 An Unforgettable Sports Meeting ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 九年级英语学情调研（2026.11） 参考答案及评分意见 第1部分 听力 第1节 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. B 第2节 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. C 第3节 11. A 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. A 第4节 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. C 第2部分 阅读 第一节 21. C 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. B 26. B 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. D 31. D 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. A 36. B 37. D 38. C 39. A 40. D 第二节 41. B 42. E 43. D 44. F 45. G 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 46. A 47. B 48. A 49. D 50. C 第二节 51. A 52. B 53. C 54. D 55. B 56. A 57. B 58. B 59. A 60. D 61. C 62. B 63. A 64. A 65. D 第三节 66. has looked 67. when 68. himself 69. With 70. the most important 71. wrote 72. tasks 73. a 74. to finish 75. be put 第四部分 写作 第一节 76.I learn/study new English words/them by looking up (new) words in a dictionary. I learn/study new English words/them by using a dictionary. I use a dictionary to learn/study new English words. 77.Because Yuan Longping/he helped (to) reduce hunger (in the world). Because Yuan Longping/he reduced hunger (in the world). Because Yuan Longping/he fed more people (in the world). 78.Will you go (out) for a picnic/have a picnic/ have the picnic/have picnics? 79.The villagers/They have planted (many) trees to solve sandstorms. 80.When was Jinan Railway Station built? When did they/people build Jinan Railway Station? 凡符合情境和语意的答案，均按评分标准给分。 第四部分(写作) 第一节 评分标准： 本题共10分。第76—80小题，每小题2分。每个句子正确给2分；出现错误但关键信息正确给1分；关键信息错误给0分。 第二节 评分标准： （1）本题共25分。 （2）卷面书写潦草不工整，以致影响理解，可酌情扣1~2分。 （3）拼写错误酌情扣分（0.5~1分）。同样错误不重复计算。 （4）作文可分为五个等级： ①21~25分：短文覆盖所有内容要点，语句自然流畅，全文结构紧凑，语言丰富地道，书写清晰工整，字数符合要求，语法错误较少（1~3处），表现出较强的语言运用能力，完全达到预期写作目的。 ②16~20分：短文基本覆盖所有内容要点，语句较流畅，全文结构较紧凑，语言准确，书写工整，字数符合要求，语法错误较少（4~5处），表现出一定的语言运用能力，达到预期写作目的。 ③11~15分：短文覆盖主要内容，语句尚通顺，内容较连贯，书写较工整，语法错误较多，字数在80词左右，基本达到预期写作目的。 ④6~10分：短文漏掉一些内容要点，有些内容与主题无关，语句不够通顺，语法错误较多，影响了对写作内容的理解，书写一般，字数在40词以下，信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 ⑤5分以下：明显遗漏要点，写了一些无关的内容，偏离主题，语法结构或词汇方面的错误较多，词不达意，信息未能传达给读者。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $