内容正文:
2026-2027学年第一学期高二第一次质量检测英语试卷
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. When will the speakers meet?
A. At 4:40. B. At 5:15. C. At 5:30.
2. Where are probably the speakers?
A. At Justin’s house. B. In the post office. C. In a shop.
3. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Hotel clerk and guest. B. Doctor and patient. C. Husband and wife.
4. What is the woman going to do?
A. Go hiking. B. Visit the Nursing Home. C. Entertain some friends.
5. What are the speakers talking about?
A. A sport competition. B. A public organization. C. An international event.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
6. What does the man think of Tokyo?
A. Crowded. B. Tidy. C. Unattractive.
7. Which aspect of Los Angeles appeals to the man?
A. The pleasant climate. B. The famous scenic spots. C. The delicious food.
8. What is the woman doing?
A. Reading a book. B. Searching for information. C. Working on a report.
9. What is opposite the museum at present?
A. A flower shop. B. A bookstore. C. A dessert shop.
10. How will the speakers go to the museum?
A. By bike. B. By subway. C. On foot.
11. Where does Zhang Ya work?
A. In a network company.
B. In an agricultural department.
C. On a farm in Anhui province.
12. How long has Zhang Ya’s account been registered by 2024?
A. 5 years. B. 6 years. C. 7 years.
13. Why does Zhang Ya post these videos?
A. To make good profits. B. To have more followers. C. To share agricultural knowledge.
14. Why did Xi Linjie go to the hospital?
A. To cure tiredness. B. To see a close friend. C. To learn TCM.
15. How can the hospital improve the effect of TCM milk tea?
A. By adding a special nutrient.
B. By using modern technologies.
C. By adding more Chinese herbs.
16. What can we learn about TCM milk tea?
A. It has an unpleasant taste.
B. It is relatively simple to make.
C. It is a favorite among young people.
17. What does Khounsavath do?
A. A teacher. B. A student. C. An official.
18. Where did Khounsavath know about Pu’er?
A. From an organization. B. From a movie. C. From a school.
19. Why does Khounsavath choose to live in Pu’er?
A. He can go home easily.
B. He can make much money there.
C. He can enjoy the natural landscape.
20. When did the China-Laos Railway begin to carry passengers?
A. In 2021. B. In 2022. C. In 2023.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Trip 1: One Week in The Mountains
Bring your strong shoes and suitable clothes for this walk in a beautiful area of the Green Mountains. You may go hiking or have a try of rock climbing. This is also a protection area for wild animals. You can find many types of animals living in this area.
Time: July 8-July 14; Tel: 64639818; Adult: $ 110; Child: $ 55
Trip 2: Three Days in The Country
There are many beautiful gardens. Take your camera and enjoy the wonderful sight in Hunter Valley. It is a good place for fishing and horse riding. You can also find different kinds of flowers here. This is also a great walk for bird-lovers.
Time: July 20-July 22; Tel: 63986432; Adult: $ 50; Child: $ 25
Trip 3: Flashlight (手电筒) Adventure
Put on your warm clothes, bring a flashlight, and come for a night walk along the Dungog Valley. It is a trip full of adventure. A guide will lead the tour. Many of the plants you will see on this trip can only be seen at night.
Time: June 16-June 18; Tel: 63875629; Adult: $ 30; Not for children
Trip 4: Five Days by The Sea
Wear your sun hat and enjoy wonderful sunshine all the time from morning to evening. Our hotel is next to the sea. We have our own boats too. You can swim in the sea or in the swimming pool. Every day our boat will take you to different places for swimming.
Time: June 23-June 27; Tel: 67538293; Adult: $ 80; Child: $ 40
1. What activity can tourists do in the Green Mountains?
A. Ride horses and go fishing. B. Grow special local flowers.
C. Watch stars at night. D. Observe mountain creatures.
2. Which trip is unavailable for kids?
A. Country sightseeing. B. Night valley tour.
C. Seaside vacation. D. Mountain hiking.
3. What is special about the seaside trip?
A. It offers daily boat rides. B. It lasts over a whole week.
C. It provides free sun hats. D. It has the biggest swimming pool.
For most of Natalie Grabow’s life, she didn’t know how to swim. At 59, she made a brave decision to learn the skill, driven by a bigger goal: to finish a triathlon (铁人三项). “Swimming was my biggest problem to solve,” she said later. Step by step, she overcame (克服) her fear of water and built the skills she needed.
Over the next 20 years, Grabow turned her dream into action. As a former software engineer, she had long loved running, but injuries often held her back. The cross-training part of triathlon felt perfect for her, as it lowered the risk of harm. She trained hard and soon won several shorter half-triathlon races, growing stronger with each challenge.
By age 80, Grabow was ready for the world’s toughest test: the Triathlon World Championship in Hawaii. On race day, she jumped into the ocean to swim 2.4 miles, then rode her bike 112 miles past hot lava (熔岩) fields and windy coast roads. She finished with a full marathon run that climbed over 1,000 feet, crossing the line in 16 hours and 45 minutes — well before the time limit, while more than 60 younger athletes failed to finish. She became the oldest woman ever to complete the race.
For Grabow, her successful finish puts a strong ending on a 20-year journey. “I am so happy and grateful that I can still race in this sport at my age,” Grabow says. “Triathlon allows me to feel strong both in my mind and body, and it also keeps my competitive spirit alive.”
Asked whether she has any tips for new athletes, Grabow keeps it simple. “Listen to your body, rest when you need to, and most importantly, just appreciate the journey,” she says. For her, the sport is not just about winning, but about growing stronger, staying curious, and never stopping trying new things.
4. What pushed Grabow to learn swimming at 59?
A. To be a good coach. B. To complete a big event.
C. To improve her health. D. To reduce the fear of water.
5. Why did Grabow choose the cross-training part of triathlon?
A. It was more popular.
B. She was tired of running.
C. It was less likely to get hurt.
D. She wanted to challenge herself.
6. What’s the main idea of paragraph 3?
A. Preparations for the race. B. Grabow’s race process.
C. Rules of the Championship. D. Grabow’s running strategy.
7. What suggestion does Grabow give for new athletes?
A. Enjoy the journey. B. Keep going without rest.
C. Follow your hobby. D. Stay a competitive spirit.
When two of James Johnson-Byrne’s friends got into an argument earlier this year, he didn’t know what to do. So the 16-year-old turned to an AI companion for advice. AI companions are digital characters who text and talk with users. The chatbot told Johnson-Byrne to separate his friends. He did so and it solved the immediate problem, he said. But “now they don’t talk much.” The experience showed him that AI companions couldn’t find the deeper issue.
New research suggests other teens are having the same experience. The majority of teenagers (72%) have used AI companions, according to the survey of over 1,000 13-17-year-olds conducted this year by Common Sense Media. Over half of teens use them regularly and one-third turn to them for relationships and social interactions. What’s more, 33% have discussed serious and important issues with AI companions instead of other humans.
The results are cause for concern because the teen years are a “sensitive time of social development,” said Michael Robb, lead author of the study. AI companions can’t model healthy human relationships. “In the real world there are all kinds of social cues that kids have to both interpret and get used to and learn how to respond to,” Robb pointed out. But kids can’t learn to pick up on things like body language from a chatbot.
Chatbots are also sycophantic (谄媚的). “They want to please you, and they won’t put up a lot of friction in the way that people in the real world might.” If users get used to this, “when you encounter friction in real world interactions, you’re going to be less prepared,” Robb said.
Thankfully, there are things parents can do to protect their kids. Robb suggested they should start by talking to their teens about AI companions without judgment and listening patiently to learn what was appealing about these tools before jumping into concerns; then, it’s a good idea to point out that “AI companions are programmed to be agreeable” and discuss why that’s a concern. Having conversations like this can help kids learn to think about AI more broadly in healthy ways.
8. What do we know about the chatbot’s advice to Johnson-Byrne?
A. It was favorably received. B. It settled the argument perfectly.
C. It solved the conflict temporarily. D. It was based on a thorough analysis.
9. What does the survey by Common Sense Media show about teenagers?
A. They are faced with serious issues.
B. They lack adequate social interactions.
C. They lack effective communication skills.
D. They are heavily dependent on AI companions.
10. What does the author want to show by mentioning “body language” in paragraph 3?
A. The limitation of AI companions. B. The function of AI companions.
C. The potential application of AI companions. D. The future development of AI companions.
11. What does Robb suggest parents do?
A. Talk their children out of using AI tools. B. Support their children’s choice of AI tools.
C. Help their kids find more suitable AI tools. D. Guide their kids to think critically about AI tools.
As forests like the Amazon face increasing threats from fires and deforestation, scientific interest is turning to the oceans for climate solutions. A growing body of research highlights the potential of underwater forests — specifically, seaweed farms — to fight against climate change. Unlike the land-based forests, these marine forests are fireproof and demonstrate remarkable efficiency in absorbing carbon emissions.
A groundbreaking study published in Current Biology, led by marine scientist Halley Froehlich, provides the first global quantification of large-scale seaweed farming’s capacity to offset (抵消) carbon emission. The researchers identify approximately 18.5 million square miles of ocean as suitable for growing seaweed.
The findings are striking: Using a mere 3.8 percent of the waters off the California coast could deal with emissions from the state’s massive $50 billion agriculture industry. On a global scale, farming seaweed in just 0.003 percent of suitable waters and storing it could offset the carbon footprint of the entire aquaculture industry, which supplies half of the world’s seafood.
The proposed method involves building industrial-scale seaweed farms, harvesting the mature seaweed, and sinking it into the deep ocean, where the captured carbon could be stored for thousands of years. However, a significant technological hurdle exists. Froehlich notes that the technology for deep-ocean storage does not yet exist, underscoring the need for further engineering development.
The scientific community exhibits both enthusiasm and debate regarding this approach. Carlos Duarte, a famous seaweed scientist, acknowledges the significant potential outlined in the study, even considering its estimates “over conservative”. However, he argues that seaweed is too valuable a material to be placed in the deep sea. This highlights how useful seaweed can be. Beyond capturing carbon, it can stop the oceans from becoming more acidic, create habitats for marine life, and be used to make biofuel.
Despite its promise, the commercialization of seaweed for carbon storage faces market challenges. As industry expert Scotty Schmidt points out, farming seaweed merely for carbon removal is not currently viable without a strong carbon market. The path forward requires developing carbon credit rules and supportive regulations to make this solution work.
12. What can we learn from the findings?
A. California leads in seaweed farming.
B. Modest seaweed farming brings great benefits.
C. Most oceans are suitable for farming seaweed.
D. The technology for farming seaweed is reliable.
13. What is Carlos Duarte’s attitude to sinking seaweed?
A. Disapproving. B. Enthusiastic. C. Indifferent. D. Appreciative.
14. What does the underlined word “viable” in the last paragraph mean?
A. Profitable. B. Achievable. C. Changeable. D. Sustainable.
15. What may be the best title for the text?
A. The challenges for seaweed farming
B. A new technology for deep-ocean storage
C. Seaweed’s value lies in carbon reduction
D. Seaweed farms help address climate change
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Are you truly happy? Do you ever know what it means to be happy and what it takes to achieve happiness? These are important questions for anyone who is looking for happiness.____16____
Firstly, making a plan will make you happy. Your moods will be very wonderful if you get ready to achieve goals or if you are going after something you value.
Secondly, make yourself stay with happy people. It is easy to begin to think negatively (消极地) when you stay with people who think in this way.____17____
Thirdly, when something goes wrong, try to find out a solution instead of being lost in self-pity.____18____ It is because they know that with a little thought, they can change the situation for the better.
Fourthly, spend a few minutes each day thinking about the things that make you happy. These minutes will help you focus on the positive things in your life.____19____ Whether you have lunch, take a relaxing bath or simply spend a few minutes on your appearance, you will put yourself in a better mood.
____20____Finding a way to look down upon a situation can make you happy, too.
Lastly, keeping healthy is another way to achieve happiness. Being fat or not eating healthy foods can have a negative effect on your moods. After all, having a healthy body is the capital of revolution(革命).
A. Fifthly, finding the humor in situations can also lead to happiness.
B. Truly happy people don’t allow difficulties to influence their happiness.
C. The following are a few tips that will be very helpful to you.
D. However, if you are around people who are happy, you will be happy, too.
E. It’s also important to spend some time each day doing something nice for yourself.
F. Sometimes, being happy or unhappy is just a kind of feeling in your own heart and an attitude to your life.
G. You can buy expensive gifts to make yourself happy every day.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Last week, I was stuck on a crosstown bus during rush hour. The bus was filled with cold, tired people ____21____ with one another. Two men barked at each other for an unintentional (非故意的) push. An elderly woman got on, and nobody ____22____ her a seat. Anger was in the air; no kindness could be found here.
As the bus ____23____ Seventh Avenue, the driver’s words came from the ____24____ “Folks,” he said. “I know you’ve had a(n) ____25____ day and that you are depressed, but I will help out. When each of you walks by before getting off, ____26____ your troubles into my hand. My ____27____ goes right by the Hudson River, into which I’ll throw them.”
Hearing this, everyone ____28____ laughing — is this guy ____29____?
However, at the next stop, just as ____30____, the driver held out his hand, palm up, and waited. And the ____31____ passengers, with an air of ____32____ and curiosity, performed the gesture of putting something into his palm as instructed. The driver ____33____ the same action at every stop that followed. Magically, these small gestures seemed to have lifted everyone’s spirits somehow and most passengers left in pleasure.
Occasionally we may sink into a grey world, but someone can ____34____ it like a ray of light, showing us hope. What if we are the light? Actually, anyone owns the ____35____ to shine on others’ dark days.
21. A. confused B. impressed C. annoyed D. embarrassed
22. A. lent B. offered C. lifted D. chose
23. A. approached B. closed C. came D. went
24. A. bus B. head C. loudspeaker D. air
25. A. easy B. average C. important D. rough
26. A. drop B. touch C. push D. take
27. A. mind B. day C. time D. route
28. A. gave out B. burst out C. passed on D. went on
29. A. hard B. naive C. serious D. jealous
30. A. promised B. needed C. reported D. told
31. A. standing B. leaving C. sitting D. looking
32. A. fear B. sadness C. uncertainty D. annoyance
33. A. interpreted B. designed C. pretended D. repeated
34. A. brighten B. break C. reward D. exchange
35. A. courage B. idea C. power D. heart
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Sound of the Silk Road, ___36___ Chinese musical with Broadway elements, is set to return to the stage in Shanghai from Nov. 27th to 30th, ___37___ (follow) by a world tour that will appeal to audiences with the culture and history of the Silk Road.
The musical ___38___ (vivid) tells the story of a teenager named Joey, who accidentally travels back 2,000 years and ___39___ (arrive) in the imperial city of Chang’an ( modern-day Xi’an in Shaanxi Province), capital of the Western Han Dynasty. During his journey, Joey makes many friends with ___40___ he completes various missions in what was the eastern departure point of the Silk Road.
Co-produced ___41___ Shaanxi Tourism Group and Nederlander Worldwide Entertainment, the musical showcases the charm and civilization of China’s Silk Road, ___42___ (feature) amazing stage design and technologies, as well as famous names from home and abroad, including producer Don Frantz, director Gabriel Barre, playwright Marc Acito, ___43___ songwriters Liang Mang and Peter Kam.
Since it was put on in Xi’an in 2021, Sound of the Silk Road has won many major awards and been staged in ___44___ (region) across China, including Beijing and Chengdu, to a combined audience of more than 700,000. It is also expected ___45___ (hit) the stage in New York in 2026.
第四部分:写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 应用文写作(满分15分)
46. 假定你是李华,你的英国朋友Edward正在学习汉语,希望你推荐一个适合他学习汉语的网站。请你根据以下内容,给他写一封电子邮件。内容包括:
1. 推荐网站:www.edchinese.com;
2. 网站内容:(1) 丰富的学习资源;(2) 有在线教师答疑解惑。
注意:
1. 词数80左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置答题。
Dear Edward,
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 读后续写(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Sports are more than competitions. To me, they mean growth under the care of others. I learned this the hard way.
I used to be very shy and fear physical education. Things would go on like that if not for a sports meet in my high school. My name was on the list of those competing in the women’s 1,500-meter race by mistake. When people found the mistake, it was too late to change.
Other athletic girls in the class had their own items to take, so nobody was able to run the race in my place.1,500 meters! Running against the best runners from other classes! And in front of students of the entire school! It would be the worst nightmare (噩梦) I’d ever have!
“Don’t lose heart. You still have time to catch up because there are still two months before the sports meet,” they all told this to me.
My deskmate, a natural athlete, patted me on the shoulder, “Cool! You will run for our class! And we will do training together.” I kept telling myself that this was not just for me, but for my class, too. But still,1,500 meters to me was like Mount Qomolangma to a beginning climber. I had no idea even how to start my preparation.
Fortunately, my deskmate gave me a hand. Every afternoon after class, several of us ran together. When I feared being laughed at, I saw others running beside me. They gave me strengths. While we were running, some others would stand by the tracks, cheering for us. Despite my efforts and others’ encouragement, I knew two months certainly couldn’t make me a good runner. However, standing behind the start line, I no longer felt lonely or afraid.
注意:
(1)续写词数应为120个左右;
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Finally, the sports meet arrived.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Despite the cheering of my classmates, I was almost the last to cross the finish line.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2026-2027学年第一学期高二第一次质量检测英语试卷
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. When will the speakers meet?
A. At 4:40. B. At 5:15. C. At 5:30.
2. Where are probably the speakers?
A. At Justin’s house. B. In the post office. C. In a shop.
3. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Hotel clerk and guest. B. Doctor and patient. C. Husband and wife.
4. What is the woman going to do?
A. Go hiking. B. Visit the Nursing Home. C. Entertain some friends.
5. What are the speakers talking about?
A. A sport competition. B. A public organization. C. An international event.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
6. What does the man think of Tokyo?
A. Crowded. B. Tidy. C. Unattractive.
7. Which aspect of Los Angeles appeals to the man?
A. The pleasant climate. B. The famous scenic spots. C. The delicious food.
8. What is the woman doing?
A. Reading a book. B. Searching for information. C. Working on a report.
9. What is opposite the museum at present?
A. A flower shop. B. A bookstore. C. A dessert shop.
10. How will the speakers go to the museum?
A. By bike. B. By subway. C. On foot.
11. Where does Zhang Ya work?
A. In a network company.
B. In an agricultural department.
C. On a farm in Anhui province.
12. How long has Zhang Ya’s account been registered by 2024?
A. 5 years. B. 6 years. C. 7 years.
13. Why does Zhang Ya post these videos?
A. To make good profits. B. To have more followers. C. To share agricultural knowledge.
14. Why did Xi Linjie go to the hospital?
A. To cure tiredness. B. To see a close friend. C. To learn TCM.
15. How can the hospital improve the effect of TCM milk tea?
A. By adding a special nutrient.
B. By using modern technologies.
C. By adding more Chinese herbs.
16. What can we learn about TCM milk tea?
A. It has an unpleasant taste.
B. It is relatively simple to make.
C. It is a favorite among young people.
17. What does Khounsavath do?
A. A teacher. B. A student. C. An official.
18. Where did Khounsavath know about Pu’er?
A. From an organization. B. From a movie. C. From a school.
19. Why does Khounsavath choose to live in Pu’er?
A. He can go home easily.
B. He can make much money there.
C. He can enjoy the natural landscape.
20. When did the China-Laos Railway begin to carry passengers?
A. In 2021. B. In 2022. C. In 2023.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. D 2. B 3. A
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. B 5. C 6. B 7. A
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. D 10. A 11. D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. A 14. B 15. D
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. D 18. B 19. E 20. A
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. C 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. D 34. A 35. C
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. a 37. followed
38. vividly
39. arrives
40. whom 41. by
42. featuring
43. and 44. regions
45. to hit
第四部分:写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 应用文写作(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】范文一:
Dear Edward,
As for the Chinese learning website you asked in your last letter, I highly recommend www.edchinese.com to you, which is intended for non-native Chinese speakers.
This website boasts/features abundant learning resources. You can not only be exposed to authentic Chinese situational dialogues and get a glimpse of Chinese customs, but also enjoy Chinese films and songs and get access to idioms and Tang poetry. More importantly, you can consult teachers online about any problem you may encounter. All this will immerse you in the Chinese language, provide you with a foundation to start with and help you become a proficient Chinese speaker.
I do hope you will find this website helpful. Please feel free to contact me if you have any questions. Wish you tremendous progress!
Yours,
Li Hua
范文二:
Dear Edward,
I’m more than pleased to know that you are learning Chinese. I’d love to recommend www.edchinese.com to you, a professional Chinese learning website designed/ intended/meant for foreign Chinese learners.
It is an ideal website to learn Chinese, especially for beginners. It offers/boasts/features an abundance of learning resources meant for every skill level, like Chinese traditions and customs, Chinese movies and songs, Chinese idioms and Tang poetry . The website also includes authentic situational Chinese dialogues, which can expose you to the pure colloquial forms of speech and prepare you for conversation about any specific topic. Best of all, you can consult online teachers about any problem you encounter. I believe this website will immerse you in the charm of Chinese language.
I do hope you will find this website helpful. Please feel free to contact me if you have any questions. Wish you tremendous progress!
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 读后续写(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】参考范文:
Finally, the sports meet arrived. After what seemed like a decade, the 1,500-meter race began. With the starting whistle blowing, I ran at full speed. Though I didn’t fall behind in the first lap, I was running out of strength and finding it difficult to breathe in the second lap. When I couldn’t feel my legs and wanted to quit in the third lap, I heard my classmates cheering for me, which improved my courage and confidence again. I gritted my teeth and ran on.
Despite the cheering of my classmates, I was almost the last to cross the finish line. Immediately, some classmates crowded around me, took my arms to support me, and urged me to walk on my feet instead of sitting down. Warmth surged through my heart as I was greeted with no blame but heartfelt praise. Although I failed to win the race, I gained great confidence in my possibility and respect from my classmates. From then on, I began to see sports in a different light. I no longer feared physical education.
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