上海市东华大学附属松江高级中学2026-2027学年高二上学期10月阶段学情调研英语试卷

东华附高2026学年第一学期10月阶段学情调研 高二英语 出卷人 高二英语组 审卷人 高二英语组 考试时间：120分钟 满分：140分 注意事项： 1. 答卷前考生务必将学校、自己的姓名、班级、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号，回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 I. Listening Comprehension (25’) Section A (10’) Directions: In Section A, you will hear ten short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard. 1. A. A student. B. A journalist. C. A policewoman. D. A waitress. 2. A. In Washington. B. In Shanghai. C. In Singapore. D. In Spain. 3 A. To a bookstore. B. To a furniture shop. C. To an art school. D. To a clothing store. 4. A. The man stayed up to prepare for the test. B. The man went back home late last night. C. The man didn’t study hard during the day. D. The man hired a tutor for Biology learning. 5. A She prefers to eat at home. B. She dislikes Japanese food. C. She wants to pay for the meal. D. She plans to order the food. 6. A. Go to the front of the line. B. Apologize to the woman. C. Accept the woman’s apology. D. Let the woman go ahead of him. 7. A. She can speak English very fast. B. She has no time to learn English. C. Her spoken English is still not good. D. Her memory for English expressions is good. 8. The speech was not worth listening to. B. The speaker didn’t speak loud enough. C. The speaker was too far away from him. D. The speech was too difficult to understand. 9. A. The strawberries are not fresh enough. B. Fruit is not allowed before lunch time. C. There are plenty of strawberries on the table. D. The strawberries will be served during lunch. 10. A. The man should take a seat in the front. B The man’s glasses are too weak. C. The man should wear his glasses in class. D. The man’s glasses are out of fashion. Section B (15’) Directions: In Section B, you will hear two short passages and one longer conversation, and you will be asked several questions on each of them. The passages and the conversation will be read twice, but the questions will be spoken only once. When you hear a question, read the four possible answers on your paper and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard. Questions 11 through 13 are based on the following passage. 11. A. The use of the leap year. B. The inventor of the leap year. C. The change of the leap year. D. The mystery of the leap year. 12. A. To celebrate the birth of Julius Caesar. B. To even out an astronomical year. C. To make the calendar match Earth’s orbit. D. To let the calendar become more unique. 13. A. A leap year is divisible by 100. B A leap year often seemed full of troubles. C. Every century year is a leap year. D. The latest century-year leap year was 2000. Questions 14 through 16 are based on the following passage. 14. A. The benefits of using paper bags. B. The issues of plastic alternatives. C. The process of making eco-friendly packing. D. The advantages of using glass bottles. 15. A. Boosted decomposition rates in nature. B. Lower cost and energy efficiency. C. Elevated material and production-expenses. D. Total absence of environmental impact. 16. A. They require much water to produce. B. They have lower energy footprint. C. They need no tree cutting for production. D. They break down in special facilities. Questions 17 through 20 are based on the following conversation. 17. A. The number of tourists on the island B. Renting bikes and motorbikes on the island. C. The popularity of the island with tourists. D. Different ways of getting around the island. 18. A. To exercise on her vacation. B. To teach her friends how to ride a bike. C. To practice her driving skills: D. To explore the island during her holiday. 19. A. An entire day. B. Half a day. C. Two hours. D. No time limit. 20. A. 12 years old. B. 14 years old. C. 16 years old. D. 18 years old. II. Grammar and Vocabulary (20’) Directions: After reading the passage below, fill in the blanks to make the passage coherent and grammatically correct. For the blanks with a given word, fill in each blank with the proper form of the given word; for the other blanks, use one word that best fits each blank. Finnish architect observes city’s shifting rhythms Almost every day, Finnish architect Jarmo Suominen rides his bike through Shanghai — not toward a destination, but into the city’s rhythm. He carries no map. Beneath clotheslines and tangled wires, he stops to observe and sketch. For Suominen, a professor at Tongji University, curiosity fuels both his work and life. His students call him Sou Sou, meaning “search” — a nickname ____1____ reflects his constant exploration. His bike rides are a form of engagement — a way to witness ____2____ people and places interact. “In Shanghai, you never know what you’ll find,” he told Shanghai Daily. “You turn down an alley (小巷子) and suddenly you’re in a hidden garden behind a dead-end. People create these little worlds. It’s amazing.” He values Shanghai’s “sensitive renewal,” a process ____3____ (drive) as much by residents as by government departments. “The street is ____4____ life happens,” he said. “The government might renovate facades (外立面), but inside, people make small, gradual upgrades. It’s not about replacing everything, but about letting people shape their future.” One of his favorite examples is a car repair shop near his home. “Every night, it transforms into a nightclub ____5____ talks, performances and movie screenings. It wasn’t designed to be one — it just became one.” For Suominen, the street is a canvas, always evolving with the people inhabiting it. A man playing saxophone in an alley or a chess game under sycamores (梧桐树) ____6____ (become), through his eyes, a sign of constant transformation. “The soul of a place,” he said, “isn’t in the architecture. It’s in the life around ____7____: the feeling that you’re welcome, ____8____you’re a stranger.” Suominen has filled more than 20 sketchbooks with these scenes, each ____9____ (reveal) the dynamic interplay between people and space. “In older neighborhoods, you see lives spilling into the streets — something unique to China, especially Shanghai,” he added. “In Finland, where the cold keeps people inside, you ____10____ hardly observe people’s values and habits in the same way.” Directions: Fill in each blank with a proper word chosen from the box. Each word can be used only once. Note that there is one word more than you need. A.addressing B. boundaries C. generative D. initially E. remove F. approved G. aboriginally H. released I. sample J. overtake K. traffic The exploration of vast space, the manipulation of genes for medical treatment, the growth of green technology, the advancement of AI… Science and technology know no ____11____. What wonders await in 2025? Space “____12____” this year will be no less busy than in 2024, with global space agencies pursuing ambitious goals. China launched its first mission of the year on Jan 7 with a Long March 3B rocket. The country’s 2025 plan also includes Shenzhou manned missions and Tianzhou cargo missions to the Tiangong space station, along with the Tianwen‑2 mission to ____13____ a near‑Earth asteroid. The US plans to conduct several lunar missions with companies like Intuitive Machines, and SpaceX’s Starship hopes to complete 25 test flights throughout the year. Additionally, a collaboration between China and the European Union will see the launch of the SMILE satellite to study the interaction between solar wind and Earth’s magnetic field, enhancing our understanding of the Sun‑Earth relationship. Genome editing, or gene editing, will continue to inspire enthusiasm in 2025. It comprises a group of technologies that allow scientists to add, ____14____ or alter genetic materials at particular locations on the long stretches of DNA of living beings, including humans. In this way, certain diseases, like cancer and diabetes, can be treated by ____15____ their root causes rather than relying on medication or surgery. One of the most popular tools is CRISPR, “genetic scissors” that won Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer Doudna the Nobel Prize in 2020. The first CRISPR treatment, Casgevy, was ____16____ in the UK and the US in 2023 for two blood disorders. Over 30 CRISPR trials were ongoing worldwide by October 2024, and more are expected this year. Last year was the hottest on record, highlighting the significance of green technology in 2025. One key green technology is carbon capture and storage (CCS), which involves separating CO₂ from other gases at emission sources before they are ____17____ into the atmosphere, and transporting the CO₂ to an underground location to be stored. CCS projects are now storing about 45 million tons of CO₂ yearly, roughly equal to the emissions of 10 million cars. In 2025, Norway will complete Europe’s first full‑scale CCS project, and the UK will invest around 160 billion yuan in similar projects. The growth of clean energy continues, with wind and solar power expected to ____18____ coal in electricity generation. Tech giants like Google and Microsoft are also turning to nuclear energy to power their AI data centers. Generative AI like ChatGPT brought major changes in 2024. In 2025, AI agents that can sense and make decisions independently will be a top technology trend, predicts the US firm Gartner. By 2028, these AI agents will likely be handling 15 percent of day‑to‑day work decisions, said the firm. Unlike ____19____ AI, which creates content based on prompts, agentic AI is proactive and solves complex problems on its own. AI agents _____20_____ will handle routine tasks like filling reports. Eventually, they will manage systems independently. For example, an app‑based agent can plan your vacation by booking flights, hotels and restaurants, remembering your preferences. III. Reading Comprehension (45’) Section A (15’) Directions: For each blank in the following passage there are four words or phrases marked A, B, C and D. Fill in each blank with the word or phrase that best fits the context. Taylor works full-time in the cleaning department while co-parenting his 10-year-old son. Ada, a cancer survivor, was enduring the miserable treatment. Mohammad was kicked out of prep school, then ____21____ for 100 days from high school for selling chocolate to his classmates. Emanuel was ____22____ a three-year sentence for armed robbery. These are not the profiles of students who get admitted to a classic university-run honors college. ____23____, they are enrolled at the Honors Living-Learning Community of Rutgers University-Newark, an institution where they and others with similarly ____24____ life stories are pushing the boundaries of what defines an honors college by emphasizing courage in overcoming life’s difficulties, rather than ____25____. Across the United States, the continuous drive for reputation has generated the ____26____ in the number of honors colleges. Nearly 900 schools, almost all being public universities and community colleges belong to the National Collegiate Honors Council. Among them, it is usually a brilliant idea for an institution to ____27____ applicants whose top-of-the-class high-school records and SAT scores would assure a renowned private university. The bait (诱饵) is the honors college, which promises the intimate feel of a small college within a(n) ____28____ state school. The students in these honors colleges, mostly white and middle-class, receive concierge treatment (礼宾待遇) with considerable scholarships, separate housing, special seminars, faculty mentors, research opportunities and first crack at courses in high demand. However, things are ____29____ at the Honors Living-Learning Community, which mainly enrolls black and Latino students–nearly twice as many as the total of black and Latino undergraduates in the rest of Rutgers-Newark’s programs. Their high-school grades and SAT scores are lower than the campus average. While academic skill ____30____ in determining who gets selected, the emphasis is on these students’ perseverance, their drive to learn and their passion for social justice. Every ____31____ of the honors program comes straight from the book on how to engage undergraduates ____32____, and minority students in particular. The students receive scholarships that cover their living expenses well as tuition. Without this _____33_____, most couldn’t enroll full-time, and evidence shows that part-time students are far less likely to graduate. A ____34____ number of community college graduates are admitted, which gives 18-year-olds, fresh out of high school, an opportunity to learn from peers with more life ____35____. 21. A. graduated B. abandoned C. prohibited D. suspended 22. A. reading B. serving C. passing D. escaping 23. A. Therefore B. Moreover C. Instead D. Similarly 24. A. faulty B. smooth C. meaningful D. interesting 25. A. social experience B. family backgrounds C. academic performance D. human relationships 26. A. pursuit B. explosion C. exploit D. progress 27. A. tempt B. enroll C. introduce D. cultivate 28. A. remote B. public C. packed D. outstanding 29. A. difficult B. different C. discouraging D. disturbing 30. A. differs B. ranges C. matters D. varies 31. A. student B. major C. component D. college 32. A. especially B. intensively C. generally D. particularly 33. A. passion B. aim C. aid D. initiative 34. A. stable B. certain C. random D. growing 35. A. expectancy B. tragedy C. experience D. passion Section B (22’) Directions: Read the following three passages. Each passage is followed by several questions or unfinished statements. For each of them there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that fits best according to the information given in the passage you have just read. (A) （B） Thank you for your interest in becoming a homeowner with Habitat. Habitat is committed to providing qualified households with the opportunity for affordable homeownership. We follow an equal policy of homebuyer selection and are accountable to mortgage (按揭贷款) lending laws. We manage the homeowner selection and approval process at the local level. Qualified homebuyers must be: In need of safe, affordable housing Applicants may be dealing with substandard housing that is poorly built, damaged, or inaccessible due to disabilities. Low-income or moderate-income Household income must not go over 60% of the area average income defined annually by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development. Able and willing to pay an affordable mortgage Habitat ensures that the monthly mortgage payments do not go beyond 30% of the homebuyer’s monthly income.  Willing to partner with Habitat Once selected, homebuyers must partner with Habitat throughout the process. This partnership includes performing “sweat equity”, such as conducting construction work on their home or another family’s home, clearing build sites to make way for new construction, writing thank-you cards to local donors and so on. The following is an overview of the homeownership process： Step 1 Step 2 Step 3 Step 4 Step 5 Step 6 Step 1: ... Step 2: ... Step 3: ... Step 4: ... Step 5: Homebuyers complete the paperwork for a mortgage, which ends with their signature. Step 6: Once all of the forms are signed and all of the construction is complete, it’s time to move in and celebrate! 36. The main purpose of Habitat is to ______. A. apply for bank loans for those in need of home B. build houses with the help of future homeowners C. offer houses to families with low or moderate income D. enable affordable homeownership for specific families 37. What can be learned from the passage? A. Low-wage workers may have little chance of being selected by Habitat. B. Homebuyers can partner with Habitat by performing construction work. C. Those who want to improve living conditions should become Habitat’s partners. D. That monthly mortgage payment takes 25% of the area average income is acceptable. 38. What is the correct order of the four missing steps in the process? ① Local Habitat staff and volunteers carefully review each family’s application packet and present their recommendations to the local board of directors. ② There are information sessions where potential homeowners can learn about their homeownership program, ask questions and make connections. ③ Habitat staff make a home visit to hear more about a potential future homeowner’s desire to partner with Habitat. ④ If a family feels Habitat’s homeownership program is the right fit for them, they apply locally during an open application period. A. ②④③① B. ②①④③ C. ①④③② D. ①②④③ (B) I’m a huge fan of the Pacific Northwest and its bright green forests, rough coastline, and beaches decorated with wood, but visiting a top national park in summer often brings the opposite of what I come for — being alone — as huge crowds try hard to park and take photos. So, my last visit to Olympic National Park was in mid-September. I ended up bathing in the peace and quiet of forest among ancient trees and staying close enough to nearby communities to feel safe. I thought that taking the jump from my comfortable hotel room in the park into the great outdoors was unpleasant at first. However, once I began walking slowly and aimlessly along the Hoh River Trail there and slowing down to observe beautiful sunlight and tiny mushrooms that looked like colorful umbrellas, I felt my breath deepen and my nervous system begin to relax for the first time in a long time. What I want to say is that just because the world seems obviously set up for twosomes doesn’t mean you have to let such a standard keep you from living your dreams right now. Solo travel has made me stronger and braver than I ever thought possible. It has opened up my worldview by throwing me out of my comfort zone again and again. When it comes to living conditions, the national park not only offers 15 campgrounds across its huge area, it’s also home to five other choices for guests who would prefer not to sleep alone inside a tent — the small national park houses. Although I enjoy being alone, I have to admit that one of the coolest things about these small houses is that they are there to strengthen connection among strangers, and as such, there is usually a big fireplace next to excellent armchairs and sofas where guests can move around and make small talks at night. In one small house called Lake Quinault, I talked with grey-haired seniors about the best old-growth forest walks and asked hotel workers about the Roosevelt Dining Room (so named after Franklin Delano Roosevelt, the president during 1933-1945, came to visit), right next door. 39. What made the author avoid visiting Olympic National Park in summer? A. The wish to stay close to communities. B. The likelihood to meet crowds of people. C. The quiet environment in an ancient forest. D. The rough coastlines and the woody beaches. 40. According to paragraph 2, the author thinks that traveling alone can ______. A. keep opening up her worldview B. slow her down in living her dreams C. stop her leaving her comfortable zone D. give her a chance to stay in hotel rooms 41. What can we learn from the last paragraph? A. Seniors in Lake Quinault are the best forest walkers there. B. The park offers five completely different places to stay in. C. Big fireplaces in houses are meant to strengthen connection. D. The author stayed in a house next door to a famous president. 42. The passage is mainly about ______. A. the author’s love for the Pacific Northwest B. the author’s solo trip to Olympic National Park C. the greatest tourist attractions in Olympic National Park D. the brief comparison between group travel and solo ones (C) Life places us in a complex web of relationships with other people. Our humanness arises out of these relationships in the course of social interaction. Moreover, our humanness must be sustained through social interaction — and fairly constantly so. When an association continues long enough for two people to become linked together by a relatively stable set of expectations, it is called a relationship. People are bound within relationships by two types of bonds: expressive ties and instrumental ties. Expressive ties are social links formed when we emotionally invest ourselves in and commit ourselves to other people. Through association with people who are meaningful to us, we achieve a sense of security, love, acceptance, companionship, and personal worth. Instrumental ties are social links formed when we cooperate with other people to achieve some goal. Occasionally, this may mean working with instead of against competitors. More often, we simply cooperate with others to reach some end without endowing the relationship with any larger significance. Sociologists have built on the distinction between expressive and instrumental ties to distinguish between two types of groups: primary and secondary. A primary group involves two or more people who enjoy a direct, intimate, cohesive relationship with one another. Expressive ties predominate in primary groups; we view the people as ends in themselves and valuable in their own right. A secondary group entails two or more people who are involved in an impersonal relationship and have come together for a specific, practical purpose. Instrumental ties predominate in secondary groups; we perceive people as means to ends rather than as ends in their own right. Sometimes primary group relationships evolve out of secondary group relationships. This happens in many work settings. People on the job often develop close relationships with coworkers as they come to share gripes, jokes, gossip, and satisfactions. 43. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of a relationship? A. It is a structure of associations with many people. B. It should be studied in the course of a social interaction. C. It places great demands on people. D. It develops gradually over time. 44. Which of the following can be inferred about instrumental ties from the author’s mention of working with competitors in paragraph 2? A. Instrumental ties can develop even in situations in which people would normally not cooperate. B. Instrumental ties require as much emotional investment as expressive ties. C. Instrumental ties involve security, love, and acceptance. D. Instrumental ties should be expected to be significant. 45. According to paragraph 3, what do sociologists see as the main difference between primary and secondary groups? A. Primary groups consist of people working together while secondary groups exist outside of work settings. B. In primary groups people are seen as means while in secondary groups people are seen as ends. C. Primary groups involve personal relationships while secondary groups are mainly practical in purpose. D. Primary groups are generally small while secondary groups often contain more than two people. 46. Which of the following can be inferred from the author’s claim in paragraph 3 that primary group relationships sometimes evolve out of secondary group relationships? A. Secondary group relationships begin by being primary group relationships. B. A secondary group relationship that is highly visible quickly becomes a primary group relationship. C. Sociologists believe that only primary group relationships are important to society. D. Even in secondary groups, frequent communication serves to bring people into close relationships. Section C (8’) Directions: Read the following passage. Fill in each blank with a proper sentence given in the box. Each sentence can be used only once. Note that there are two more sentences than you need. Class Clowns Please WANTED: smart, fit and unflappable (临危不乱的) applicants for humanity’s first mission to Mars. Must have: crazy wig, oversized boots and a big red nose. NASA plans to fly astronauts around the moon as part of its preparation for a crewed mission to Mars as early as 2033. A mission to Mars is no easy job. On average, the red planet is 140 million miles from Earth and the travel time one way is around eight months. The distance alone is expected to cause harm to their mental health. Astronauts must also face a time delay in communications of up to 20 minutes each way. ____47____ The crew are effectively on their own. Jeffery Johnson, an anthropologist at the University of Florida, is now working with NASA to explore whether class clowns are vital for the success of long space missions. Early results suggest they are. “ ____48____ ” said Johnson. “It’s vital that you have somebody who can help everyone get along, so that they can do their jobs and get there and back safely. It’s mission-critical.” Johnson spent four years studying overwintering crews in Antarctica. ____49____ One isolated salmon fisherman he observed endured a mock funeral and burial in the tundra. However, nobody ignored his important role in building bridges between researchers and contractors. Historically, the Norwegian explorer Roald Amundsen also appreciated the importance of the expedition clown. In 1910, he picked the large, cheerful chef Adolf Lindstrom for his attempt to reach the South Pole, knowing that Lindstrom’s joie de vivre (生活的乐趣) would relieve the stress of homesickness and the long polar nights. “He has offered greater and more valuable services to the Norwegian polar expedition than any other man,” Amundsen noted in his diary. Lindstrom was a great entertainer who helped keep up spirits and morale over the long winter. ____50____ But there is more to it than making people laugh. Being funny won’t be enough for someone to land the job, after all. A. Researchers have found that the success of a future mission to the red planet may depend on the ship having a class clown. B. He found that class clowns in the crew would not mind being joked about. C. In an emergency, there will be no time to call mission control. D. When you are living with others in a very small space for a long period of time, tensions are likely to grow. E. His role was informal, yet critical for maintaining group cohesion in the extreme environment. F. It is enough to make Neil Armstrong, the first astronaut to walk on the Moon, spin in his grave. 51. Directions: Read the following passage. Summarize the main idea and the main point(s) of the passage in no more than 60 words. Use your own words as far as possible. Cosmetic Surgeries Get Extreme Everyone goes through it: poking at the eye bags and the loose skin in the mirror. It’s part of the human condition to fear ageing, but among the 20 and 30 something, there seems to be a heightened anxiety around growing older, coupled with an increasingly casual attitude towards getting Botox (肉毒素，用于除皱）compared with previous generations. In 2022, 27% of US patients receiving Botox were 34 or younger, compared with 21% in 2015, according to the American Academy of Facial Plastic Surgery. The idea is to stop wrinkles before they start. So why are we so desperate to pretend we’re not growing older? For my generation, being perpetually online and scrolling through the lives of others must be a factor. It keeps us locked into a constant state of comparison. And in a time of economic uncertainty, millennials and gen Z are also unable to tick off traditional checkpoints of adulthood, so the idea that many alter their appearance to turn back the clock makes perfect sense to me. For women, our looks are aesthetic capital after all--and being beautiful can unlock social and professional success. But these treatments often don’t come with warnings; it’s up to the consumer to research potential pitfalls (陷阱). Botched (粗制滥造的)cosmetic procedures among young people are on the rise, with too many treatments taking place in unregulated beauty salons and carried out by unqualified practitioners. Last month, three women in the US contracted HIV from a cosmetic procedures intended for the skin, when an unlicensed New Mexico medical clinic reused needles that should have been disposed of, which caused understandable alarm worldwide. One friend who loves Botox said to me recently: “I can’t stay 28 for ever, but the aim is to look 28 forever.” I’m trying to reject the message that it’s wrong for women to look their true age. It can be hard to tune out the noise, but the alternative may mean a future damaged by self-doubt, expensive treatments or even regret. I think I’ll stick with the eye bags. _______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ V. Translation (15’) 52. 在我看来，和人类共同生活在地球上的动物，理应得到我们持续的关心与保护。（coexist）(汉译英) __________________________________________________________ 53. 常言道，学习本质上是一个反复试错的过程，因为任何真正的成功都无法不经反思就一蹴而就。（trial）(汉译英) __________________________________________________________ 54. 作为南非首任黑人总统，曼德拉毕生致力于推动南非的改革事业以及通过教育赋能弱势群体。（dedicate）(汉译英) __________________________________________________________ 55. 很多人想当然地认为，那些占用青少年课余时间的志愿活动，会对他们本该专注的学业造成无法弥补的干扰。（assume）(汉译英) __________________________________________________________ VI. Guided Writing (25’) 56. Directions: Write an English composition in 120—150 words according to the instructions given below in Chinese. 你是启明中学李华，学生会校报栏目正在讨论中学生做志愿者的现象：一部分同学认为做志愿服务浪费学习时间，另一部分同学认为收获很大。请你写信给学生会谈谈你的看法，信件内容包含： 1. 简述你对志愿服务的观点； 2. 阐述你的观点的理由。 ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 东华附高2026学年第一学期10月阶段学情调研 高二英语 出卷人 高二英语组 审卷人 高二英语组 考试时间：120分钟 满分：140分 注意事项： 1. 答卷前考生务必将学校、自己的姓名、班级、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号，回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 I. Listening Comprehension (25’) Section A (10’) Directions: In Section A, you will hear ten short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard. 1. A. A student. B. A journalist. C. A policewoman. D. A waitress. 2. A. In Washington. B. In Shanghai. C. In Singapore. D. In Spain. 3 A. To a bookstore. B. To a furniture shop. C. To an art school. D. To a clothing store. 4. A. The man stayed up to prepare for the test. B. The man went back home late last night. C. The man didn’t study hard during the day. D. The man hired a tutor for Biology learning. 5. A She prefers to eat at home. B. She dislikes Japanese food. C. She wants to pay for the meal. D. She plans to order the food. 6. A. Go to the front of the line. B. Apologize to the woman. C. Accept the woman’s apology. D. Let the woman go ahead of him. 7. A. She can speak English very fast. B. She has no time to learn English. C. Her spoken English is still not good. D. Her memory for English expressions is good. 8. The speech was not worth listening to. B. The speaker didn’t speak loud enough. C. The speaker was too far away from him. D. The speech was too difficult to understand. 9. A. The strawberries are not fresh enough. B. Fruit is not allowed before lunch time. C. There are plenty of strawberries on the table. D. The strawberries will be served during lunch. 10. A. The man should take a seat in the front. B The man’s glasses are too weak. C. The man should wear his glasses in class. D. The man’s glasses are out of fashion. Section B (15’) Directions: In Section B, you will hear two short passages and one longer conversation, and you will be asked several questions on each of them. The passages and the conversation will be read twice, but the questions will be spoken only once. When you hear a question, read the four possible answers on your paper and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard. Questions 11 through 13 are based on the following passage. 11. A. The use of the leap year. B. The inventor of the leap year. C. The change of the leap year. D. The mystery of the leap year. 12. A. To celebrate the birth of Julius Caesar. B. To even out an astronomical year. C. To make the calendar match Earth’s orbit. D. To let the calendar become more unique. 13. A. A leap year is divisible by 100. B A leap year often seemed full of troubles. C. Every century year is a leap year. D. The latest century-year leap year was 2000. Questions 14 through 16 are based on the following passage. 14. A. The benefits of using paper bags. B. The issues of plastic alternatives. C. The process of making eco-friendly packing. D. The advantages of using glass bottles. 15. A. Boosted decomposition rates in nature. B. Lower cost and energy efficiency. C. Elevated material and production-expenses. D. Total absence of environmental impact. 16. A. They require much water to produce. B. They have lower energy footprint. C. They need no tree cutting for production. D. They break down in special facilities. Questions 17 through 20 are based on the following conversation. 17. A. The number of tourists on the island B. Renting bikes and motorbikes on the island. C. The popularity of the island with tourists. D. Different ways of getting around the island. 18. A. To exercise on her vacation. B. To teach her friends how to ride a bike. C. To practice her driving skills: D. To explore the island during her holiday. 19. A. An entire day. B. Half a day. C. Two hours. D. No time limit. 20. A. 12 years old. B. 14 years old. C. 16 years old. D. 18 years old. II. Grammar and Vocabulary (20’) 【1~10题答案】 【答案】1. that##which 2. how 3. driven 4. where 5. with 6. has become##becomes 7. it 8. even if##even though 9. revealing 10. can 【11~20题答案】 【答案】11. B 12. K 13. I 14. E 15. A 16. F 17. H 18. J 19. C 20. D III. Reading Comprehension (45’) Section A (15’) Directions: For each blank in the following passage there are four words or phrases marked A, B, C and D. Fill in each blank with the word or phrase that best fits the context. 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. C 31. C 32. B 33. C 34. D 35. C Section B (22’) Directions: Read the following three passages. Each passage is followed by several questions or unfinished statements. For each of them there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that fits best according to the information given in the passage you have just read. (A) 【36~38题答案】 【答案】36. D 37. B 38. A (B) 【39~42题答案】 【答案】39. B 40. A 41. C 42. B (C) 【43~46题答案】 【答案】43. D 44. A 45. C 46. D Section C (8’) Directions: Read the following passage. Fill in each blank with a proper sentence given in the box. Each sentence can be used only once. Note that there are two more sentences than you need. 【47~50题答案】 【答案】47. C 48. D 49. B 50. E 【51题答案】 【答案】There is a growing trend for young people to fear getting old and take cosmetic surgeries casually. There are several reasons, including constant comparison with others online, refusing to accept adulthood, and better job and life prospects ensured by beauty. However, some surgeries of low quality will do irreversible damage. Therefore, the author chooses to keep her true looks. V. Translation (15’) 【52题答案】 【答案】 In my opinion, animals that coexist with humans on the earth deserve our continuous care and protection. 【53题答案】 【答案】 As the saying goes, learning is essentially a process of repeated trial and error, because no real success can be achieved overnight without reflection. 【54题答案】 【答案】 As the first black president of South Africa, Mandela dedicated all his life to promoting the reform cause of South Africa and empowering disadvantaged groups through education. 【55题答案】 【答案】 Many people assume that the volunteer activities which take up teenagers’ after-school time will cause irreparable interference to the studies they are supposed to focus on. VI. Guided Writing (25’) 【56题答案】 【答案】Dear Students’ Union, I’m writing to share my opinion on whether middle school students should take part in volunteer work. As far as I’m concerned, volunteering is rewarding and never a waste of our precious study time. Firstly, volunteer activities help us develop valuable qualities like responsibility and teamwork, which we can hardly gain from textbooks. When we offer help to people in need, our communication skills are also greatly improved. Besides, volunteering allows us to get closer to society and learn to be more caring. Admittedly, it takes some time, but as long as we make a practical plan, we can perfectly balance volunteer tasks and schoolwork. From my own experience, small volunteer work brings unexpected growth. Therefore, I hope more classmates can try it and benefit from it. Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $