2026-2027学年高中英语外研版必修第二册Unit 1 Food for Thought单元测试卷

Unit 2 单元检测卷 时间:120分钟 满分:150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5 小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. Whose birthday is it today? A. Mary’ s. B. Mike’ s. C. David’ s. 2. What's the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Husband and wife. B. Boss and secretary. C. Teacher and student. 3. What is Mrs Smith going to do? A. Take her son to school. B. Pick up Jack. C. Attend a meeting. 4. What does the man want to do? A. Visit his friend. B. Post a book. C. Buy a book. 5. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a supermarket. B. In a restaurant. C. At home. 第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is the boy's favourite music? A. Rock music. B. Pop music. C. Classical music. 7. What does the boy think of country music? A. Noisy. B. Boring. C. Soft. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What does the woman want? A. An overcoat. B. A dress. C. A skirt. 9. When will the speakers go to the tailor’ s? A. Next Saturday morning. B. Next Saturday afternoon. C. Next Sunday morning. 听第8段材料，回答第10 至 12题。 10. What does the woman plan to do? A. Buy some furniture. B. Rearrange the room. C. Move house. 11. What will the speakers move first? A. The bed. B. The lamps. C. The tables. 12. What does the man suggest doing later today? A. Painting the room. B. Cooking a meal. C. Buying some paint. 听第9段材料，回答第13 至 16题。 13. How will Oscar go around Florida? A. By car. B. By bus. C. By taxi. 14. Where will the speakers meet? A. At Walt Disney World. B. At the airport. C. At Kennedy Space Center 15. Why does Oscar want to go to the FloridaPanhandle? A. To enjoy the beach. B. To go diving. C. To meet some friends. 16. Who is John Hamilton probably? A. A tour guide. B. Janet's husband. C. Oscar's schoolmate. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What is the big hall mainly used for? A. Parents' meetings. B. Music lessons. C. Sports activities. 18. When can the children use the library on their own? A. At any time of the day. B. Between lessons. C. After school. 19. Where is the speaker's office? A. Beside the reception desk. B. Opposite the library. C. Behind the water machine. 20. How often do the children use the computer room? A. At least twice a day. B. At least once a day. C. About once a week. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A A music festival, which is often presented with a main idea, is a community event mainly about live performances of singing and instrument playing. On the list are the music festivals for fans around the world. Find your favourite now! Field Day Field Day is a major New Year's Day party inSydney. Seen as the city's original outdoor party, it's a gathering of friends coming together for a great fun- filled first day of the year. There's an air of hope and active energy on a perfect summer's day.Envision Festival The Envision Festival is an annual event inUvita, Costa Rica that wants to provide a chance for different cultures to work with one another to create a better community. The festival encourages people to practise art, music and dance performances. At the same time, our connection with nature is expected to be strengthened. McDowell Mountain Music Festival The McDowell Mountain Music Festival isPhoenix's musical celebration of community, culture and charity. Since its founding in 2004, it has been a non- profit music festival designed to support,entertain and educate the community. The festival attracts thousands of visitors each year from around the country, and it is an opportunity to experience true culture. Old Settler's Music Festival The Old Settler's Music Festival is a nationally known music festival for American music. The festival is held in Tilmon, Texas at the height of the wild flower season. The Old Settler's Music Festival offers great music and activities for the whole family. 21. In which city does Field Day mean New Year'sDay? A. Sydney. B. Uvita. C. Phoenix. D. Tilmon. 22. What is special about the McDowell MountainMusic Festival? A. It encourages people to receive education. B. It is not held to make money. C. It provides a chance for friends to meet each other. D. It focuses on culture spread. 23. Which festivals are connected with nature? A. Field Day and Envision Festival. B. Envision Festival and McDowell MountainMusic Festival. C. Old Settler's Music Festival and McDowellMountain Music Festival. D. Envision Festival and Old Settler's MusicFestival. B My grandfather Andy Anderson is over 100years old. His life story is one for the big screen——he married my grandmother within a week after they met. They stayed together for over 65 years. Without going to college, Andy worked his way to the top. He became a manager of a dairy department. He earned the nickname Mr Cheese,which finally turned into Grandpa Cheese among the family. He has taught me a lot and here's what he has learnt in his life. Always keep a good sense of humour. Find something humorous in every single situation. Never be too good to start at the bottom. Exercise every day, even when you don't feel like it. Don't spend more money than you make. Save your money now and spend it later. You must be able to forgive, even if it's difficult to do. Love is not always easy; sometimes you have to work at it. Your family is the most precious thing you will ever have in life. If you are faced with a problem, don't delay trying to solve it. But if there's no way to solve it, you have to forget it for now. Perhaps a solution will be found soon. Make sure you' re doing what you love; don't be afraid to follow those dreams you have for yourself. School education is important, but not everything. Life can be an education in itself.Explore your world and stay curious. Having a bad job is better than having no job at all. Try not to takeyourself so seriously. Don't ever be afraid to be your true self. Your life is delicate, and if you fail to take care of yourself properly, you' ll spoil.Life is a gift that you must unwrap (打开). It's up to you to determine if what's inside will lead you to happiness or dismay (忧虑). You have the power to make that decision for yourself. All of above come from Grandpa Cheese. If you' re wondering what Grandpa Cheese is up to these days, he's riding his motor scooter around the city, and“planning on what I'm going to do when Istart to get old,” he says. 24. Which of the following agrees with Grandpa's philosophy? A. Love needs efforts. B. Exercise if you like it. C. Happiness makes longer life. D. A good job secures a happy life. 25. What's the best way if you have a problem with no solution? A. To leave it aside. B. To keep trying. C. To take care of yourself. D. To have a sense of humour. 26. What can we learn from the passage? A. The author's grandparents are living a happy life now. B. School education helps develop curiosity about the world. C. Whether life will be happy or miserable is decided by ourselves. D. Andy was called Mr Cheese before being a manager. 27. Where is the passage probably from? A. A guidebook. B. An advertisement. C. A news report. D. An autobiography (自传). C Lazy people will never gain anything in life.However, laziness can be defeated once a few changes have been made in your mind. One way to fight laziness is to get enough sleep.Many people lack sleep constantly, since they stay up late and get up early to prepare for work. These people have little motivation once they arrive home.Laziness works hand in hand with a lack of motivation and a tendency to put off things. By adjusting your sleep schedule to provide a few more hours of meaningful rest, you can fight laziness throughout the day. Another way to fight laziness is to change your mind from being passive to being active. Some people treat their lives as if they were pushed from task to task. Others take a more positive approach,viewing each task as a challenge they must overcome alone. Laziness appears when you no longer feel in charge of your own mind. Some people fight laziness by removing the temptations that surround them. A television in the living room may provide entertainment, but watching too much TV often leads to laziness. Create a reward system for yourself, just as parents do for a child.Complete a few tasks and reward yourself with what you enjoy, such as a good dinner or a film. Laziness can also be a lasting problem at home.Parents and children may all have different energy levels, but laziness can be spread if not dealt with immediately. To fight family laziness, set an example. Be the first to collect and wash dishes after a meal. Others in the home may eventually follow your example and perform their own task. It is difficult to practise laziness when you are surroundedby motivated (积极的) people.Finally, taking exercise regularly can help you fight laziness. Enough exercise and a balanced diet can help you develop a healthy lifestyle, thus enabling you to have more energy and help lift your spirits. 28. How many ways have been mentioned in the passage to fight laziness? A.3. B.4. C.5. D.6. 29. What can be inferred from Paragraph 2? A. People who don't get enough sleep must be lazy. B. People who lack motivation can be lazy. C. People who adjust their sleep schedule can be lazy. D. People who stay up late and get up early must be lazy. 30. What does the underlined word“temptations” inParagraph 4 mean? A. Excitements. B.Fantasies. C. Attractions. D. Decorations. 31. What is the best title for the passage? A. How to fight laziness B. Laziness can be defeated C. Laziness does great harm to our lives D. Lazy people will never gain anything D The Lantern Festival falls on the 15th day of the first lunar month, usually in February or March.Since ancient times, it has become a festival with great significance. One of the most important activities on this day is watching lanterns. Lanterns of various shanes and sizes are hung in the streets, attracting countless people. Some children will hold homemade lanterns and walk along the streets, extremely excited. Solving lantern riddles is an essential part of the Lantern Festival. Lantern owners write riddles on paper and stick them to the lanterns. If visitors have solutions to the riddles, they can pull the paper out and go to the lantern owners to check their answers.If they are right, they will get a little gift. As solving lantern riddles is interesting and full of wisdom, it has become popular among all social strata (社会阶层). In addition, people will eat yuanxiao on theLantern Festival. Yuanxiao is a kind of small dumpling ball made of glutinous rice flour with different fillings. It also has another name,tangyuan. It can be boiled, fried or steamed. It tastes delicious. Most importantly, tangyuan has a similar pronunciation with“tuanyuan” in Chinese,meaning reunion. So people eat tangyuan specially to denote (表示) reunion, harmony and happiness for the family. In the daytime of the Lantern Festival, people can watch wonderful performances such as dragon lantern dance, lion dance, land boat dance,walking on stilts and beating drums while dancing.At night, besides amazing lanterns, fireworks form a beautiful scene. Some local governments will even organise a fireworks display. 32. Which of the following belongs to the activities at the Lantern Festival? A. Hanging healthy herbs. B. Dragon boat racing. C. Walking on stilts. D. Drinking chrysanthemum wine. 33. Why has solving lantern riddles become popular? A. Because people can get a little gift. B. Because it is filled with fun and wisdom. C. Because people have solutions to the riddles. D. Because it can tell whether people are wise or not. 34. What makes tangyuan become special food at the Lantern Festival? A. Its long history. B. Its unique and delicious taste. C. Its various fillings and cooking methods. D. Its symbol of reunion, harmony and happiness. 35. What is the author's attitude to the Lantern Festival? A. Doubtful. B. Favourable. C. Unclear. D. Curious. 第二节(共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 A healthy diet is not just what you eat, but how you eat. Here are some tips for you. Eat with others whenever possible. Eating with other people has numerous benefits, especially for children. 36 Eating in front of the TV or computer often leads to mindless overeating. Take time to chew your food and enjoy mealtimes. 37 We tend to rush through our meals, forgetting to enjoy the flavour and feel the taste of what is in our mouths. Listen to your body. Ask yourself if you are really hungry, or have a glass of water to see if you are thirsty instead of being hungry. 38 It actually takes a few minutes for your brain to tell your body that your stomach has had enough food,so eat slowly. 39 A healthy breakfast can speed up your metabolism (新陈代谢), and eating small, healthy meals throughout the day (rather than the standard three large meals) keeps your energy up and your metabolism going. Avoid eating at night. 40 And then don't eat for 12 to 14 hours until breakfast the next morning. Studies suggest that eating only when you' re most active and giving your digestive (消化的) system a long break each day may help keep fit. A. Drink plenty of water. B. Try to have dinner earlier. C. Be careful when eating out. D. Eat your food slowly, tasting every bite. E. During a meal, stop eating before you feel full. F. It allows you to follow others' healthy eating habits. G. Eat breakfast, and eat smaller meals throughout the day. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15 小题：每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 On Sunday morning, a man suffered a sudden heart attack and 41 down on a village street in the north. 42 bystanders called medical services for help. Sbri Diab, a volunteer EMT (急救医疗医生)of a non-profit emergency medical service organisation, was at work when he received the 43 about the medical emergency. Sbri 44 left work and drove to the 45 . When Sbri got there along with an ambulance, he found the manlying on the ground with no 46 and started CPR(心肺复苏) for him.After a few minutes, additional 47 arrived and got involved in the 48 to save the man's life. After about 40 minutes the team was 49 and the man regained his pulse (脉搏). Then the man was 50 to hospital in the ambulance for further care. When 51 after the whole thing ended, Sbri reported,“I'm glad the man regained consciousness.We worked hard to try to save the man. It's very 52 to see a patient regain life after what seems like death for a long time. It's very exciting and a great 53 to be able to save a life. We don't have many ambulances in the north. This is one of the reasons I decided to 54 the organisation so thatI could help save people until the 55 arrives.” 41. A. walked B. fell C. calmed D. settled 42. A. Creative B. Curious C. Angry D. Worried 43. A. call B. letter C. challenge D. permit 44. A. slowly B. cheerfully C. immediately D. regularly 45.A.company B. street C. centre D. hospital 46. A. medicine B. approach C. energy D. breath 47. A. volunteers B. workmates C. passersby D. friends 48. A. operation B. pressure C. effort D. system 49. A. confident B. successful C. disappointed D. tired 50. A. pushed B. guided C. led D. rushed 51. A. interviewed B. doubted C. suggested D.comforted 52. A. confusing B. horrible C. satisfying D. shocking 53. A. imagination B. relief C. benefit D. award 54. A. join B. design C. explore D. found 55. A. facility B. request C. chance D. ambulance 第二节(共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 In modern society, many traditional Chinese festivals are becoming less and less popular.However, they are an important part of Chinese culture, and it's our 56. (responsible) to protect and maintain them. This article focuses on a festival that many people are not familiar with — theCold Food Festival. The Cold Food Festival is named 57. food, and it is also known as“the Hanshi Festival”as people are only allowed to eat cold food on this day. The festival normally 58. (fall) one or two days ahead of the Qingming Festival. In most parts of China, fires might start easily in the dry early spring due to the flammable substances (易燃物) 59. (store) by people and the spring thunder. As a result, the ancients usually held grand ceremonies in 60. the fire stored from the previous year would be put out. Later, they would drill wood to get new fire for a new year. The gap between putting outold fire and 61. (burn) the wood to obtain new fire ranged from three, five, or seven days according to different 62. _________( history)records.During the gap days, fires 63. (forbid) in households. As a result, people would eat what they had prepared previously, namely the cold food, or“hanshi ” in Chinese. That's 64. the Cold Food Festival gradually came into being. As the Cold Food Festival is one or two days ahead of the Qingming Festival, little by little they got combined with one another. As time went by, theQingming Festival took over the folk activities of theCold Food Festival 65. (become) a major festival on this subject. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 近几年，一些西方节日(比如圣诞节)在中国愈来愈受到年轻人的青睐。为此，有学者倡议国人应慎重对待西方节日，抵制西方文化的扩张。假定你是某中学高一学生李华，前不久你们班就这个问题展开了一场辩论。请你根据下面表格提示的内容用英语给学校报刊的编辑写一封信，介绍辩论的结果并发表自己的看法。 观点 理由 70%的学生赞成过圣 诞节 了解西方文化；亲朋相聚，增进友谊和理解 20%的学生强烈反对 过圣诞节 崇洋媚外，有辱中国传统文化 10%的学生不反对过 圣诞节，但更提倡过 中国的传统节日 包容其他文化，但弘扬自己的传统文化是根本 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3.开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。 Dear Editor, I'm a senior high school student in Grade One.Several days ago our class had a heated debate on whether we should celebrate Christmas. Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Li Na, a Chinese exchange student in the UK,felt a bit nervous when Mr Smith asked each student to bring something that matters to them and share it with the class on Thursday. She sat in her seat quietly, thinking hard about what to bring. Suddenly, she remembered that the Lantern Festival happened to fall on next Friday. Her eyes lit up with excitement. On Thursday, the classroom was filled with joy and laughter as students shared their beloved snacks and toys. When Li Na's turn came, she rose,holding a wooden box. She opened it gently and took out a folded piece of red paper. With a few skilful folds and pulls, the paper magically turned into a beautiful lantern. She placed a candle inside and lit it carefully. “What is it?” asked Emma, her deskmate.“It is amazing!” Holding up the lantern, Li Na smiled and introduced the Lantern Festival —— its traditions of hanging lanterns, guessing lantern riddles (谜语),and eating sweet sticky rice balls called yuanxiao.“Red lanterns symbolise hope and reunion inChinese culture,” she explained.“And this year,the festival happens to be on next Friday.” Seeing how interested the students were, MrSmith walked over with a smile and said to Li Na,“Would you like to host a Lantern Festival party for the whole class next Friday night? I'm sure it will be a wonderful way to connect cultures.” “I'd love to!” Li Na replied without hesitation. Applause erupted in the classroom. But as she sat down, a little worry set in —— how could she make the party really fun and unforgettable? 注意： 续写词数应为150左右。 Paragraph 1: Li Na quickly realised the key was to get everyone involved in the preparation. Paragraph 2: The party took place as scheduled in the classroom. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 2 单元检测卷 第一部分 听力 1-5 CACBB 6-10 ABACB 11-15 ACACA 16-20 CCBAB 第二部分 阅读 第一节 21. A 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. C29. B 30. C 31. A 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. B 第二节 36. F 37. D 38. E 39. G 40. B 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 41. B 42. D 43. A 44. C 45. B 46. D 47. A 48. C49. B 50. D 51. A 52. C 53. B 54. A 55. D 第二节 56. responsibility 57. after 58. falls 59. stored 60. which61. burning 62. historical 63. were forbidden 64. how65. to become 第四部分 写作 第一节 One possible version: Dear Editor, I'm a senior high school student in Grade One. Several days ago our class had a heated debate on whether we should celebrateChristmas. The majority of the students are in favour of celebratingChristmas, an important festival in Western countries. For one thing, it's an occasion for people to get to know Western culture; for another, it's also a great chance for people to get together to strengthen their friendship and understanding.Twenty per cent of them have a negative attitude, considering it blind faith in foreign things and bad for traditional Chinese culture. Ten per cent of them are not against it but insist on celebrating our own traditional festivals. In my view, living in a global village, we Chinese are supposed to carry on our traditions and take in different cultures as well.Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节 One possible version: Paragraph 1: Li Na quickly realised the key was to get everyone involved in the preparation. So she announced to the whole class that volunteers were needed. To her delight, all the students raised their hands eagerly, their faces shining with enthusiasm. Greatly relieved, Li Na divided the students into two groups. One was led by her to make lanterns and riddles, and the other was led by Emma to prepare the ingredients and tools for making yuanxiao. Everyone set to work immediately, and by Friday afternoon, everything was ready. Paragraph 2: The party took place as scheduled in the classroom. Varied red lanterns were used to decorate the room, creating a festive atmosphere. Guided by Li Na, the students made yuanxiao together. Soon, steaming bowls of yuanxiao were served, and everyone loved their handmade treats. The highlight was the riddle-guessing activity, which filled the classroom with laughter and cheers. Bathed in warm lantern light, the students shared not just food and fun, but a deep sense of connection that made the night truly unforgettable. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $Unit 6 单元检测卷 时间:120分钟 满分:150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does John Smith do? A. A postman. B. A secretary. C. A waiter. 2. Where will the man probably sit? A. In the front row. B. In the back row. C. In the middle row. 3. What is Richard famous for? A. Editing. B. Reporting. C. Writing. 4. What does the woman mean? A. She needs help for her luggage. B. She will carry the suitcase herself. C. She is going to buy a light suitcase. 5. What do we know about the woman? A. She should buy the ticket now. B. She has already missed the train. C. She can catch the train in time. 第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is the weather like in winter in the woman's place? A. Cold and wet. B. Cold and dry. C. Warm and pleasant. 7. Why is the man lucky in the woman's opinion? A. He can experience different kinds of weather. B. He can have winter sports in his home town. C. He can enjoy warm winters in his home town. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a swimming pool. B. At Moray's house. C. In the street. 9. What will Tina do this Friday evening? A. Take a business trip. B. Go to a coffee bar. C. Have a barbecue. 10. How did Tina find Charlie's visit? A. Annoying. B. Exciting. C. Surprising. 听第8段材料，回答第11至 13题。 11. Why is the man going to America? A. To attend a conference. B. To go sightseeing. C. To visit friends. 12. When does the man want to leave for America? A. In early January. B. In mid-January. C. In early February. 13. What is probably the woman's job? A. A scientist. B. A reporter. C. An embassy official. 听第9段材料，回答第14至 16题。 14. What does the man invite the woman to do onTuesday night? A. See a show. B. Eat in a restaurant. C. Watch a basketball game. 15. What is the woman going to do on Wednesday evening? A. Go shopping. B. Do some cleaning. C. Finish her term paper. 16. Whose birthday is on Friday? A. The woman's brother's. B. The man's mother's. C. The woman's father's. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What can we learn about the CDs? A. They' re cheap. B. They' re popular. C. They' re expensive. 18. When did the speaker receive the CDs? A. On 14 March. B. On 15 March. C. On 21 March. 19. Why couldn't the speaker get through to the helpline? A. He got the wrong number. B. It was too late. C. The line was busy. 20. What does the speaker complain about? A. The quality of the CDs. B. The service of the company. C. The price of the CDs. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Dive with big sharks Our shark dive adventures make use of hookah systems and shark cages. A hookah system is a system that provides air from the surface for divers down below. Cage divers breathe by using a regulator (调节器) connected to an air hose (软管). Is shark diving dangerous? Yes. You could get sunburnt. You could hityour head on the top bunk (卧铺) getting out of bed. You could fall overboard. Studies have shown that as for a shark attack, you are far more likely to be attacked by a dog or a deer. Pricing & Details One- day Cage Diver Adventure $875 Our expert shark diver team will accompany you to the best viewing areas within the Marine Sanctuary(禁猎区). There, we' ll drop our cage and prepare to provide you with a view you' ll never forget. No dive experience is necessary. Our cages sit just below the surface. You' ll be able to breathe comfortably from your snorkel (呼吸管) or air hose while you move about the cage, taking photos and having fun. Top Shark Adventure $375 If you want to see great white sharks but prefer them a little further away, we offer the perfect opportunity to watch them from our observation deck.You can scan the horizon for fins and watch for sharks attacking their prey (猎物). Important note There's No Shark Guarantee. Although we go to the best places at the best time of year, we cannot guarantee you' ll see sharks.We' ve been very successful in past shark seasons and expect another incredible year. However, if we see no sharks, there is no refund (退款). 21. Which of the following is TRUE about the two adventures? A. Top Shark Adventure makes use of hookah systems. B. Cage Diver Adventure offers you a view of the bottom of the sea. C. Cage Diver Adventure is less interesting than the other. D. Top Shark Adventure is suitable for those who are worried about danger. 22. What might happen according to the advertisement? A. You fail to see any shark during the trip. B. You are out of breath deep down in the sea. C. You are hurt by a shark while diving there. D. You suffer from lack of skill in shark diving. 23. What can we infer about shark diving from the advertisement? A. It's difficult but exciting. B. It's challenging and tiring. C. It's amazing and enjoyable. D. It's expensive but popular. B On a sunny spring day on the California coast,a crowd of people take photos of sea otters (海獭)floating on the waves. Lately, sea otter sightings like this one have become more common in California.The state's sea otter population is higher than it has been in decades. Scientists say the increase is something to celebrate. Hundreds of thousands of sea otters once lived in the northern Pacific Ocean. But in the 17th century, people began hunting them for their thick fur to earn money. Hunting sea otters was banned in the early 20th century, but by then fewer than2,000 were left. Scientists also tried moving some otters to places where they had completely disappeared. Over the years, sea otter populations have grown. Today there are more otters, mainly near Alaska. Sea otters aren't just cute. Sea otters also play a major role in their ecosystems.“There aren't a lot of them,” said a scientist.“But they have a very big impact.” The scientist explained that otters love to eat sea urchins (海胆). That's important because too many sea urchins who eat kelp (大型褐藻) can cause big problems in the sea. When sea otters aren't around, sea urchins often eat up all the kelp in an area. That leavesanimals like seals, fish, and crabs without a source of food or shelter. Kelp forests are also important in another way. They help absorb carbon dioxide.When people burn fuels to power cars and factories,large amounts of this gas are sent out into the air. It even gets into sea water. There, it can cause problems for marine animals. For example, it can make it harder for some sea creatures to form shells.By keeping the populations of sea urchins under control, sea otters help kelp forests grow —— and other sea animals survive. 24. What caused the sharp drop in sea otter population during the past several centuries? A. Water pollution. B. Overhunting. C. Too many enemies. D. A lack of food. 25. Why is the sea otters' growing population worth celebrating? A. They are cute and smart. B. They are nature's helpers. C. They are of great research value. D. They are the symbol of California. 26. What does Paragraph 5 mainly explain? A. The food source for sea otters. B. The danger of carbon dioxide. C. The role of sea urchins. D. The value of kelp forests. 27. What's the author's purpose in writing this passage? A. To call on people to protect sea otters. B. To tell the present situation of sea otters. C. To explain the increase of the sea otter population. D. To show people's love for sea otters. C Microplastics (MPs) are tiny bits or threads of plastic, which are often too small to be seen. The current study shows that MPs are constantly coming down in great numbers, even in remote, protected lands. The scientists didn't set out to study MPs. DrJanice Brahney created the experiment to test her equipment, which was meant to track the way helpful chemicals travel to farms through the air. The experiment used buckets (桶) that opened and closed automatically depending on the weather. This allowed the researchers to separate dust that fell during rainstorms from dust that was carried in dry air. These“wet” and“dry” buckets were set up at11 different protected, remote areas in the westernUS and checked regularly for over a year. But when Dr Brahney and her team began to study the dust they had collected, they got a surprise——MPs.By figuring out how much plastic was falling per square metre, the scientists were able to get a good idea of how much plastic was falling in all of the protected areas in the western US every year. The answer was shocking—— about 907,000 kilograms,which is enough plastic to make over 123 million plastic bottles. MPs have been found in tap water, bottled water, and in sea animals that people eat. Now there is growing proof that we are also breathing MPs all the time. Scientists still don't know how eating or breathing MPs will affect people, though many of the chemicals from plastic are known to cause health problems. There are concerns that MPs can get stuck in the lungs, where they may lead to long-term problems. Dr Brahney says that for these reasons, it's important to reduce the amount of plastic we produce and use. She points out that much of the dust the scientists collected was too small to test. Also, she says that scientists only studied MPs that fell in protected areas in the western US——a small part ofthe US land area.28. How did Dr Brahney and her team find microplastics? A. By comparison. B. By chance. C. By choice. D. By design. 29. What waits for scientists to discover about MPs? A. How to get MPs’ helpful chemicals. B. How to separate wet and dry MPs. C. How taking in MPs will affect people. D. How MPs travel a long distance. 30. What does Dr Brahney imply about MPs in the last paragraph? A. Most of them stay in the dust. B. They fall mainly in the western US. C. They’ ll lead to the end of plastic use. D. Their actual amount is higher than that tested. 31. What is the best title for the passage? A. Scientists find MPs in the lungs B. People used to ignore the problem of the MPs C. MPs are travelling all over the world D. MPs rain down in protected lands D Although fires are still a danger in every major city today, they were a much more serious problem in earlier centuries. The Great Fire of London was a serious example of the damage fire can cause.Finally, however, this disaster also positively affected the city. In 1666, the Great Fire of London burnt out of control for several days, destroying most of the central district of the city. The disaster caused a huge amount of damage——a large number of people lost their homes. There are no accurate (精确的)records of how many people died in the fire. Some historians state that the government didn't record the death toll of poor people in those early times. When the fire happened, people in London were already struggling to survive a large plague (鼠疫) outbreak that had begun in 1665. London's housing troubles were a major cause of the problem.At the time, much of central London consisted of closely packed and poorly made wooden buildings.This created an unhealthy environment because germs (细菌) travelled freely from home to home.In addition, the buildings were on narrow, dirty streets where people threw their rubbish. Rats were attracted by the rubbish, and they brought fleas (跳蚤)—— the carriers of the plague. Once people caught the plague from flea bites, the disease spread rapidly throughout the city, especially in the cramped central district. It was in these terrible conditions that the Great Fire spread rapidly throughLondon. Despite the damage, the fire had a positive effect because it destroyed the old, poorly made wooden buildings. It also killed most of the rats and fleas, which slowed the spread of the plague. After the fire, the government rebuilt the damaged areas.Whenever possible, they used bricks or stones.Thus, the new houses were much more solid and more difficult for rats to enter. Widened streets and improved rubbish collection also helped to stop the disease from spreading from person to person because there was simply more room to walk. 32. Which of the following is TRUE about fires in the past? A. They mainly happened in large cities. B. They always had some positive effects. C. They caused small amounts of damage. D. They were more dangerous than fires today. 33. What can we learn about the death records of theGreat Fire? A. There were too many deaths. B. The government intended to hide the facts. C. The records were destroyed in another fire. D. The death toll of poor people was unrecorded. 34. What does the underlined word“cramped” inParagraph 3 mean?A. Ancient.B. Crowded. C. Damaged. D. Popular. 35. Why did the government rebuild the city with bricks and stones after the Great Fire? A. To reduce building costs. B. To make houses stronger. C. To keep fleas out of the city. D. To stop the plague spreading. 第二节(共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 For most Americans, plastic bags are a necessary part of any shopping trip. 36 But plastic bags that end up in oceans and on beaches are harmful to fish, birds and other wildlife. Several cities around America have either banned single-use plastic bags or taxed (对……征税) them to limit their use. Those who support the tax on plastic bags say it encourages people to bring reusable bags.37 But critics argue that taxing the use of plastic bags puts unfair stress on low-income families. Here two students share their views. Grant Gordinier, 11, from San Diego,California, says,“ 38 Every year, billions of plastic bags are not recycled. Some end up in the ocean and can cause harm to sea life. Placing a small tax on plastic bags might encourage shoppers to bring their own reusable bags to stores. Reusable bags would cut down on waste in the environment.Businesses would also save money by not having to provide plastic bags for customers.” However, Elle Belpério, 12, from LosAngeles, California, has different opinions.“ 39 Some grocery stores have bins for shoppers to recycle used bags. Other stores attach importance to individual efforts. They give a small refund every time a shopper uses his or her own bag. If you reuse and recycle your plastic bag properly, you will not be hurting the environment. I know many families reuse them to pick up after their dogs. 40 Instead, the government should educate people in ways to reuse and recycle them.” A. New York City also bans plastic bags. B. There are many ways to reuse plastic bags. C. In my home, we find many uses for the bags. D. Besides, they think it helps cut down on waste. E. Communities should limit the use of plastic bags. F. I don't think communities should tax plastic bags. G. Many people seldom think of the bags’ influence on the environment. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 The sun was beginning to sink as I set off into the Harenna Forest. I was on my way to see a unique honey 41 . Here, in southeastern Ethiopia,hand-carved beehives (蜂箱) are placed in the 42 . Reaching them to get the honey is difficult ——and often 43 . I 44 beekeeper Ziyad over a wide stretch of grassland before entering a thick jungle. Ziyad began preparations. He 45 handfuls of tree leaves, wrapped them with string, and 46 the bunch to create a torch (火把). Then, with one end of a rope tied to his waist and the other end around the trunk of a tree, Ziyad began 47 . He stopped every few minutes to move the 48 higher up the tree trunk. 49 , Ziyad got close to the hive which was around 20 metres above the ground. Sitting on a branch, he 50 towards it carefully and slowlyand blew the smoke from his torch into a tiny hole in the hive. Suddenly, Ziyad let out a sharp cry.Within seconds, he’ d 51 the trunk and was back on the ground.It was too 52 to collect the honey. A cool summer had delayed 53 . Baby bees were still in the honeycombs (蜂巢). The adult bees were 54 and kept attacking as Ziyad escaped from the tree. He had to wait for the right 55 to go back up. 41. A. production B. adventure C. celebration D. harvest 42. A. courtyards B. fields C. treetops D. caves 43. A. urgent B. dangerous C. expensive D. pointless 44. A. searched B. recognised C. followed D. invited 45. A. gathered B. cleaned C. dropped D. checked 46. A. shook B. lit C. measured D. decorated 47. A. jumping B. talking C. testing D. climbing 48. A. hives B. leaves C. rope D. honey 49. A. Finally B. Surprisingly C. Naturally D. Immediately 50. A. backed B. dived C. jumped D. moved 51. A. cut off B. gone up C. slid down D. held on to 52. A. high B. early C. fast D. close 53. A. hatching B. training C. sowing D. trading 54. A. curious B. hungry C. bored D. angry 55. A. moment B. equipment C. person D. order 第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Our world has been greatly affected by global warming and it is critical that people, young and old, join hands to fight it. Most 56. (important), children today should learn to be eco-friendly at a young age. It is believed that the nation should ask schools57. (have) a class about“green living”.Every school should teach students to know about global warming and what they can do to reduce their carbon footprints. In class, students should be assigned to find several 58. (solve) to energy problems while learning about their effects 59. the Earth. Students also should 60. (encourage) to use what they learnt in class at home. Too many people think that global warming is not a threat, but it is one of our 61. (big)problems. Steps 62. (take) to be“green”in the school are very effective. What would children be learning if the school's lights were always left on and there were no recycling bins? Green living and green schools are part of 63. new wave sweeping the nation. Living in a community 64. protecting the environment is considered important, people should devote 65. _________(they) to dealing with global warming. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 为了向全世界展示绿色中国，学生会倡议每位同学围绕“如何进行低碳生活”用英语写一篇文章，介绍自己如何从身边的小事做起，尝试进行低碳生活。内容包括： 1.离开房间前，及时关掉电脑和其他电器设备； 2.使用后，关掉水龙头； 3.外出时，最好步行或乘坐公共交通工具； 4.用布袋等代替塑料袋。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.开头已给出，不计入总词数； 3.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 How to live a low-carbon life As we all know, having a low-carbon life will be very important to us. 第二节(满分25分) 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 It was a bright summer's day. The weather was pleasant, but the wind from the Sahara made it extremely hot and wet. A ship stopped off the coast of Africa. The seagulls were circling overhead and crying loudly. In the distance, several dolphins were jumping out of the water at times to create a big white wave. Just before sunset, the captain came on deck and called out,“Time for a swim.” Immediately sailors jumped into the water,lowered a canvas mat (帆布垫) and made it into a swimming pool. They had been waiting for this moment the whole day. There were two young boys on the ship. They both jumped in, but swam out into the open sea since it was too crowded inside the“pool”. They played and chased (追逐) each other in the open sea. Their fathers cheered them on, often urging one of the boys to prove his bravery over the other. Suddenly, something grey from a distance was coming closer and closer. Somebody from the deck called out,“Shark! Shark!” The fin was moving faster. Confusion and panic arose, and everyone climbed to safety. Everyone, except the two boys.They hadn't heard the shouts. The shark was moving towards the boys. The captain shouted,“Come back, my boys!There is a shark out there!” One of the boys was his son. For the first time in his life, he didn't know what to do. He could not think clearly. The captain's face became white as a sheet. He could feel his legs were shaking so badly that he nearly fell to the ground. The people on the deck screamed wildly. But the boys could not hear them. They continued to play and to swim, unaware of the danger approaching them fast. Some sailors lowered a boat, jumped into it and attempted to row towards the boys. 注意： 续写词数应为150左右。 Paragraph 1: Just then, one of the boys looked back and saw the large animal he knew too well. Paragraph 2: Their screams brought the captain back to his senses. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 综合检测卷 第一部分 听力 1-5 CCBAC 6-10 ACCAC 11-15 CCBBB 16-20 AABCB 第二部分 阅读 第一节 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. B 26. B 27. A 28. B29. C 30. A 31. A 32. C 33. B 34. C 35. C 第二节 36. E 37. G 38. B 39. A 40. F 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 41. B 42. C 43. D 44. B 45. A 46. C 47. C 48. D49. C 50. C 51. A 52. A 53. A 54. B 55. D 第二节 56. naturally 57. to have 58. are 59. in 60. a 61. worse62. relaxed 63. looking 64. eyes 65. which 第四部分 写作 第一节 One possible version: Dear Tom, I'm glad to hear that you are interested in traditional Chinese festivals. My favourite festival is the Mid-Autumn Festival. It usually comes in September or October. On that day, our family members usually get together and have a nice meal. After that, Ialways watch the moon and share mooncakes with my family. I love this festival because I like eating mooncakes. They are in the shape of a full moon. They carry people's wishes to the family members they love and miss. In short, the Mid-AutumnFestival is a special day of pleasure and happiness. I hope that my letter will help you know more about traditional Chinese festivals. Best wishes to you. Yours, Li Hua 第二节 One possible version: Paragraph 1: Having given me an address, a hospice, she asked,“Could you drive through downtown?” Asked why we didn't take the shortest way, the small woman told me it was the last chance for her to visit the city. We drove through the neighbourhood where she and her husband had lived. Besides, she asked me to slow down in front of a particular building or corner and would sit staring into the darkness, saying nothing. At last, she said she was tired and wanted to go to the hospice. Paragraph 2: We drove in silence to the address she had given me. It was a low building, where the old woman would live the rest of her life. Two nurses who must have been expecting her came out to the taxi as soon as we pulled up. I took the suitcase to the door and the woman was already seated in a wheelchair. When she asked how much she owed me, without thinking, I said nothing and bent to give her a hug. It was my assistance that helped the weak woman realise her wish. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 3 单元检测卷 时间:120分钟 满分:150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5 小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does Jim do? A. A teacher. B. An officer. C. A student. 2. What time did Suzy leave home? A. At 4:30. B. At 5:00. C. At 5:15. 3. What are the speakers talking about? A. Their own exhibition. B. The plan for today. C. A talk show. 4. How long has the rain probably lasted? A. Five days. B. Six days. C. Seven days. 5. What do the speakers think of their chemistry course? A. It's perfect. B. It's well organised. C. It's unsatisfactory. 第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Where does this conversation take place? A. In a library. B. In a classroom. C. In a bookshop. 7. Why is William Shakespeare mentioned in the conversation? A. He gave presents to millions of people. B. He was a wealthy man in his times. C. His signature is worth a lot of money. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Whom is the man asking for help? A. A policewoman. B. A passerby. C. A waitress. 9. What is the man looking for? A. A comfortable hotel. B. An inexpensive hotel. C. A modern hotel. 10. How long will the man stay in the hotel? A. One night. B. Two nights. C. Three nights. 听第8段材料，回答第11 至13题。 11. Why does the woman talk with the man? A. To make an invitation. B. To get some advice. C. To offer help. 12. What does the man plan to do on Saturday? A. Go climbing. B. Stay at home. C. Help his sister move. 13. Where will the woman go this evening? A. The man's house. B. Her mother's home. C. A restaurant. 听第9段材料，回答第14 至 17题。 14. What is Lisa doing? A. Listening to music. B. Seeing a film. C. Writing a letter. 15. How long will Lisa stay in Japan? A. For a year. B. For a month. C. For two years. 16. What will Lisa do before going to Japan? A. Read more Japanese novels. B. Attend a language class. C. Apply for a new programme. 17. According to Lisa, what matters most about getting into a programme? A. The mastery of a foreign language. B. The ability to learn new things quickly. C. The experiences of studying abroad. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. Why does the speaker give this talk? A. To introduce the Irish Pub. B. To inform the listeners of some changes. C. To tell the arrangements for the day. 19. Where is the LaFleur Club located? A. It's behind the Rodolfo Club. B. It's very far from the office. C. It's opposite a gallery. 20. How does the speaker suggest the listeners get to the party? A. By bus. B. By subway. C. By car. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分,满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A There is no chance of children getting bored in the holidays with these action-packed weeks of fun and games. Days begin with team building activities to help“break the ice” and get the children in the mood. The wonderfully safe and secure environment of Port Regis enables the children to explore the woods and enjoy their own creative play. Week 1 Festival of Sport (22 July to 26 July) The summer activities kick off with a wonderful week of sporting fun including cricket, athletics and other great team games. Swims in the pool and games in the gym. Week 2 Let's Go Wild (29 July to 2 August) A whole week in the great outdoors with treasure hunts and cave building along with amazing team games in the woods. This week guarantees to be like no other. Navigate yourself through the huge spiders’ web and guide balls through the huge ball maze... This is a great week for making new friends. Week 3 Sports Madness (5 August to 9 August) A wild and strange week of tournaments and team games, but be careful, for you might get wet!Arts and crafts, fun in the gym and swims in the pool make this a hard week. Besides exhaustion,you'd better learn to get used to challenges and accept any result. Activities will be dependent on the weather. Week 4 Medal Medley (12 August to 16August) This week reruns the best bits of the last three weeks with great team games and tournaments,action-packed ball sports, fun in the pool and adventures in the woods. Children will need to bring: Swimming kit, plenty to drink and break snacks.Depending on the weather, children will need either sunscreen and sun hats or rain gear (雨具). 21. Which activity will be unique? A. Swims in the Pool. B. Let's Go Wild. C. Festival of Sport. D. Sports Madness. 22. When can children review the activities they had before? A. From 22 July to 26 July. B. From 29 July to 2 August. C. From 5 August to 9 August. D. From 12 August to 16 August. 23. What can we learn from the passage? A. Children will be provided with snacks to eat. B. Children must wear sunscreen or sun hats. C. Children need to prepare for rainy days. D. Children have to drink a lot before swimming. B A blind skateboarder has proven that his lack of sight won't stop him from living a normal life —— and now he's learnt some of the most complicated tricks. Dan Mancina was diagnosed with a rare genetic disease at 13 and it causes loss of vision. Around five years ago, Dan lost his vision completely and now is defined as a blind person —— but refuses to let it hold him back. Dan said that he was discouraged by other people's behaviour and was determined to prove people wrong, so he started skateboarding,practised every day, and soon he was landing trick after trick. Dan started performing tricks that some might not expect a blind person to be able to do —— like throwing darts(飞镖). He said he felt a need to prove himself to those who doubted his abilities. SoDan, who has been skateboarding since he was seven years old, recently posted a video of himself performing a trick on the Internet. The experience reminded him of his love for the sport and inspired him to continue pursuing his passion, but now his methods are somewhat different. Before skating at a park, Dan uses a stick to measure the different ramps (人造斜坡) and corners, and get a feel for the area. He also uses a beeper box or a Bluetooth speaker to bounce the sounds off anything in the environment —— such as a nearby road —— warning him of any dangers in the area. The skateboarder said,“I get a mental map of the area where I am and use every other sense Ihave. I'm always trying to progress and keep pushingmyself further and further. I have certain goals that Iwant to achieve. One day I want to film full-length skateboard videos without any cuts. That's really my goal.”24. What happened to Dan Mancina when he was thirteen? A. He became completely blind. B. He suffered from an unusual eye disease. C. He was not allowed to skateboard. D. He got injured while skateboarding. 25. Why did Dan perform complicated tricks? A. To shoot a video about his success in life. B. To become the focus of public attention. C. To achieve his childhood dream. D. To show he could live a normal life. 26. What does Paragraph 4 mainly talk about? A. Dan's training field. B. Dan's passion for sport. C. Dan's training equipment. D. Dan's preparations for skateboarding. 27. What can we learn from the story? A. Nothing is impossible to a willing heart. B. A good beginning makes a good ending. C. He who laughs last laughs best. D. All that ends well is well. C The roots of basketball are deep in Canada. In1891 the game was invented by Dr James Naismith,who was born in Ontario, Canada. Having been given the task of creating a new indoor sports activity while conducting a physical education class at an international training school inSpringfield, Massachusetts, Naismith designed what we now call basketball. The original game involved13 basic rules and a peach basket hung about 3metres above the floor. It soon became popular,spreading through the world. Basketball played by school and local amateur teams has been part of the Canadian sports scene since the turn of the century. Basketball teams representing Canada have entered the OlympicGames since 1936. One of the most storied amateur teams inCanadian basketball history is the Edmonton Grads,a group of Canadian women who dominated the sport in the 1920s, 30s and 40s. Over 25 years, theGrads played more than 400 games at home and abroad, against both women's and men's teams.While a definite number may never be achieved,there is no doubt that the Grads were an exceptional team, winning around 95 per cent of their games. The National Basketball Association (NBA)also has origins in Canada. The NBA's first game was played in Toronto on 1 November 1946 when theNew York Knickerbockers defeated the TorontoHuskies 68-66 at Maple Leaf Gardens. The teams were part of the Basketball Association of America(BAA), the forerunner to the NBA. 28. Why was basketball created as a physical activity? A. Canada desired to be a forerunner in sports. B. A new indoor activity was needed inMassachusetts. C. Students from Canada needed physical exercise. D. James Naismith was a teacher of physical education. 29. What does the underlined word“dominated”mean in Paragraph 4? A. Contributed to. B. Took an interest in. C. Took the lead in. D. Took part in. 30. What can be inferred about the Grads according to Paragraph 4? A. The Grads won about 68 games. B. The Grads had men and women players. C. The Grads were active in the 1960s. D. The Grads seldom lost the games. 31. What can be the best title for the passage? A. BAA and NBA B. The origin of NBA C. NBA and the Olympic Games D. The history of basketball in Canada D Wasting things is a nightmare (噩梦) for the environment, especially food waste, which does double harm to the environment. Plenty of resources go into the food and the food system also produces lots of greenhouse gases and pollution. In our homes, restaurants, and food shops,about 17 per cent of all our food is thrown away——that's about a sixth of all of the food we have. If the food lost in production is included, about a third of all food produced never reaches a mouth. Every year, millions of people are affected by hunger.Even more—— one in three—— can suffer from some form of malnutrition. It is mostly households that are to blame: 11 per cent of the food ends up in the rubbish of our homes, much more than that in stores and restaurants. The reasons why food goes to waste are probably familiar to you: dinner party leftovers that never get eaten, food going bad before you cook it,or simply confusion over sell-by dates (销售期限)and expiry dates (到期日) that leads to totally fine food ending up in the rubbish. Most countries are taking measures to cut food waste in half at the consumer and sale levels.Luckily, there's actually a lot we can do as individuals and governments can make policies to help people and the environment a lot. For individuals, it is important to be more thoughtful and prepared when we go to the supermarket. Make a list of meals you want to cook, and then only buy fresh produce that you will 100 per cent be eating in the next few days. In the social aspect, improving education on how to preserve (保存) food and understand tricky labels, encouraging food recycling and pushing companies to sell smaller quantities of healthy, fresh food for one or two people could all play a helpful role in bringing down the massive pile of eatable waste. 32. Which of the following contributes most to food waste? A. Food shops. B. Restaurants. C. Households. D. Food production. 33. What is partly responsible for food waste? A. People eat less than before. B. The food price is low. C. Food goes bad easily during the summer. D. People are confused about the shelf life (保存期) of food. 34. What is the author's advice on how to deal with food waste? A. Supermarkets should supply limited food. B. Everyone should eat as little food as possible. C. People should raise their awareness of food conservation. D. Governments should distribute (分配) food resources fairly. 35. In which section of a newspaper may this passage appear? A. Health. B. Fashion. C. Environment. D. Science. 第二节(共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Benefits of team sports Team sports are sports that require manyplayers such as football, basketball and volleyball and they offer many great benefits. 36 Instead,they desire to have their children succeed in individual sports. The following are major benefits of taking part in team sports.Team sports improve leadership abilities. Team sports are very vital in helping children develop their leadership abilities. 37 It is very important for every player in any team sport to be aware of their roles in the class of leadership. Players also learn the importance of supporting the leader, thereby promoting the efficiency of the team. Team sports promote responsibility. 38 In most schools, there are academic expectations required from all players. Parents do not allow their children to take team sports unless they complete their schoolwork. 39 Team sports such as football and basketball are a great method of exercising as they involve constant running as well as other activities that work every muscle in your body. It can therefore help children manage their weight and get fitter.Furthermore, team sports are particularly effective for exercising leg muscles. Team sports have social benefits. There is always a great sense of loyalty (忠诚) to the team and this strengthens social relationships. This also hugely inspires a child's social life since he or she is going to make many new friends. Team sports also enhance self-respect and therefore increase happiness. 40 The shortcomings of team sports are that you are required to share many things when you are a member of a team and that you might be easily overshadowed (使相形见绌) if the other players are better than you. A. Team sports are an effective workout. B. Happy people are able to socialise more easily. C. Sometimes parents and guardians overlook team sports. D. Team sports help develop critical thinking skills. E. In fact, most children gain leadership due to their abilities in a team. F. Similar to other sports, team sports teach the players how to become more responsible in their lives. G. The only choice is to move forwards, follow the plan, and work hard to recover. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)第一节(共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 When Trevor was born, there was something wrong with his eyes. As time goes by, he could see 41 but light. On the other hand, Melanie was born with a kind of disease, which made her 42 the ability to walk. Trevor always loved outdoor sports and continued 43 them even after he became a blind man. As a kid, Melanie often spent her time camping and 44 the outdoors while she was in a carrier on someone's back. Knowing all of these about each other, the pair 45 a brilliant idea — with their strengths 46 , they would climb the mountains together! Before the start of each 47 , Melanie,secure in a carrier, is always lifted by a friend or a fellow hiker onto Trevor's back. Her role is to give 48 to her partner as they move forwards on the road. “I 49 everything I see and tell Trevor 50 how he needs to move,” Melanie said of their hiking method.“ He’ s the legs, and I’ m theeyes! Together, we’ re the 51 team.”“It makes me so happy to help someone experience what I' ve been able to 52 in my whole life. Just getting on the top of a mountain which a car can't get to, you just feel that sense of 53 . The best part is being able to make her smile, which gives me motivation,” Trevor said. To them, the best part about 54 as a pair is that they get to give each other the 55 to accomplish something that others might believe is impossible. 41. A. anything B. nothing C. everything D. something 42. A. lose B. suspect C. cure D. remind 43. A. dropping off B. succeeding in C. engaging in D. turning down 44. A. explaining B. predicting C. imagining D. exploring 45. A. put up with B. came up with C. got out of D. ran out of 46.A.compared B. exhausted C.combined D. separated 47. A. journey B. class C. meeting D. conversation 48. A. speeches B. applause C. food D. directions 49. A. describe B. discover C. correct D. create 50. A. curiously B. roughly C. exactly D. regularly 51. A. construction B. dream C. intention D. research 52. A. go against B. go over C. go off D. go through 53. A. humour B. responsibility C. accomplishment D. relief 54. A. talking B. hiking C. growing D. cheating 55. A. opportunity B. promise C. recommendation D. request 第二节(共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Every sport has its own specific health benefits.Swimming, for example, is an excellent physical activity as nearly all muscles 56. (use)when you swim. As a result, it provides a terrific full-body workout, improving balance, muscle strength and flexibility (灵活性). Sport, as well as being a physical activity,57. (have) a mental aspect, too. It can help define who you are and who you can become.Sport forms character and promotes the development of 58. number of qualities that are essential for a successful life. Included here are three qualities worthy of special 59. (consider). Firstly, sport requires self-discipline, without60. there will always be the temptation to simply give up. Secondly, sport will encourage you to maintain a positive and 61. (relax)attitude. Everyone has 62. (they) ups and downs and, therefore, a big part of life means having to deal with success and failure.63. (take) part in a competitive sport will help you understand that winning a competition does not make you superior to everyone else.64. ( final), sport will help you understand the importance of teamwork. It will show you that you often need to rely 65. others for your success and, similarly, you also have a responsibility to contribute to others’ success. The world of sport is a fairground of exciting opportunities where you can discover your true self. Time, I think, to lace up your sports shoes and go play! 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 假定你是李华，你所在的校乒乓球队正在招收新队员。请你给你的留学生朋友 Eric 写封邮件，邀请他参加。内容包括： 1.邀请原因； 2.球队活动； 3.报名方式及截止日期。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 第二节(满分25分) 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 It was a couple of weeks after the midterm during the second semester of my freshman year when the stress really started to hit me. The difficulty of my classes was not in itself enough to be too much for me, but combined with more responsibilities at work, money worries, and my own desire to be perfect that would accept nothing less than an A in any subject, my nerves were frayed. I had tried calming my mind many times, but with little success. It is not in my nature to sit still for long and I was having a hard time focusing on my breathing with my mind so full of“x+y” and the endless stream of exams. It became an effort just to get out of bed in the morning. That was until one day a friend from my class suggested that I take up running. She had been told the year before that she had a medical condition, and as a result, her doctor advised her to lose some weight. She had first taken up running with that goal in mind. She was surprised after only a couple of months to find that the benefits of the exercise went far beyond losing a few pounds.She insisted that after a run she felt more awake,more energetic and less stressed out in general.“Just try it. Twenty minutes a day and I promise it will change your life.”“Twenty minutes,” Ireplied,“I'm lucky if I have five minutes to brush my teeth. I just don't have the time.”“Make the time,” she said. So I did. The idea of running did interest me. I liked to be active and I had always wanted to give it a try.Since worries usually woke me before my alarm in the mornings anyway, I figured that instead of lying awake for half an hour worrying about tests, I could at least make good use of the time. The night before my first try, I placed my running shoes by the door,with mixed feelings of self- doubt and hope. 注意： 续写词数应为150左右。 Paragraph 1: However, my first attempt ended before it really began. Paragraph 2: Weeks later, as I kept running, the weight on my shoulders gradually lifted (消散). 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 5 单元检测卷 第一部分 听力 1-5AABCB 6-10CBBBA 11-15CABCA 16-20CACCA 第二部分 阅读 第一节 21. B 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. B29. C 30. A 31. A 32. D 33. C 34. B 35. A 第二节 36. C 37. F 38. E 39. A 40. B 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 41. C 42. D 43. A 44. A 45. B 46. D 47. A 48. C49. C 50. B 51. D 52. D 53. A 54. C 55. B 第二节 56. be shaped 57. into 58. controlling 59. to explore 60. it 61. found 62. anxious 63. who/ that 64. freely 65. less 第四部分 写作 第一节 One possible version: Dear Mary, I went to climb the Great Wall with my parents during the summer vacation. I'm so glad to hear that you are interested in this trip. I' ll tell you as much about it as I can. The Great Wall is one of the greatest wonders of the world which attracts lots of tourists every day. It runs across the mountains like a dragon. When we arrived there, we were so excited that we started climbing immediately. The steps sometimes were flat, but sometimes steep. After two hours of climbing, we finally got to the top. I enjoyed the beauty of the mountains and took a lot of photos. I felt really proud and thought of the famous saying,“He who has never been to the Great Wall is not a true man”.If you come to China, I' ll be glad to take you to the Great Wall so that you can appreciate its beauty. Yours, Li Hua 第二节 One possible version: Paragraph 1: Seeing Jean's condition, the man jumped out to help.Shocked by her terrible state, the couple didn't hesitate to offer assistance. They gently lifted Jean up and laid her on the back seat of the car, covering her with a warm blanket to keep her from freezing in the cold weather. The man drove at top speed towards the nearest hospital while his wife comforted Jean softly, trying to keep her awake. Thanks to their timely rescue,Jean was sent to the emergency room and received professional treatment immediately. Paragraph 2: As soon as Jean left the hospital, she managed to get the couple's address. She prepared a delicate thank-you gift and paid a visit to them sincerely. Jean expressed her heartfelt gratitude repeatedly, saying that she could never have survived the terrible accident without their selfless help. The couple smiled and told her that it was just what anyone would do. This unforgettable experience not only saved Jean's life, but also made her believe deeply in the warmth and kindness of strangers. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 5 单元检测卷 时间:120分钟 满分:150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What colour clothes does the woman like best? A. Pink. B. Blue. C. White. 2. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a restaurant. B. In a shop. C. At a school. 3. How long has the woman been waiting for the bus? A. For 15 minutes. B. For 30 minutes. C. For 45 minutes. 4. What is the man going to do at 7:00 pm? A. Play tennis. B. Have a big dinner. C. See a film. 5. What does Mary say about the homework? A. It is a bit difficult. B. It didn't take her long to finish it. C. She hasn't finished it yet. 第二节(共15 小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料，回答第6至8题。 6. What are the speakers talking about? A. Buying groceries. B. Seeing friends. C. Choosing gifts. 7. Who is Clara? A. The man's wife. B. The man's daughter. C. The man's sister. 8. How much did the man spend on the city passes? A. $50. B. $150. C. $212. 听第7段材料，回答第9至11题。 9. What do we know about Bob? A. He loves learning Chinese best. B. He speaks several languages. C. He is from Germany. 10. What is the second most-spoken language inBob's country? A. Polish. B. Chinese. C. French. 11. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Fellow workers. B. Host and guest. C. Schoolmates. 听第8段材料，回答第12 至14题。 12. Where did the man know about the flat? A. From the newspaper. B. From his friend. C. From the Internet. 13. How many bedrooms does the flat have? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. 14. When can the man move in if he accepts everything? A. On 1 August. B. On 31 August. C. On or after 1 September. 听第9段材料，回答第15至17题。 15. What's the woman doing for the sports day? A. Making a timetable for the events. B. Making a standard for the events. C. Writing a report about the athletes. 16. What is the last event the students have before lunch? A. The long- distance race. B. The throwing events. C. The jumping events. 17. What does the man say about the 100 metres race? A. It is more exciting than any other event. B. It takes place at 6:00 pm. C. It demands less energy. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. Where did Hank and his family live before? A. In a small village. B. In a big city. C. In a small town. 19. Why did Hank take his new car out of the garage? A. To show it to his neighbours. B. To have it repaired. C. To wash it. 20. When does Jane need the car? A. When there is a party in town. B. When she goes shopping. C. When there is a football game. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Philadelphia offers a lot of attractions that are suitable for people of every age and here are some family- friendly attractions. Spruce Street Harbor Park Spruce Street Harbor Park, one of the best urban beaches in America, is an outdoor heaven onthe Delaware River Waterfront. Visitors can relax in a hammock (吊床), play in the playgrounds, and play games. Don't miss out on the park at night,when colorful LED lights hanging from treetops make the entire area bright.Blue Cross RiverRink Offering outdoor roller skating and other outdoor activities, Blue Cross RiverRink creates a fun,outdoor experience for the whole family. Visitors can play on the mini- golf course, and enjoy food and drinks there. Sesame Place Big Bird, Elmo and the other stars of SesameStreet come out and play at Sesame Place, the theme park in the nation starring the popular TV show's most lovable characters. A water park, interactive activities, parades, fireworks and shows add to the fun. Once Upon a Nation Storytelling Benches Uniformed and professional storytellers at storytelling benches throughout Philadelphia’ sHistoric District entertain visitors with true, free,three - to five- minute tales and secret stories.Children can pick up a Story Flag at any storytelling bench, and then collect a star from every storyteller on their journeys. Flags with all the stars can be exchanged for free rides on the Parx Liberty Carousel at Franklin Square. 21. Which place will you choose if you want your child to be exposed to stories? A. Sesame Place. B. Once Upon a Nation Storytelling Benches. C. Spruce Street Harbor Park. D. Blue Cross RiverRink. 22. What do these four attractions have in common? A. All of them have outdoor water activities. B. All of them provide visitors with free rides. C. All of them are suitable for the family outing. D. All of them provide visitors with a golf course. 23. Where is the passage probably from? A. A travel brochure. B. A history book. C. A news report. D. An art magazine. B As Ginni Bazlinton reached Antarctica, she found herself greeted by a group of little Gentoo penguins (企鹅) longing to say hello. These gentle,lovely gatekeepers welcomed her and kick- started (促进) what was to be a trip Ginni would never forget. Ever since her childhood, Ginni, now in her70s, has had a deep love for travel. Throughout her career as a professional dancer, she toured in theUK, but always longed to explore further. When she retired from dancing and her sons eventually flew the nest, she decided it was time to take the plunge. After graduating from university, Ginni began to travel around the world, eventually getting work teaching English in Japan and Chile. And it was inChile she discovered she could get last- minute cheap deals on ships going to Antarctica.“I just decided Iwanted to go,” she says.“I had no idea about whatI'd find there and I wasn't nervous. I just wanted to do it. And I wanted to do it alone as I always prefer it that way.” In March 2008, Ginni boarded a ship with some passengers she’ d never met before, to begin the journey towards Antarctica.“From seeing the wildlife to witnessing sunrises, the whole experience was amazing. Antarctica left an impression on me that no other place has,” Ginni says.“I remember the first time I saw a humpback whale (座头鲸); it just rose out of the water like some prehistoric creature and I thought it was smiling at us. You could still hear the operatic sounds it was making underwater.” The realisation that this is a precious land, to be respected by humans, was one of the biggest things that hit home to Ginni. 24. Which of the following best explains the underlined phrase“take the plunge” in Paragraph 2? A. Take a degree. B. Try challenging things. C. Bring back lost memories. D. Stick to a promise. 25. What made Ginni decide on the trip toAntarctica? A. The cheap fare. B. Lovely penguins. C. Beautiful scenery. D. A friend's invitation. 26. What does Ginni think about Antarctica after the journey? A. It could be a home for her. B. It should be easily reached. C. It should be well protected. D. It needs to be fully introduced. 27. What is the main idea of the passage? A. A childhood dream. B. Sailing around the world. C. Meeting animals in Antarctica. D. An unforgettable experience. C You may have heard adults say they are uncomfortable in the morning without a cup of coffee. One reason they may feel that way is that coffee contains caffeine (咖啡因). Caffeine appears naturally in coffee, tea, and cocoa beans, which are used to make chocolate. But now food makers are adding it to many products, from potato chips to water. The American government is especially worried about the problem. That's why the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is studying the health effects of caffeine on young people. Studies show that too much caffeine can make people nervous and unable to sleep. What's more, caffeine is habit-forming.Those who consume it regularly and stop suddenly may experience headaches and feel tired. One of the biggest concerns is the large amount of caffeine added to so-called energy drinks. A340.2-gram can of cola has about 32 milligrams of caffeine. A similar serving of a kind of energy drink contains more than three times that amount. An American organization is also working on caffeine-safety measures. “ Teenagers should not drink beverages (饮料) that contain caffeine. They should be aware of caffeine's effects on health and on how the brain works. Take, for example, teenagers who consume caffeine to stay awake and study for a test. They will remember less of what they just studied,” said a member of the organization. Companies that make products with added caffeine claim (声称) they do not advertise them to kids. However, there is no law to stop kids from buying them. So the FDA needs to set limits on caffeine, especially in energy drinks. As for added caffeine in foods, the government should just say no. If not, the amount of caffeine should be printed on food labels to remind consumers. The government must do that. Doctors say kids should avoid caffeine. If you need extra energy, try these natural boosters: eat right, exercise, and get plenty of sleep. 28. What is the American government particularly concerned about? A. The fact that coffee contains caffeine. B. The practice of adding caffeine to foods. C. The measures of avoiding caffeine's effects. D. The practice of using caffeine to make tea. 29. Why energy drinks are mentioned in Paragraph 3? A. To show caffeine's effects on health. B. To show teenagers' addiction to caffeine. C. To show drinks which contain much caffeine. D. To show people's concern about teenagers'health. 30. What is Paragraph 5 mainly about? A. The measures of protecting teenagers from caffeine's effects. B. The process of the government's controlling the use of caffeine. C. The government's responsibility for taking care of teenagers. D. The risk of buying products containing caffeine nowadays. 31. Which of the following may the author agree with? A. Getting enough sleep can make people energetic. B. Headaches and feeling tired are common among teenagers. C. Food makers don't add much caffeine to many products now. D. Caffeine is good and useful for teenagers’study. D We all want to believe that laughter is good for our health, but the scientific evidence backing that up is thin. Most studies have been small and have relied on self-reported assessments (评估). However, a few studies relying on lab tests do show some benefits.“A big laugh leads to the release of endorphins (chemicals produced by your body that reduce pain and can make you feel happier) from the brain,” said Michael Miller from a medical centre. A study by Miller measured the blood flow of 20 volunteers before and after watching a funny film and a sad film. After watching the sad film, blood flow was more restricted (受限制的) in 14 of the 20viewers. But after watching the film that made them laugh, average blood flow increased by 22 per cent. Funding for laughter and humour research is low —— so low that when Mary Bennett, director of a school of nursing, wanted to look into the effect of laughter on the immune system (免疫系统), she found herself actually asking other researchers for equipment from their labs.“It's really hard to get taken seriously when you say you study laughter,”she said. But her study of 33 healthy women showed that those who laughed at a humorous film had higher levels of natural killer cell activity (自然杀伤细胞活性), which increased their ability to fight off disease. However, the effect was seen only in the subjects who laughed out loud, not in those who quietly watched the comedy. But most of the research on laughter and health depends on personal feelings or opinions rather than scientific facts. One study of 70 depressed elderly women found that laughter yoga was just as effective as exercise in improving their mood. When Bennett is asked whether laughter cures or prevents any disease, her quick answer is a simple“No”. Still, she adds,“I think it's a useful adjunct (附属物) to real medicine. If you' re receiving medical treatment, you can do things that make you happy to help you stay healthy and that would be useful.” 32. What does Miller's study show? A. Funny films may cause blood problems. B. Endorphins may make people happier. C. Sad films are harmful to patients. D. Laughter may benefit health. 33. What is a difficult problem for Bennett? A. How to lead a research team. B. How to study laughter and humour. C. How to get support for her research. D. How to do research on the immune system. 34. Who got health benefits from watching comedies in Bennett's study? A. Those who watched them quietly. B. Those who laughed aloud. C. Those who often watched them. D. Those who watched them alone. 35. What does Bennett say about laughter? A. It is effective in a limited way. B. It can only cure some diseases. C. It may replace some real medicine. D. It will become a popular treatment. 第二节(共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 We all know the benefits of regular physical activity. But many people don't take exercise every day. Even some say they don't enjoy exercise. 36 Here are some tips. Find the exercise that best fits your personality. 37 Take a group exercise class, join a football team or walk with a group of friends. If you prefer staying alone, jogging or yoga will be fitter for you. Make it a habit. It can take a little while for something to become a habit. 38 One way is to try to exercise at the same time each day.“Exercise can become addictive in a positive way,” said a doctor. 39 There are many ways to fit exercise into your life. You can find some exercise videos online.Do weight training with things around your home.Take a brief walk after dinner. And if you go to school or work by bus, get off the bus earlier and walk the rest of the way. Keep going. If you miss a day, don't worry about it. 40 Just make sure you get back the next day. It's easy to make something a habit again.You will see the same benefits. And any little bit of exercise you do will show benefits. A. Build exercise into your lifestyle. B. Everybody struggles once in a while. C. So how can you make exercise pleasant? D. Break up your physical activity into smaller parts. E. Therefore, give yourself the time to create an exercise routine. F. If you are a social person, do something that attracts you socially. G. Finding a peer(同龄人) group is the perfect way to share your goals and hobbies. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15 小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 After university I decided to volunteer for theSpecial Olympics. In fact I had no experience working with people with intellectual 41 , and little did I know that would 42 me so deeply. When I arrived at the event, the director of theSpecial Olympics took me to meet Vernon, a24-year-old young man with Down's syndrome (唐氏综合征). I introduced myself and 43 how much I enjoyed sport. But Vernon looked down most of the time and didn't say much. I wondered whether he was 44 or didn't understand what I was saying. 45 , I just tried to inspire him. He started to make his way around the 46 one lap after another. I cheered him on, yelling“Go.Vernon!” I never thought something remarkable wouldhappen. He 47 towards the finishing line and then ran towards me with a big bear hug. While feeling his 48 , I held him in my arms. He looked up at me with 49 eyes, yelling.“Coach! Coach! You inspire me! I made it.”At that moment, all of my misconceptions about him suddenly 50 . It seemed that Vernon was the one who 51 me. That day, Vernon did not win any 52 in the competitions, but his 53 passion for life encouraged me as he demonstrated that life is not about being the smartest, the strongest, or the best-looking. It's about 54 who they are and not drawing conclusions about what they cannot do because, given the 55 , people can surprise you in a good way. 41. A. qualities B. talents C. disabilities D. capabilities 42. A. beat B. delight C. catch D. impress 43. A. shared B. imagined C. indicated D.commented 44. A. uninterested B. annoyed C. worried D. concerned 45. A. Therefore B. Anyway C. Additionally D. Instead 46. A. line B. clock C. stadium D. track 47. A. dashed B. walked C. hiked D. departed 48. A. warmth B. motivation C. excitement D. inspiration 49. A. attractive B. mysterious C. bright D. magical 50. A. emerged B. disappeared C. formed D. deepened 51. A. seized B. blessed C.committed D. inspired 52. A. leaderships B. respects C. goals D. medals 53. A. infectious B. legendary C. mature D. innovative 54. A. rejecting B. neglecting C. accepting D. generating 55. A. investment B. opportunity C.compassion D. teamwork 第二节(共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 As Alison Gopnik described in her recent book, there are two kinds of parents in modernAmerica: the carpenter(木匠) and the gardener. The“carpenter” thinks that his or her child can 56. (shape).“The idea is that if you just do the right things, get the right skills and read the right books, you' re going to be able to turn your child 57. a particular kind of adult,” she said. The“gardener”, however, is seldom concerned about 58. (control) who the child will become and instead provides a protected space for his or her child 59. (explore). The style is all about creating a not only rich and nutritious but also diverse and active ecosystem. Gopnik, a psychology professor, said,“Many parents are carpenters, and 60. is really necessary for them to bring up their children.” She spent decades researching children's development and 61. (find) that parents often focused too much on who their children would be as adults.The harm is that parents and their children may become 62. (anxiety), tense or unhappy. “We' re concerned about our children 63. we think have difficulty mastering their own future.As a result, we' re unwilling to allow them to64. (free) explore the world,” she said.The truth is that the 65. (little) parents worry about outcomes, the better their children may live in life. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 假定你是李华，你将自己暑假期间和家人一起登长城的照片发布在了自己的博客上，你的外国朋友 Mary 对此非常感兴趣。请你写一封信向她简单叙述此次旅行的所见所闻。内容包括： 1.介绍旅行景点； 2.叙述旅行经历； 3.谈谈自己的感受。 注意： 写作词数应为80左右；1. 2.开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。 Dear Mary, I went to climb the Great Wall with my parents during the summer vacation. I'm so glad to hear that you are interested in this trip. I' ll tell you as much about it as I can. Yours, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Jean set off for a mountain trip in the SierraNevada, a famous mountainous area in California.She had a deep love for outdoor adventures (历险)and was always prepared for her trips. She had takenmany wild mountain trips there before, so she wasquite familiar with the local terrain (地形) and roadconditions. However, right after she climbed up to amountain top, a sudden terrible storm arrivedwithout any warning. It began to snow heavily atonce, and very soon, she found herself trapped inthe middle of a violent snowstorm. Standing at the highest point for kilometers around, Jean was at great risk of being hit by lightning. She gave up the original plan to go back along the fixed trail (小径) and chose to climb down the steep and icy mountain slope carefully,relying on her climbing experience and skills. Unluckily, during one difficult part on the way,Jean suddenly slipped and fell more than 30 meters down the rocky mountain. She was lucky enough to stay alive after the fall, but she suffered serious injuries, with many broken bones and terrible physical pain. Worse still, because of the extreme weather,there was no signal on her cellphone, which made it totally impossible for her to call anyone for help.Jean had no choice but to walk slowly through deep snow all the way back to the starting trailhead. Throughout the journey back, Jean suffered continuously from great pain. When she finally walked with difficulty into a parking lot, Jean immediately fell down to the ground. It had beenexactly one day since she fell down from the mountain. Her clothes were all covered with blood,and she was too tired to hold on, nearly passing out on the spot.Just then, a car pulled in. A man was driving,with his wife in the passenger seat. 注意： 续写词数应为150左右。 Paragraph 1: Seeing Jean's condition, the man jumped out to help. Paragraph 2: As soon as Jean left the hospital, she managed to get the couple's address. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 4 单元检测卷 第一部分 听力 1-5 CBBCC 6-10 AABAA 11-15 CCAAB 16-20 BCBAA 第二部分 阅读 第一节 21. C 22. C 23. D 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. B 28. C29. A 30. A 31. C 32. B 33. D 34. D 35. C 第二节 36. C 37. F 38. G 39. D 40. B 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 41. A 42. B 43. D 44. B 45. A 46. A 47. D 48. C49. B 50. D 51. A 52. C 53. A 54. B 55. D 第二节 56. to get 57. and 58. with 59. were rescued 60. where61. lucky 62. extremely 63. them 64. being 65. owner 第四部分 写作 第一节 One possible version: Dear David, I'm glad to tell you that I got two tickets for a performance ofPeking Opera in the City Theatre this Saturday evening. I'm writing to invite you to watch it with me. Peking Opera, which has a history of more than 200 years, is popular in China. Now, more and more people are learning to perform it. By watching this performance, you can have a better understanding of traditional Chinese culture. Since you are fond of Peking Opera, I'm sure that you will have a wonderful time there. If you accept my invitation, shall we meet at the gate of the theatre at 4:00 pm on Saturday? I'm looking forward to your early reply. Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节 One possible version: Paragraph 1: Early the next morning, John secretly left home with the money. As John walked to the shop, he held the money tightly,his mind filled with visions of his perfect painting. In the shop,he took his time to compare different brands of paints and brushes, determined to make the best choice. On arriving home, he set up a makeshift studio in his small room and got to work. He threw himself into painting until late at night,capturing the essence of the forest, the beauty of the lake, and the grace of the animals. Paragraph 2: A week later, a phone call came to John's home. It was the headteacher of his school, congratulating him on his outstanding achievement in the competition. John's mother was at a loss for words. She saw the painting that had won John such acclaim and was deeply moved.“I never realised how much this meant to you,” she said softly. From that day on, she becameJohn's biggest supporter. John was overjoyed. He realised that with his mother's love and his own dedication, he could achieve his dream in the art world. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 4 单元检测卷 第一部分 听力 1-5 CBBCC 6-10 AABAA 11-15 CCAAB 16-20 BCBAA 第二部分 阅读 第一节 21. C 22. C 23. D 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. B 28. C29. A 30. A 31. C 32. B 33. D 34. D 35. C 第二节 36. C 37. F 38. G 39. D 40. B 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 41. A 42. B 43. D 44. B 45. A 46. A 47. D 48. C49. B 50. D 51. A 52. C 53. A 54. B 55. D 第二节 56. to get 57. and 58. with 59. were rescued 60. where61. lucky 62. extremely 63. them 64. being 65. owner 第四部分 写作 第一节 One possible version: Dear David, I'm glad to tell you that I got two tickets for a performance ofPeking Opera in the City Theatre this Saturday evening. I'm writing to invite you to watch it with me. Peking Opera, which has a history of more than 200 years, is popular in China. Now, more and more people are learning to perform it. By watching this performance, you can have a better understanding of traditional Chinese culture. Since you are fond of Peking Opera, I'm sure that you will have a wonderful time there. If you accept my invitation, shall we meet at the gate of the theatre at 4:00 pm on Saturday? I'm looking forward to your early reply. Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节 One possible version: Paragraph 1: Early the next morning, John secretly left home with the money. As John walked to the shop, he held the money tightly,his mind filled with visions of his perfect painting. In the shop,he took his time to compare different brands of paints and brushes, determined to make the best choice. On arriving home, he set up a makeshift studio in his small room and got to work. He threw himself into painting until late at night,capturing the essence of the forest, the beauty of the lake, and the grace of the animals. Paragraph 2: A week later, a phone call came to John's home. It was the headteacher of his school, congratulating him on his outstanding achievement in the competition. John's mother was at a loss for words. She saw the painting that had won John such acclaim and was deeply moved.“I never realised how much this meant to you,” she said softly. From that day on, she becameJohn's biggest supporter. John was overjoyed. He realised that with his mother's love and his own dedication, he could achieve his dream in the art world. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 6 单元检测卷 第一部分 听力 1-5 AACBB 6-10 ACBCA 11-15 ABCAB 16-20 CBCCB 第二部分 阅读 第一节 21. D 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. B29. C 30. D 31. D 32. D 33. D 34. B 35. B 第二节 36. C 37. D 38. E 39. B 40. F 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 41. D 42. C 43. B 44. C 45. A 46. B 47. D 48. C49. A 50. D 51. C 52. B 53. A 54. D 55. A 第二节 56. importantly 57. to have 58. solutions 59. on 60. be encouraged 61. biggest 62. taken 63. a 64. where 65. themselves 第四部分 写作 第一节 One possible version: How to live a low-carbon life As we all know, having a low-carbon life will be very important to us. It not only can help us save a lot of energy, but also is good for our environment. There are many ways for us to lead a low-carbon life. First of all, we can turn off the computers and other electrical equipment in time when leaving our room. It is also important for us to turn off the tap after using it. What's more, we should stop white and air pollution. When we go shopping, we'd better use cloth or paper bags instead of plastic bags. When we go to school or hang out with friends, we can choose to walk or use public transport. In my opinion, having a low-carbon life is very necessary for us students, and it's our duty to do something for the Earth.If everyone can do a little, the environment we live in will be more beautiful. 第二节 One possible version: Paragraph 1: Just then, one of the boys looked back and saw the large animal he knew too well. His heart beat faster but his body froze. He screamed with fright.“Here comes the shark. Run!”The other boy spotted the shark this time. Panicked and helpless, they struggled to swim towards the ship as fast as they could. But they were still hundreds of metres away from the ship. The shark was approaching nearer with its white, sharp and pointed teeth clearly seen. All the people on the deck screamed wildly again. Paragraph 2: Their screams brought the captain back to his senses.Rushing back, he started the engine again. The ship was like an arrow, heading straight towards the shark. As if frightened by the noisy ship, the shark hesitated for a second, turned around sharply and soon disappeared into the blue sea. Witnessing the whole process, all people on the deck burst into cheers for the captain's quick action. The captain finally let out a long sigh of relief, holding his son tightly in his arms. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $Unit 4 单元检测卷 时间:120分钟 满分:150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What is the woman? A. A translator. B. A student. C. A teacher. 2. What animals was the man afraid of? A. Big dogs. B. Spiders. C. Tigers. 3. When does the conversation most probably take place? A. On Sunday. B. On Monday. C. On Saturday. 4. How did the man's wife like the exhibition? A. Difficult. B. Boring. C. Enjoyable. 5. What does the man mean? A. He agrees with the woman. B. It is cold and rainy in autumn. C. Not every autumn is beautiful. 第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6至8题。 6. Where is Alice? A. In England. B. In the US. C. In Italy. 7. What is Alice's favourite subject? A. Maths. B. Music. C. History. 8. Why can't Jane write to Alice now? A. Her computer broke down. B. She cannot spare the time. C. Alice is pretty busy. 听第7段材料，回答第9至11题。 9. When did Jim begin to cough? A. Last night. B. Yesterday morning. C. The day before yesterday. 10. What did Jim have for breakfast this morning? A. A little milk and an egg. B. A little coffee and some bread. C. A little tea and an apple. 11. What does Dr Pugh ask Jim to do? A. Take some medicine. B. Have an injection. C. Rest at home. 听第8段材料，回答第12至 14题。 12. Why was the man late for work? A. He got up late. B. He missed the bus. C. The traffic was heavy. 13. What are the speakers talking about? A. A new way of traveling to work. B. A new system for parking cars. C. A new way of making friends. 14. How can one join carpooling? A. By calling a special number. B. By downloading a special app. C. By visiting a travel agency. 听第9段材料，回答第15 至17题。 15. What does the man think of cooking? A. Difficult. B. Time-consuming. C. Enjoyable. 16. What do Mary's guests usually help her do? A. Cook food. B. Wash dishes. C. Set the table. 17. What food has Mary learnt to cook recently? A. Indian food. B. Italian food. C. Chinese food. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What was Hawking's major at the University ofOxford? A. Maths. B. Physics. C. Chemistry. 19. How many children did Hawking have? A. Three. B. Two. C. One. 20. According to the talk, what does Hawking's story show us? A. Nobody should lose hope. B. Life is not fair. C. Love is precious. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分,满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Kwame Alexander is a best-selling author of more than 30 books. His novel in verse (诗体) TheCrossover won the Newbery Medal in 2015, and was followed by another verse novel in 2016, Booked. In his book The Playbook: 52 Rules to Aim, Shoot,and Score in This Game Called Life, Alexander aims to inspire readers to dream big and reach for their goals.Time For Kids (TFK): What can you tell us about The Playbook? Kwame Alexander (Alexander): I wanted to write a book about how important it is to persevere (坚持不懈) and accept the challenges that come, because they only make you stronger. And I wanted to do it in a really cool and fun way, using sports as a metaphor (隐喻), so students would be interested in reading a book that is telling them how to make their lives better. TFK: Where did you get the idea for the book? Alexander: In The Crossover, the father of the main characters, Josh and Jordan, gives them these rules for life, called Basketball Rules. Well, I was having breakfast with a friend of mine in New York City. He said,“Kwame, I love those Basketball Rules you have in The Crossover. You should think about writing a whole book on those.” That's where it all began. TFK: Is it hard to mix sports and poetry? Alexander: I love sports, and I' ve been writing poetry sinceI was a kid. So those two things are as natural as breathing, laughing and walking to me. TFK: You' ve said teachers need to make learning poetry fun. Did you have a teacher like this as a kid? Alexander: My mother. She read poetry to my sisters and me when I was a kid, and she would make the words jump off the page! TFK: What advice would you give to young authors? Alexander: Read everything you can get your hands on.The best way to become a good author is to read what other people have written. 21. What can we learn about The Playbook? A. It is a historical novel. B. It won the Newbery Medal. C. It is actually about rules for life. D. It is based on Alexander's true life. 22. Who inspired Alexander to write The Playbook? A. His mother who read poetry to him. B. The teacher who taught him poetry. C. His friend who read The Crossover. D. The two characters in The Crossover. 23. When Alexander was a kid, how did he feel about poetry? A. It was rather boring. B. It was quite difficult. C. It was pretty mysterious. D. It was very interesting. B Of all the famous English authors, probably the best- known is William Shakespeare, who was born in 1564. His father was an important man in town,so Shakespeare had a good upbringing (培养). He got married to Anne Hathaway when he was 18 and the couple had three children. Shakespeare wrote many plays and sonnets (十四行诗). His career jump- started (启动) inLondon, and by 1592 his reputation was established there. He became rich enough to buy a fancy house in Stratford- upon- Avon. He wrote tragedies, likeRomeo and Juliet, comedies, romantic stories and stories about historical figures such as Julius Caesar. Shakespeare was 52 years old at the time of his death. But his works, which looked at common human themes, such as power, ambition and love,are still popular today. These themes are as much a part of human nature today as they were all those years ago and are the themes we see in modern soap operas and films. Even though his theatre, the GlobeTheatre, burnt down in 1613, it was rebuilt inLondon in 1997 and you can still see his plays performed there today. Shakespeare's influence on the English language can still be felt today. We talk about“fair play”, meaning“fair treatment of people without cheating or being dishonest”, but this phrase was first used by Shakespeare. He coined (创造) the phrase“you can have too much of a good thing”.And it was Shakespeare who came up with the expression to disappear“into thin air” which we still use today when we lose something. Shakespeare's works have been translated into many languages in the world. And perhaps we' ll still be fascinated by his works 400 years from now as we' ve been for the last 400 years. 24. When did William Shakespeare die according to the passage? A. In 1592. B. In 1613. C. In 1616. D. In 1618. 25. What is William Shakespeare most famous for according to the passage? A. His plays and poems. B. His happy marriage. C. His good education in childhood. D. His theatre in London. 26. What does Julius Caesar belong to? A. A sonnet. B. A historical play. C. A comedy. D. A romantic play. 27. What was Shakespeare's influence on language? A. He translated his works into every major language in the world. B. He“invented” some interesting phrases inEnglish. C. He wrote many articles on how to understandEnglish phrases. D. His common human themes are adopted in soap operas and films. C The sun rises above the Arctic Ocean. Across the frozen sea, a white bear moves slowly. The bear stops and sways (摇晃) its head from side to side. There is nothing to see but endless ice and red sky. Then its powerful nose senses what its eyes cannot do: a white whale is nearby. The bear follows the smell and spots a large hole in the ice where a small white whale is swimming. He silently walks towards the hole, then stops, standing still. The whale does not see the bear, whose white fur makes it appear invisible against the ice. Finally, the whale swims close to where the bear is waiting. With terrifying speed, the bear comes to life and moves towards the whale. In a moment it is over, and the bear eats its first meal in nearly a week. Polar bears rule the frozen sea, but their ancestors weren't always born for ice and snow. The first Arctic bears were brown bears, a species that includes grizzly bears. They came to the icy north over a hundred thousand years ago. No one knows for sure why these bears travelled to such a cold place. Scientists think they might have wandered north looking for food. Maybe they became trapped by glaciers (冰川) and couldn't leave. Whatever the reason, these bears nevershould have survived.But they did. They got used to their new environment. Their bodies changed. Their behaviour changed, too. Eventually, these bears developed into an entirely new species: the polar bear. You can see some of the characteristics that polar bears developed to survive. Sadly, these characteristics may now threaten polar bears' survival. As sea ice melts due to global warming, polar bears are frequently forced to come ashore. They are poor hunters on land, which means they often go a long time between meals. The polar bear is now classified as a threatened species. Although the future of the polar bear is unknown, the tale of two bears continues. As temperatures rise, grizzly bears have been spotted moving north into polar bears’ territory (领地).These long-lost cousins, once forced apart by nature, are coming back together again. 28. What can be inferred about the white bear mentioned in the first four paragraphs? A. It is noisy. B. It is smelly. C. It is starving. D. It has good eyesight. 29. What do we know about polar bears' ancestors? A. They were a darker-coloured species. B. They were born to live in ice and snow. C. They had no trouble getting used to the icy north. D. They came to the Arctic Ocean about 1,000years ago. 30. Why are polar bears struggling to survive? A. They are losing their hunting ground. B. They are threatened by other animals. C. They are spending little time on land. D. They have difficulty reaching the shore. 31. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage? A. The climate change B. The polar bear's favourite meal C. The past and future of the polar bear D. The mysteries of the Arctic Ocean D If you' re like most kids, you' ve probably made more than a few paper planes in your day. But how many kids can say their paper planes have been made life-size and then flown? At least one: 12-year-old Arturo Valdenegro of Tucson, Arizona, was the winner of a competition launched by the PimaAir & Space Museum for kids. “The purpose of the competition is to inspire and draw kids' interest in science and flight,” said the director of the museum. About 150 kids entered the competition. The young designers learnt about how planes fly and then began to design their own planes. Arturo designed and built his plane. When he finished, he took his plane to the flight area and let it fly, outdistancing the other competitors in all age groups. At last, Arturo's plane flew the farthest ——about 22.9 metres! As the winner, Arturo got to meet with a team of engineers, who took his design and made a bigger one. The new paper plane might have been the largest one ever built! Arturo named his large paper plane Arturo's Desert Eagle. Later a helicopter tried to lift the paper plane over the desert, but it was unsuccessful. Engineers worked for several hours to repair it for a second try.This time, the helicopter managed to raise it to about 823 metres and then set the plane free. Arturo watched as his plane flew through the sky at a speed of up to 158 kilometres per hour for10 seconds before falling to pieces.“I felt happy but sad,” Arturo said.“It flew really well, but I was sad to see it destroyed.” But that wasn't the end of Arturo's DesertEagle. The Pima Air & Space Museum collected the pieces of the broken plane and put them on show to inspire other young designers to reach for the sky. 32. According to the passage, what is true about the competition? A. It was started by Arturo. B. It could only be entered by kids. C. It was to choose the largest plane. D. It was held by a team of designers. 33. What does the underlined word“outdistancing”in Paragraph 4 mean? A. Looking for. B. Believing in. C. Throwing away. D. Leaving behind. 34. What can we know about Arturo's Desert Eagle? A. It was made into a helicopter. B. It was produced in many places. C. It was sold to a team of engineers. D. It was put on show in the museum. 35. What is the purpose of the passage? A. To help kids develop an interest in science. B. To teach kids how to build life-size planes. C. To introduce a boy and his large paper plane. D. To call on more kids to visit the Pima Air &Space Museum. 第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Socialising your dog Keep it fun and enjoyable. Socialisation shouldn't feel like work because it's really just a natural process. Dogs must go through it to enjoy their time with other dogs and humans. 36 They’ ll help reduce any anxiety produced by an unfamiliar experience. Bringing a few of your dog's favourite toys along can also help keep your puppy entertained and relaxed while visiting a new place. Your dog should lead the way, not you. 37 When introducing your dog to another one, let both dogs smell each other (that's their way of saying hello) while holding onto their lead (牵狗的绳子). If one becomes fearful or aggressive,gently pull it away. 38 Start socialising your puppy early. Dogs have a sensitive period between the ages of 7 and 12 weeks when their surroundings make a huge impression on them. 39 Use this early courage to expose (使接触) them to a variety of people, places, animals and sounds so they form positive associations with people and those things. 40 Between weeks 8 and 11, your puppy may display signs of fear when faced with unfamiliar situations. If you start noticing sudden, negative reactions from your puppy (e. g. hugging your legs),do your best to protect it from frightening or painful experiences. A. Fears can occur at other times. B. Be careful of a sudden fear period. C. Keep social activities pleasant by bringing along a few dog treats. D. Like children, puppies at this age are eager and unafraid to meet new things. E. Pains at this stage can be more lasting than fears that occur at other times in their lives. F. A common mistake pet parents make is forcing their dogs into uncomfortable situations. G. The same should be done when you' re introducing them to humans or other types of pets. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Last year, I had a car accident. I was 41 .Despite having scratches(划伤) on my left arm and neck, I felt 42 right after the accident. Later that night, though, there was something wrong with my brain and my husband 43 me to hospital immediately. My doctor said I had concussion (脑震荡). The first week I felt like my inner 44 was off. I walked slowly, moving from side to side. I had difficulty in 45 because it was hard to remember words and I couldn't speak clearly. When all of these symptoms (症状) disappeared,people thought I had recovered, especially when my 46 injuries weren't apparent (显而易见的),but I hadn't. I was anxious and 47 . I gained about 11 kilograms because of overeating under stress. I felt like a victim. I couldn't bear it any more and I 48 to cure myself. I wrote down my feelings. I started to take exercise and lose 49 . It's almost been a year since the 50 . My neck still tenses when I'm nervous, but there are fewer headaches. I still have panic attacks, but less 51 . Although I am recovering slowly, the hopeless look in my eyes is 52 . Although my brain was hit, I was given another 53 . I 54 almost daily how I' ll live my second life. I' ll live with less speed and fewer things on the to-do lists. I' ll become my children's strongest backer and tell them,“I'm 55 here no matter what happens.” 41. A. terrified B. sad C. tired D. surprised 42. A. hurt B. fine C. selfless D. active 43. A. forced B. left C. showed D. sent 44. A. sense B. balance C. quality D. quantity 45.A.communicating B. behaving C. reading D. driving 46. A. physical B. emotional C. informal D. personal 47. A. cruel B. generous C. disappointed D. stressful 48. A. agreed B. continued C. decided D. managed 49. A. force B. weight C. sympathy D. confidence 50. A. illness B. cure C. attack D. accident 51. A. frequently B. desperately C. quickly D. crazily 52. A. special B. useless C. gone D. funny 53. A. chance B. vote C. choice D. challenge 54. A. accept B. consider C. remind D. observe 55. A. also B. already C. again D. always 第二节(共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Juan Heriberto Trevino was at a summer camp in the Sierra Madre Oriental mountain range in northeastern Mexico last month when he went off56. (get) some firewood. While gathering the wood, Trevino slipped down into a deep valley,hit a tree 57. fell down further into a dry river bed. Trevino was lost, but not alone. Max had followed Trevino on his firewood run.The dog stayed 58. him until they 59. __________(rescue) more than 40 hours later. “It is easy to get lost in the part of the mountain 60. Trevino and Max were,”said the deputy director of the local police. “The mountain is very cold at night as it is very high. The child was 61. (luck) to have the dog,” he said. Max also led Trevino to a pool with water they could drink. They walked until they became62. (extreme) tired. Nearly two days later, they managed to find a cabin. The people living there helped 63. (they) until rescue workers could arrive. Other than 64. (be) very tired,Trevino was stable (稳定的) physically. He is now back with his family. Although he hoped to adoptMax, the heroic dog already had a(n) 65. (own). 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 假定你是李华，你得到两张这周六晚上在城市剧院(City Theatre)演出的京剧门票。你来自英国的好友 David对京剧很感兴趣，请你给他写一封信，邀请他一起观看。要点如下： 1.邀请 David观看京剧; 2.说明邀请的原因； 3.约定见面时间和地点。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 第二节(满分25分) 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 In a house far from the city lived John and his mother. John's only hobby was wandering in the nearby picturesque forest. In its centre was a shiny clear lake with schools of fish dancing in it. Lovely animals such as deer or rabbits were playing around and cute birds were singing in trees. Fascinated by the beauty and liveliness of nature, he desired to become a great artist and present all the breathtaking scenes to the world. John studied in the local primary school. Life was not easy for John and his mum after his father died. Knowing what hard work his mother did to make ends meet, John really didn't want his mother to worry. His mother knew the significance of education in life but she was against his dream of becoming an artist.“The profession of an artist can't aid a person in meeting his daily expenses,” she would say. But as each day passed, John became more passionate about his dream. Due to the living circumstances, even buying some new colours would be a luxury. John only used the worn drawing paper and limited colours for his daily practice. Though lacking fine painting materials, he never gave up drawing. He spent a significant amount of time staying in the forest,secretly perfecting his craft. With continuous hard work and a distinct gift for art, he drew beautifully. One day John read about a competition being held in the town, whose deadline was only two daysaway. He got the perfect opportunity to fulfil his desire, but he was in a dilemma (困境) because for the competition he needed special paints and some brushes. He didn't have the courage to ask his mother for money as he knew her prejudice against art.That evening his mum returned from work and handed him a few notes, saying,“This is for your lunch at school next month.” The money was enough for his desired materials! John's face lit up. 注意： 续写词数应为150左右。 Paragraph 1: Early the next morning, John secretly left home with the money. Paragraph 2: A week later, a phone call came to John's home. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 5 单元检测卷 第一部分 听力 1-5AABCB 6-10CBBBA 11-15CABCA 16-20CACCA 第二部分 阅读 第一节 21. B 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. B29. C 30. A 31. A 32. D 33. C 34. B 35. A 第二节 36. C 37. F 38. E 39. A 40. B 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 41. C 42. D 43. A 44. A 45. B 46. D 47. A 48. C49. C 50. B 51. D 52. D 53. A 54. C 55. B 第二节 56. be shaped 57. into 58. controlling 59. to explore 60. it 61. found 62. anxious 63. who/ that 64. freely 65. less 第四部分 写作 第一节 One possible version: Dear Mary, I went to climb the Great Wall with my parents during the summer vacation. I'm so glad to hear that you are interested in this trip. I' ll tell you as much about it as I can. The Great Wall is one of the greatest wonders of the world which attracts lots of tourists every day. It runs across the mountains like a dragon. When we arrived there, we were so excited that we started climbing immediately. The steps sometimes were flat, but sometimes steep. After two hours of climbing, we finally got to the top. I enjoyed the beauty of the mountains and took a lot of photos. I felt really proud and thought of the famous saying,“He who has never been to the Great Wall is not a true man”.If you come to China, I' ll be glad to take you to the Great Wall so that you can appreciate its beauty. Yours, Li Hua 第二节 One possible version: Paragraph 1: Seeing Jean's condition, the man jumped out to help.Shocked by her terrible state, the couple didn't hesitate to offer assistance. They gently lifted Jean up and laid her on the back seat of the car, covering her with a warm blanket to keep her from freezing in the cold weather. The man drove at top speed towards the nearest hospital while his wife comforted Jean softly, trying to keep her awake. Thanks to their timely rescue,Jean was sent to the emergency room and received professional treatment immediately. Paragraph 2: As soon as Jean left the hospital, she managed to get the couple's address. She prepared a delicate thank-you gift and paid a visit to them sincerely. Jean expressed her heartfelt gratitude repeatedly, saying that she could never have survived the terrible accident without their selfless help. The couple smiled and told her that it was just what anyone would do. This unforgettable experience not only saved Jean's life, but also made her believe deeply in the warmth and kindness of strangers. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 5 单元检测卷 时间:120分钟 满分:150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What colour clothes does the woman like best? A. Pink. B. Blue. C. White. 2. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a restaurant. B. In a shop. C. At a school. 3. How long has the woman been waiting for the bus? A. For 15 minutes. B. For 30 minutes. C. For 45 minutes. 4. What is the man going to do at 7:00 pm? A. Play tennis. B. Have a big dinner. C. See a film. 5. What does Mary say about the homework? A. It is a bit difficult. B. It didn't take her long to finish it. C. She hasn't finished it yet. 第二节(共15 小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料，回答第6至8题。 6. What are the speakers talking about? A. Buying groceries. B. Seeing friends. C. Choosing gifts. 7. Who is Clara? A. The man's wife. B. The man's daughter. C. The man's sister. 8. How much did the man spend on the city passes? A. $50. B. $150. C. $212. 听第7段材料，回答第9至11题。 9. What do we know about Bob? A. He loves learning Chinese best. B. He speaks several languages. C. He is from Germany. 10. What is the second most-spoken language inBob's country? A. Polish. B. Chinese. C. French. 11. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Fellow workers. B. Host and guest. C. Schoolmates. 听第8段材料，回答第12 至14题。 12. Where did the man know about the flat? A. From the newspaper. B. From his friend. C. From the Internet. 13. How many bedrooms does the flat have? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. 14. When can the man move in if he accepts everything? A. On 1 August. B. On 31 August. C. On or after 1 September. 听第9段材料，回答第15至17题。 15. What's the woman doing for the sports day? A. Making a timetable for the events. B. Making a standard for the events. C. Writing a report about the athletes. 16. What is the last event the students have before lunch? A. The long- distance race. B. The throwing events. C. The jumping events. 17. What does the man say about the 100 metres race? A. It is more exciting than any other event. B. It takes place at 6:00 pm. C. It demands less energy. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. Where did Hank and his family live before? A. In a small village. B. In a big city. C. In a small town. 19. Why did Hank take his new car out of the garage? A. To show it to his neighbours. B. To have it repaired. C. To wash it. 20. When does Jane need the car? A. When there is a party in town. B. When she goes shopping. C. When there is a football game. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Philadelphia offers a lot of attractions that are suitable for people of every age and here are some family- friendly attractions. Spruce Street Harbor Park Spruce Street Harbor Park, one of the best urban beaches in America, is an outdoor heaven onthe Delaware River Waterfront. Visitors can relax in a hammock (吊床), play in the playgrounds, and play games. Don't miss out on the park at night,when colorful LED lights hanging from treetops make the entire area bright.Blue Cross RiverRink Offering outdoor roller skating and other outdoor activities, Blue Cross RiverRink creates a fun,outdoor experience for the whole family. Visitors can play on the mini- golf course, and enjoy food and drinks there. Sesame Place Big Bird, Elmo and the other stars of SesameStreet come out and play at Sesame Place, the theme park in the nation starring the popular TV show's most lovable characters. A water park, interactive activities, parades, fireworks and shows add to the fun. Once Upon a Nation Storytelling Benches Uniformed and professional storytellers at storytelling benches throughout Philadelphia’ sHistoric District entertain visitors with true, free,three - to five- minute tales and secret stories.Children can pick up a Story Flag at any storytelling bench, and then collect a star from every storyteller on their journeys. Flags with all the stars can be exchanged for free rides on the Parx Liberty Carousel at Franklin Square. 21. Which place will you choose if you want your child to be exposed to stories? A. Sesame Place. B. Once Upon a Nation Storytelling Benches. C. Spruce Street Harbor Park. D. Blue Cross RiverRink. 22. What do these four attractions have in common? A. All of them have outdoor water activities. B. All of them provide visitors with free rides. C. All of them are suitable for the family outing. D. All of them provide visitors with a golf course. 23. Where is the passage probably from? A. A travel brochure. B. A history book. C. A news report. D. An art magazine. B As Ginni Bazlinton reached Antarctica, she found herself greeted by a group of little Gentoo penguins (企鹅) longing to say hello. These gentle,lovely gatekeepers welcomed her and kick- started (促进) what was to be a trip Ginni would never forget. Ever since her childhood, Ginni, now in her70s, has had a deep love for travel. Throughout her career as a professional dancer, she toured in theUK, but always longed to explore further. When she retired from dancing and her sons eventually flew the nest, she decided it was time to take the plunge. After graduating from university, Ginni began to travel around the world, eventually getting work teaching English in Japan and Chile. And it was inChile she discovered she could get last- minute cheap deals on ships going to Antarctica.“I just decided Iwanted to go,” she says.“I had no idea about whatI'd find there and I wasn't nervous. I just wanted to do it. And I wanted to do it alone as I always prefer it that way.” In March 2008, Ginni boarded a ship with some passengers she’ d never met before, to begin the journey towards Antarctica.“From seeing the wildlife to witnessing sunrises, the whole experience was amazing. Antarctica left an impression on me that no other place has,” Ginni says.“I remember the first time I saw a humpback whale (座头鲸); it just rose out of the water like some prehistoric creature and I thought it was smiling at us. You could still hear the operatic sounds it was making underwater.” The realisation that this is a precious land, to be respected by humans, was one of the biggest things that hit home to Ginni. 24. Which of the following best explains the underlined phrase“take the plunge” in Paragraph 2? A. Take a degree. B. Try challenging things. C. Bring back lost memories. D. Stick to a promise. 25. What made Ginni decide on the trip toAntarctica? A. The cheap fare. B. Lovely penguins. C. Beautiful scenery. D. A friend's invitation. 26. What does Ginni think about Antarctica after the journey? A. It could be a home for her. B. It should be easily reached. C. It should be well protected. D. It needs to be fully introduced. 27. What is the main idea of the passage? A. A childhood dream. B. Sailing around the world. C. Meeting animals in Antarctica. D. An unforgettable experience. C You may have heard adults say they are uncomfortable in the morning without a cup of coffee. One reason they may feel that way is that coffee contains caffeine (咖啡因). Caffeine appears naturally in coffee, tea, and cocoa beans, which are used to make chocolate. But now food makers are adding it to many products, from potato chips to water. The American government is especially worried about the problem. That's why the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is studying the health effects of caffeine on young people. Studies show that too much caffeine can make people nervous and unable to sleep. What's more, caffeine is habit-forming.Those who consume it regularly and stop suddenly may experience headaches and feel tired. One of the biggest concerns is the large amount of caffeine added to so-called energy drinks. A340.2-gram can of cola has about 32 milligrams of caffeine. A similar serving of a kind of energy drink contains more than three times that amount. An American organization is also working on caffeine-safety measures. “ Teenagers should not drink beverages (饮料) that contain caffeine. They should be aware of caffeine's effects on health and on how the brain works. Take, for example, teenagers who consume caffeine to stay awake and study for a test. They will remember less of what they just studied,” said a member of the organization. Companies that make products with added caffeine claim (声称) they do not advertise them to kids. However, there is no law to stop kids from buying them. So the FDA needs to set limits on caffeine, especially in energy drinks. As for added caffeine in foods, the government should just say no. If not, the amount of caffeine should be printed on food labels to remind consumers. The government must do that. Doctors say kids should avoid caffeine. If you need extra energy, try these natural boosters: eat right, exercise, and get plenty of sleep. 28. What is the American government particularly concerned about? A. The fact that coffee contains caffeine. B. The practice of adding caffeine to foods. C. The measures of avoiding caffeine's effects. D. The practice of using caffeine to make tea. 29. Why energy drinks are mentioned in Paragraph 3? A. To show caffeine's effects on health. B. To show teenagers' addiction to caffeine. C. To show drinks which contain much caffeine. D. To show people's concern about teenagers'health. 30. What is Paragraph 5 mainly about? A. The measures of protecting teenagers from caffeine's effects. B. The process of the government's controlling the use of caffeine. C. The government's responsibility for taking care of teenagers. D. The risk of buying products containing caffeine nowadays. 31. Which of the following may the author agree with? A. Getting enough sleep can make people energetic. B. Headaches and feeling tired are common among teenagers. C. Food makers don't add much caffeine to many products now. D. Caffeine is good and useful for teenagers’study. D We all want to believe that laughter is good for our health, but the scientific evidence backing that up is thin. Most studies have been small and have relied on self-reported assessments (评估). However, a few studies relying on lab tests do show some benefits.“A big laugh leads to the release of endorphins (chemicals produced by your body that reduce pain and can make you feel happier) from the brain,” said Michael Miller from a medical centre. A study by Miller measured the blood flow of 20 volunteers before and after watching a funny film and a sad film. After watching the sad film, blood flow was more restricted (受限制的) in 14 of the 20viewers. But after watching the film that made them laugh, average blood flow increased by 22 per cent. Funding for laughter and humour research is low —— so low that when Mary Bennett, director of a school of nursing, wanted to look into the effect of laughter on the immune system (免疫系统), she found herself actually asking other researchers for equipment from their labs.“It's really hard to get taken seriously when you say you study laughter,”she said. But her study of 33 healthy women showed that those who laughed at a humorous film had higher levels of natural killer cell activity (自然杀伤细胞活性), which increased their ability to fight off disease. However, the effect was seen only in the subjects who laughed out loud, not in those who quietly watched the comedy. But most of the research on laughter and health depends on personal feelings or opinions rather than scientific facts. One study of 70 depressed elderly women found that laughter yoga was just as effective as exercise in improving their mood. When Bennett is asked whether laughter cures or prevents any disease, her quick answer is a simple“No”. Still, she adds,“I think it's a useful adjunct (附属物) to real medicine. If you' re receiving medical treatment, you can do things that make you happy to help you stay healthy and that would be useful.” 32. What does Miller's study show? A. Funny films may cause blood problems. B. Endorphins may make people happier. C. Sad films are harmful to patients. D. Laughter may benefit health. 33. What is a difficult problem for Bennett? A. How to lead a research team. B. How to study laughter and humour. C. How to get support for her research. D. How to do research on the immune system. 34. Who got health benefits from watching comedies in Bennett's study? A. Those who watched them quietly. B. Those who laughed aloud. C. Those who often watched them. D. Those who watched them alone. 35. What does Bennett say about laughter? A. It is effective in a limited way. B. It can only cure some diseases. C. It may replace some real medicine. D. It will become a popular treatment. 第二节(共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 We all know the benefits of regular physical activity. But many people don't take exercise every day. Even some say they don't enjoy exercise. 36 Here are some tips. Find the exercise that best fits your personality. 37 Take a group exercise class, join a football team or walk with a group of friends. If you prefer staying alone, jogging or yoga will be fitter for you. Make it a habit. It can take a little while for something to become a habit. 38 One way is to try to exercise at the same time each day.“Exercise can become addictive in a positive way,” said a doctor. 39 There are many ways to fit exercise into your life. You can find some exercise videos online.Do weight training with things around your home.Take a brief walk after dinner. And if you go to school or work by bus, get off the bus earlier and walk the rest of the way. Keep going. If you miss a day, don't worry about it. 40 Just make sure you get back the next day. It's easy to make something a habit again.You will see the same benefits. And any little bit of exercise you do will show benefits. A. Build exercise into your lifestyle. B. Everybody struggles once in a while. C. So how can you make exercise pleasant? D. Break up your physical activity into smaller parts. E. Therefore, give yourself the time to create an exercise routine. F. If you are a social person, do something that attracts you socially. G. Finding a peer(同龄人) group is the perfect way to share your goals and hobbies. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15 小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 After university I decided to volunteer for theSpecial Olympics. In fact I had no experience working with people with intellectual 41 , and little did I know that would 42 me so deeply. When I arrived at the event, the director of theSpecial Olympics took me to meet Vernon, a24-year-old young man with Down's syndrome (唐氏综合征). I introduced myself and 43 how much I enjoyed sport. But Vernon looked down most of the time and didn't say much. I wondered whether he was 44 or didn't understand what I was saying. 45 , I just tried to inspire him. He started to make his way around the 46 one lap after another. I cheered him on, yelling“Go.Vernon!” I never thought something remarkable wouldhappen. He 47 towards the finishing line and then ran towards me with a big bear hug. While feeling his 48 , I held him in my arms. He looked up at me with 49 eyes, yelling.“Coach! Coach! You inspire me! I made it.”At that moment, all of my misconceptions about him suddenly 50 . It seemed that Vernon was the one who 51 me. That day, Vernon did not win any 52 in the competitions, but his 53 passion for life encouraged me as he demonstrated that life is not about being the smartest, the strongest, or the best-looking. It's about 54 who they are and not drawing conclusions about what they cannot do because, given the 55 , people can surprise you in a good way. 41. A. qualities B. talents C. disabilities D. capabilities 42. A. beat B. delight C. catch D. impress 43. A. shared B. imagined C. indicated D.commented 44. A. uninterested B. annoyed C. worried D. concerned 45. A. Therefore B. Anyway C. Additionally D. Instead 46. A. line B. clock C. stadium D. track 47. A. dashed B. walked C. hiked D. departed 48. A. warmth B. motivation C. excitement D. inspiration 49. A. attractive B. mysterious C. bright D. magical 50. A. emerged B. disappeared C. formed D. deepened 51. A. seized B. blessed C.committed D. inspired 52. A. leaderships B. respects C. goals D. medals 53. A. infectious B. legendary C. mature D. innovative 54. A. rejecting B. neglecting C. accepting D. generating 55. A. investment B. opportunity C.compassion D. teamwork 第二节(共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 As Alison Gopnik described in her recent book, there are two kinds of parents in modernAmerica: the carpenter(木匠) and the gardener. The“carpenter” thinks that his or her child can 56. (shape).“The idea is that if you just do the right things, get the right skills and read the right books, you' re going to be able to turn your child 57. a particular kind of adult,” she said. The“gardener”, however, is seldom concerned about 58. (control) who the child will become and instead provides a protected space for his or her child 59. (explore). The style is all about creating a not only rich and nutritious but also diverse and active ecosystem. Gopnik, a psychology professor, said,“Many parents are carpenters, and 60. is really necessary for them to bring up their children.” She spent decades researching children's development and 61. (find) that parents often focused too much on who their children would be as adults.The harm is that parents and their children may become 62. (anxiety), tense or unhappy. “We' re concerned about our children 63. we think have difficulty mastering their own future.As a result, we' re unwilling to allow them to64. (free) explore the world,” she said.The truth is that the 65. (little) parents worry about outcomes, the better their children may live in life. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 假定你是李华，你将自己暑假期间和家人一起登长城的照片发布在了自己的博客上，你的外国朋友 Mary 对此非常感兴趣。请你写一封信向她简单叙述此次旅行的所见所闻。内容包括： 1.介绍旅行景点； 2.叙述旅行经历； 3.谈谈自己的感受。 注意： 写作词数应为80左右；1. 2.开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。 Dear Mary, I went to climb the Great Wall with my parents during the summer vacation. I'm so glad to hear that you are interested in this trip. I' ll tell you as much about it as I can. Yours, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Jean set off for a mountain trip in the SierraNevada, a famous mountainous area in California.She had a deep love for outdoor adventures (历险)and was always prepared for her trips. She had takenmany wild mountain trips there before, so she wasquite familiar with the local terrain (地形) and roadconditions. However, right after she climbed up to amountain top, a sudden terrible storm arrivedwithout any warning. It began to snow heavily atonce, and very soon, she found herself trapped inthe middle of a violent snowstorm. Standing at the highest point for kilometers around, Jean was at great risk of being hit by lightning. She gave up the original plan to go back along the fixed trail (小径) and chose to climb down the steep and icy mountain slope carefully,relying on her climbing experience and skills. Unluckily, during one difficult part on the way,Jean suddenly slipped and fell more than 30 meters down the rocky mountain. She was lucky enough to stay alive after the fall, but she suffered serious injuries, with many broken bones and terrible physical pain. Worse still, because of the extreme weather,there was no signal on her cellphone, which made it totally impossible for her to call anyone for help.Jean had no choice but to walk slowly through deep snow all the way back to the starting trailhead. Throughout the journey back, Jean suffered continuously from great pain. When she finally walked with difficulty into a parking lot, Jean immediately fell down to the ground. It had beenexactly one day since she fell down from the mountain. Her clothes were all covered with blood,and she was too tired to hold on, nearly passing out on the spot.Just then, a car pulled in. A man was driving,with his wife in the passenger seat. 注意： 续写词数应为150左右。 Paragraph 1: Seeing Jean's condition, the man jumped out to help. Paragraph 2: As soon as Jean left the hospital, she managed to get the couple's address. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 1 单元检测卷 时间：120分钟 满分：150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What do we learn about the man? A. He likes driving. B. He used to have a car. C. He enjoys travelling by car. 2. How does the man usually go to work? A. By car. B. By bus. C. On foot. 3. What colour does the woman prefer? A. Light blue. B. Yellow. C. Pink. 4. What does Tony mean? A. He didn't know about the concert. B. He was too busy to go to the concert. C. He didn't have enough money for the concert ticket. 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. The power failure. B. The energy saving. C. The air-conditioning. 第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is Henry going to do? A. See off Mary. B. Look for his bag. C. Go on a trip. 7. Where are the speakers? A. At the bus stop. B. At the airport. C. At the train station. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What did Samuel invite Sonia to do? A. Attend a party. B. Go shopping. C. Have dinner. 9. What does Sonia still need? A. A hat. B. Some flowers. C. Some sweets. 听第8段材料，回答第10 至 12题。 10. How does the girl feel about tomorrow's test? A. Worried. B. Confused. C. Confident. 11. What time does the film begin? A. At 4:00. B. At 4:15. C. At 4:50. 12. Where does the boy want to go after the film? A. To the bookshop. B. To the school. C. To the ice cream shop. 听第9段材料，回答第13 至 16题。 13. Why was Joan absent from school today? A. She was ill. B. She visited a friend. C. She had to look after her sister. 14. What is the maths homework? A. The exercises from 2a to 2f on Page 13. B. The exercises from 2c to 2f on Page 30. C. The exercises from 2a to 2c on Page 30 15. What day is it today? A. Wednesday. B. Thursday. C. Friday. 16. Who asked the students to observe a plant? A. The history teacher. B. The French teacher. C. The science teacher. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. Which word can best describe the New York subway? A. Comfortable. B. Old. C. Slow. 18. Why did Rosie Ruiz get on the subway? A. She was tired of running. B. She wanted to go home. C. She wanted to win a race. 19. What do we know about the subway in the 1960s? A. It became dangerous. B. It ran much faster than cars. C. It couldn't work for a long time. 20. What do people like most about the subway according to the speaker? A. The feeling of traveling fast underground. B. The adventure of exploring the secrets. C. The excitement from watching the lights. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Healthy Planet, Healthy People: We have talked a lot about the healthy planet here to Planetpals, but we don't want to lose sight of the importance of a healthy body as well. Make sure the food you eat and the food you buy are clean and nutritious, too! That makes you healthier and happier. Food that is safe from harmful bacteria,viruses, parasites(寄生虫), and chemical fertiliser is vital for health. Safety means that the food brings little risk of food-borne illness. Farmers, restaurants,and shops have standards to keep things safe.However, we also need to keep and prepare food safely at home, and be alert when we are out.A few health precautions (预防措施) about your food: At the store · Look at the dates on all packaging. · Check nutrition facts labels on the packaging——buy healthy food! · Separate raw, cooked, and ready-to-eat foods while shopping. At home · Wash hands and clean surfaces often. · Wash meat, fruit and vegetables thoroughly. · Cook food to a safe temperature. · Check and follow the cooking instructions. · Serve safely. Keep hot food hot and cold food cold. · Read labels carefully before storing! · When in doubt, throw it out. Be a Planetpal—— Eat healthy food. Be Healthy! 21. What is essential to keep a healthy body? A. Food free of pests. B. Nutritious and safe food. C. Health precautions in our life. D. Low risk of food-borne illness. 22. What should you do before keeping food? A. Pay attention to labels. B. Wash the surface thoroughly. C. Heat food to a certain temperature. D. Check nutrition facts on the packaging. 23. What's the purpose of this passage? A. To introduce Planetpals. B. To expand knowledge about food. C. To offer tips on how to treat food properly. D. To call on people to keep food safe at home. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 B When my daughter Sara was in the fifth grade, she came to me with a problem.“Mum, Marcy hates me!” she cried.“Because Kathy is my friend, too. Marcy wants me to be her friend and nobody else's.You talk to Marcy. You tell her that I want to be her friend, but I can have other friends, too!” Oh! I looked at Sara for a few moments,wondering how I got into this mess, when suddenly an idea came to me. Picking up two baskets from the living room, Iexplained,“When everyone is born, they have a little basket. This little one here is yours. The big one is mine. As you grow, so does the basket. You can see your little basket is inside mine because when you were born, there were too many things you couldn't do by yourself. I did everything you couldn't do on your own.” She nodded. “Well, as you grew older and began to do some things on your own, I began placing a few more things in your basket. When you learnt to tie your shoelaces, that went in your basket.” She said softly,“I can tie my own shoelaces.” “Right. As you grow older, there will be more and more things you must do on your own.” As I spoke, I gradually took her basket out of mine and handed it to her.“You will finally carry your own basket with things only you can do.” She looked up at me and said,“I understand. There are some things that I have to do by myself because they are in my basket.” 24. What was Sara's problem? A. She didn't have a basket. B. Her mother was too hard on her. C. She didn't want her own basket. D. She couldn't deal with her friendship. 25. How did the author feel at first when she heardSara's problem? A. Angry. B. Confident. C. Proud. D. Helpless. 26. What can we infer about Sara? A. She would talk to Marcy herself. B. She wouldn't make friends with Kathy. C. She was too young to deal with anything. D. She managed to persuade her mother to help her. 27. What do the baskets mentioned in the passage refer to? A. Friendship that needs repairing. B. Growing abilities as people grow up. C. Gifts that people have for doing something. D. Something that people use to keep vegetables. C Every year around the world, humans waste over a billion tons of food. This happens even though many people go hungry. So some people have made it their life's work claiming food before it goes to waste and then giving it to people who are hungry. One of those people is Brett Meyers. In 2011, Meyers started Nourish Now, a food bank in the state of Maryland. This non-profit organization collects food and then gives it to the poor and organizations that support them. Nourish Now is a food bank that recovers food from restaurants, catering companies, grocery stores, hotels, farms etc. Every day, staff and volunteers package the donations and distribute them to recipients. A woman named Rhoda is one of the recipients.She describes the quality of the food delivered to her family by Nourish Now.“It consists of fresh food,fruit and vegetables. You will get bread. Sometimes you get dairy products such as yoghurt or milk. And you will also get some meat items. And if you get lucky, you might get cooked food, or prepared salads and stuff like that.” Besides families, the organization also donates snacks to several nearby schools and social organizations. Nourish Now has grown considerably since it opened. Brenda is one of them. Part of her job as a volunteer is to make sure that none of the food goes to waste. “In the morning, I make sure that all the things that came late yesterday, get put away so that we use that last, and we used the things that came the day before first, so that we' re always giving fresh food and we' re not throwing out anything.” 28. What do we know about Nourish Now? A. It donates money to the poor. B. It benefits from collecting food. C. It gets food from many places. D. It distributes food only to the poor. 29. What does the underlined word“them” inParagraph 2 refer to? A. Restaurants. B. The poor. C. Food banks. D. Schools. 30. What does the author want to show with the example Rhoda in Paragraph 4? A. The recovered food is fresh and rich. B. Rhoda isn't satisfied with the food supplied. C. Eating better can keep people healthier. D. Rhoda can get food donations every day. 31. What is the best title for the passage? A. People should take care of the weak B. The poor are suffering from starvation C. Nourish Now calls on people to save food D. Nourish Now uses leftover food to feed the hungry D Sports can help you keep fit and get in touch with nature. However, whether you are in the mountains, in the waves, or on the grassland, you should be aware that the sport of your choice might have a great influence on the environment. Some sports are resource-hungry. Golf, as you may know, eats up not only large areas of countryside, but also tons of water. Besides, all sorts of chemicals and huge amounts of energy are used to keep its courses (高尔夫球场) in good condition. This causes major environmental effects.For example, in the dry regions of some countries,golf is often held responsible for a serious water shortage.There are many environmentally friendly sports.Power walking is one of them that you could take up today. You don't need any special equipment except a good pair of shoes; and you don't have to worry about resources and your wallet. Simple and free,power walking can also keep you fit. If you walk regularly, it will be good for your heart and bones.Experts say that 20 minutes of power walking daily can make you feel less anxious, sleep well and have better weight control. Whatever sport you take up, you can make it greener by using environmentally friendly equipment and buying products made from recycled materials.But the final goal should be“green gyms”. They are better replacements for traditional health clubs and modern sports centres. Members of green gyms play sports outdoors, in the countryside or other open spaces. There is no special requirement for you to start your membership. And best of all, it's free. 32. Which of the following is the author most probably in favour of? A. Cycling around a lake. B. Motor racing in the desert. C. Playing basketball in a gym. D. Swimming in a sports centre. 33. What can we learn about golf? A. It is popular in the dry regions. B. It causes a water shortage around the world. C. It pollutes the Earth with chemicals and wastes. D. It needs water and power to keep its courses green. 34. Why does the author use power walking as an example? A. Because it is an outdoor sport. B. Because it improves our health. C. Because it uses fewer resources. D. Because it is recommended by experts. 35. In which part of the magazine can this passage be found? A. Education. B. Environment. C. Art. D. History. 第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 The Qingming Festival is a Chinese holiday that has been celebrated in China for centuries. Together with the Spring Festival, the Dragon Boat Festival and the Mid-Autumn Festival, the Qingming Festival is one of the most important traditional festivals inChina. 36 Tomb sweeping aims to commemorate family ancestors while going on a spring outing allows people the chance to enjoy the spring blossoms. Traditional customs Tomb sweeping. 37 On this day, family members gather in front of their ancestral tombs.They sweep the tombs, remove weeds, and add fresh soil to the tombs. They may stick willow branches, flowers, or plastic plants on the tombs.They pray for their ancestors’ blessing. However, the customs have been greatly simplified today,especially in cities. Spring outing. The time around the QingmingFestival is very suitable for a spring outing, as plants are thriving and flowers are blooming. People can have a great time outdoors with their friends and family. 38 Traditional food Qingtuan is a green rice ball tiny enough to fit into your hand. 39 It is a mixture of sticky rice powder and green vegetable juice, stuffed with sweetened bean paste. Qingtuan tastes sweet with the fresh fragrance of aicao, a kind of green plant. In celebration of the Qingming Festival, people fromShaanxi Province make steamed buns, known asHuamo. 40 Some are for peaceful family life while others represent the wish for health. A. Each different look comes with a good blessing. B. Going for a picnic and flying kites are popular activities. C. It is popular in the southern regions of theYangtze River. D. This is one of many ways to express people's love for ancestors. E. Family members gather together to celebrate and taste the food. F. Many traditional customs are practised to show respect for our ancestors. G. The two main activities during the festival include tomb sweeping and going on a spring outing. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 People in the US have been encouraged for decades to eat various kinds of food, as the variety of food helps to 41 that they keep a diet with enough nutrition. But this week a group of nutrition experts said that long-standing 42 might be out-of-date. The advice on 43 different kinds of food has been included in the government's Dietary Guidelines for Americans for quite some time.Previous studies claimed that eating various kinds of food could help 44 deficiencies (缺乏) of nutrition. But things may be different considering today's environment where food is plentiful. That same advice could lead to a(n) 45 consequence,argued a doctor. Experts 46 the latest evidence of the recommendation, and 47 a scientific report.The report stated that in some studies, people who eat a 48 range of food usually eat many nutritious food such as fish, vegetables and fruit. 49 , they also eat some 50 food, like sugared snacks and other processed food. Greater dietary variety is also associated with a(n) 51 calorie intake and weight gain. Some studies show that a wide variety of food choices in any given meal could delay fullness and 52 the amount of food people eat. Some recent dietary guidelines recommend that people eat“a variety of food”, and 53 “ a variety of vegetables”. But the doctor said people should worry 54 about variety and more about diet quality, such as filling half your plate with only one or two vegetables you like. Actually, what 55 is the amount of fruit, vegetables, nuts and other nutritious food you eat, not the variety. 41. A. ensure B. say C. show D. suggest 42. A. decision B. research C. recommendation D. study 43. A. cooking B. consuming C. finding D. making 44. A. cure B. identify C. protect D. prevent 45. A. opposite B. positive C. same D. convincing 46. A. carried B. did C. examined D. left 47. A. held B. gave out C. released D. came out 48. A. wide B. narrow C. traditional D. selective 49. A. Therefore B. Finally C. However D. Luckily 50. A. healthy B. unhealthy C. nutritious D. high-fat 51. A. higher B. smaller C. lower D. bigger 52. A. reduce B. take C. increase D. bring 53. A. in general B. in other words C. in short D. in particular 54. A. more B. less C. better D. worse 55. A. cares B. differs C. indicates D. matters 第二节(共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Most Americans love Chinese food. However,Chinese food 56. ( serve) in mostAmerican restaurants is very different from the authentic (正宗的) cuisine enjoyed by people inChina. The history of westernised Chinese food started in the 19th century, 57. many Chinese immigrants had trouble landing a job in America. To make a living, some of them opened restaurants.Over the years, Chinese cuisine 58. (make) its way into the mainstream. One of the main differences between authentic and westernised Chinese food lies 59. the ingredients that are used. 60. (feature)vegetables that are common in Western cuisine,westernised Chinese food prefers broccoli (西蓝花), carrots, onions, tomatoes and dairy products. In addition, 61. you can find someWestern cuisine that uses strange meat, mostWesterners are pretty conservative about the meat they eat. Authentic Chinese food, in contrast, uses a wider 62. _______(vary) of protein sources,including tofu, chicken 63. (foot), duck blood and many more that Westerners generally wouldn't choose to eat. The cuisine also has a stronger taste. Indeed, there are numerous differences between authentic and westernised Chinese cuisine,but Western palates (味觉) adapt to new flavours 64. (easy). Therefore, it may only be 65. matter of time before authenticChinese food becomes popular in America! 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 假定你是李华，学校的问卷调查发现，许多同学有不良的饮食习惯，如不吃早餐，爱吃垃圾食品等。请你针对这一现象，写一篇关于养成良好饮食习惯的演讲稿，要点如下： 1.良好饮食习惯的重要性； 2.注意饮食均衡； 3.保持规律的饮食。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 第二节(满分25分) 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 I had applied for a job with a Chinese-Canadian company in Vancouver. As you know, Chinese people are famous for their food. They cook delicious food and find simple pleasure in eating. So, I was not surprised when my new boss invited me out to lunch to celebrate my new job. He said we were going to eat in a Chinese restaurant inChinatown. I was nervous. I knew we would be using chopsticks, and while I had tried many times to master the skill, Ihad completely failed in every attempt. How would Ibe able to make a good impression? Would I make a complete fool of myself? That evening, I called a friend and asked her to explain exactly how to use chopsticks. She patiently explained the proper way of holding them between the thumb (拇指), first and middle fingers.“It's not that hard,” she said.“That's easy for you to say,” I replied.“You' ve been eating with chopsticks all your life. It's natural for you!” I didn't get much sleep that evening. I kept tossing and turning in bed all night, worrying about lunch the next day. The next day, I could hardly control my anxiety. It was difficult to get any work done in the morning. At noon, I left with my boss and two co-workers and headed to the restaurant. We were seated at an excellent table. My boss wrote out the food order, speaking to the server inChinese. My heart was pounding, but then I noticed a strange thing. Instead of the customary chopsticks,each of us had knives, forks, and spoons. I was confused at first, but then, it hit me. My boss knew that I would have trouble with the chopsticks. He wanted to save me from embarrassment, so he had called ahead and arranged for us to be served with knives and forks. Icouldn't believe how kind and helpful he was. 注意： 续写词数应为150左右。 Paragraph 1: In an instant, I decided to ask the server to bring some chopsticks to me. Paragraph 2: In the end, I wasn't embarrassed at all. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 1 单元检测卷 第一部分 听力 1-5BBACA 6-10 CBCBC 11-15 BAABA 16-20 CBCAA 第二部分 阅读 第一节 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. D 25. D 26. A 27. B 28. C29. B 30. A 31. D 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. B 第二节 36. G 37. D 38. B 39. C 40. A 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 41. A 42. C 43. B 44. D 45. A 46. C 47. C 48. A49. C 50. B 51. A 52. C 53. D 54. B 55. D 第二节 56. served 57. when 58. has made 59. in 60. Featuring61. although/ though/ while 62. variety 63. feet 64. easily65. a 第四部分 写作 第一节 One possible version: Dear teachers and students,As we all know, health is closely connected with what we eat.Therefore, it's important for us to have a balanced diet. However, some students have formed a variety of unhealthy eating habits, such as having no breakfast, eating too much junk food and so on, which will surely do harm to their health. To keep fit, we should have a balanced diet. We should not only have different kinds of food, like fish, meat, vegetables and fruit, but also have food regularly and properly. Personally,I think it is important to keep a balanced diet, which is beneficial to our health. 第二节 One possible version: Paragraph 1: In an instant, I decided to ask the server to bring some chopsticks to me. When they arrived, I took them carefully in my hand. I looked up at my boss and we smiled at each other. As Igrasped the chopsticks and lifted a little rice and meat, trying to get them into my mouth, my fingers slipped and the food fell back onto the plate. However, I didn't give up and eventually managed to eat my entire meal by using chopsticks. It felt like a great achievement to me. Paragraph 2: In the end, I wasn't embarrassed at all. I was glad that my new boss was such a thoughtful person that he could take everything into consideration. And I was really happy that Idecided to ask for chopsticks. After that, we often went out forlunch in this restaurant. Despite experiencing a number of setbacks, I persevered in my attempts to use chopsticks. Now, Ihave totally mastered the skill of using chopsticks. And as an old saying goes, practice makes perfect. It really isn't that difficult once you get used to it. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 2 单元检测卷 时间:120分钟 满分:150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5 小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. Whose birthday is it today? A. Mary’ s. B. Mike’ s. C. David’ s. 2. What's the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Husband and wife. B. Boss and secretary. C. Teacher and student. 3. What is Mrs Smith going to do? A. Take her son to school. B. Pick up Jack. C. Attend a meeting. 4. What does the man want to do? A. Visit his friend. B. Post a book. C. Buy a book. 5. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a supermarket. B. In a restaurant. C. At home. 第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is the boy's favourite music? A. Rock music. B. Pop music. C. Classical music. 7. What does the boy think of country music? A. Noisy. B. Boring. C. Soft. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What does the woman want? A. An overcoat. B. A dress. C. A skirt. 9. When will the speakers go to the tailor’ s? A. Next Saturday morning. B. Next Saturday afternoon. C. Next Sunday morning. 听第8段材料，回答第10 至 12题。 10. What does the woman plan to do? A. Buy some furniture. B. Rearrange the room. C. Move house. 11. What will the speakers move first? A. The bed. B. The lamps. C. The tables. 12. What does the man suggest doing later today? A. Painting the room. B. Cooking a meal. C. Buying some paint. 听第9段材料，回答第13 至 16题。 13. How will Oscar go around Florida? A. By car. B. By bus. C. By taxi. 14. Where will the speakers meet? A. At Walt Disney World. B. At the airport. C. At Kennedy Space Center 15. Why does Oscar want to go to the FloridaPanhandle? A. To enjoy the beach. B. To go diving. C. To meet some friends. 16. Who is John Hamilton probably? A. A tour guide. B. Janet's husband. C. Oscar's schoolmate. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What is the big hall mainly used for? A. Parents' meetings. B. Music lessons. C. Sports activities. 18. When can the children use the library on their own? A. At any time of the day. B. Between lessons. C. After school. 19. Where is the speaker's office? A. Beside the reception desk. B. Opposite the library. C. Behind the water machine. 20. How often do the children use the computer room? A. At least twice a day. B. At least once a day. C. About once a week. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A A music festival, which is often presented with a main idea, is a community event mainly about live performances of singing and instrument playing. On the list are the music festivals for fans around the world. Find your favourite now! Field Day Field Day is a major New Year's Day party inSydney. Seen as the city's original outdoor party, it's a gathering of friends coming together for a great fun- filled first day of the year. There's an air of hope and active energy on a perfect summer's day.Envision Festival The Envision Festival is an annual event inUvita, Costa Rica that wants to provide a chance for different cultures to work with one another to create a better community. The festival encourages people to practise art, music and dance performances. At the same time, our connection with nature is expected to be strengthened. McDowell Mountain Music Festival The McDowell Mountain Music Festival isPhoenix's musical celebration of community, culture and charity. Since its founding in 2004, it has been a non- profit music festival designed to support,entertain and educate the community. The festival attracts thousands of visitors each year from around the country, and it is an opportunity to experience true culture. Old Settler's Music Festival The Old Settler's Music Festival is a nationally known music festival for American music. The festival is held in Tilmon, Texas at the height of the wild flower season. The Old Settler's Music Festival offers great music and activities for the whole family. 21. In which city does Field Day mean New Year'sDay? A. Sydney. B. Uvita. C. Phoenix. D. Tilmon. 22. What is special about the McDowell MountainMusic Festival? A. It encourages people to receive education. B. It is not held to make money. C. It provides a chance for friends to meet each other. D. It focuses on culture spread. 23. Which festivals are connected with nature? A. Field Day and Envision Festival. B. Envision Festival and McDowell MountainMusic Festival. C. Old Settler's Music Festival and McDowellMountain Music Festival. D. Envision Festival and Old Settler's MusicFestival. B My grandfather Andy Anderson is over 100years old. His life story is one for the big screen——he married my grandmother within a week after they met. They stayed together for over 65 years. Without going to college, Andy worked his way to the top. He became a manager of a dairy department. He earned the nickname Mr Cheese,which finally turned into Grandpa Cheese among the family. He has taught me a lot and here's what he has learnt in his life. Always keep a good sense of humour. Find something humorous in every single situation. Never be too good to start at the bottom. Exercise every day, even when you don't feel like it. Don't spend more money than you make. Save your money now and spend it later. You must be able to forgive, even if it's difficult to do. Love is not always easy; sometimes you have to work at it. Your family is the most precious thing you will ever have in life. If you are faced with a problem, don't delay trying to solve it. But if there's no way to solve it, you have to forget it for now. Perhaps a solution will be found soon. Make sure you' re doing what you love; don't be afraid to follow those dreams you have for yourself. School education is important, but not everything. Life can be an education in itself.Explore your world and stay curious. Having a bad job is better than having no job at all. Try not to takeyourself so seriously. Don't ever be afraid to be your true self. Your life is delicate, and if you fail to take care of yourself properly, you' ll spoil.Life is a gift that you must unwrap (打开). It's up to you to determine if what's inside will lead you to happiness or dismay (忧虑). You have the power to make that decision for yourself. All of above come from Grandpa Cheese. If you' re wondering what Grandpa Cheese is up to these days, he's riding his motor scooter around the city, and“planning on what I'm going to do when Istart to get old,” he says. 24. Which of the following agrees with Grandpa's philosophy? A. Love needs efforts. B. Exercise if you like it. C. Happiness makes longer life. D. A good job secures a happy life. 25. What's the best way if you have a problem with no solution? A. To leave it aside. B. To keep trying. C. To take care of yourself. D. To have a sense of humour. 26. What can we learn from the passage? A. The author's grandparents are living a happy life now. B. School education helps develop curiosity about the world. C. Whether life will be happy or miserable is decided by ourselves. D. Andy was called Mr Cheese before being a manager. 27. Where is the passage probably from? A. A guidebook. B. An advertisement. C. A news report. D. An autobiography (自传). C Lazy people will never gain anything in life.However, laziness can be defeated once a few changes have been made in your mind. One way to fight laziness is to get enough sleep.Many people lack sleep constantly, since they stay up late and get up early to prepare for work. These people have little motivation once they arrive home.Laziness works hand in hand with a lack of motivation and a tendency to put off things. By adjusting your sleep schedule to provide a few more hours of meaningful rest, you can fight laziness throughout the day. Another way to fight laziness is to change your mind from being passive to being active. Some people treat their lives as if they were pushed from task to task. Others take a more positive approach,viewing each task as a challenge they must overcome alone. Laziness appears when you no longer feel in charge of your own mind. Some people fight laziness by removing the temptations that surround them. A television in the living room may provide entertainment, but watching too much TV often leads to laziness. Create a reward system for yourself, just as parents do for a child.Complete a few tasks and reward yourself with what you enjoy, such as a good dinner or a film. Laziness can also be a lasting problem at home.Parents and children may all have different energy levels, but laziness can be spread if not dealt with immediately. To fight family laziness, set an example. Be the first to collect and wash dishes after a meal. Others in the home may eventually follow your example and perform their own task. It is difficult to practise laziness when you are surroundedby motivated (积极的) people.Finally, taking exercise regularly can help you fight laziness. Enough exercise and a balanced diet can help you develop a healthy lifestyle, thus enabling you to have more energy and help lift your spirits. 28. How many ways have been mentioned in the passage to fight laziness? A.3. B.4. C.5. D.6. 29. What can be inferred from Paragraph 2? A. People who don't get enough sleep must be lazy. B. People who lack motivation can be lazy. C. People who adjust their sleep schedule can be lazy. D. People who stay up late and get up early must be lazy. 30. What does the underlined word“temptations” inParagraph 4 mean? A. Excitements. B.Fantasies. C. Attractions. D. Decorations. 31. What is the best title for the passage? A. How to fight laziness B. Laziness can be defeated C. Laziness does great harm to our lives D. Lazy people will never gain anything D The Lantern Festival falls on the 15th day of the first lunar month, usually in February or March.Since ancient times, it has become a festival with great significance. One of the most important activities on this day is watching lanterns. Lanterns of various shanes and sizes are hung in the streets, attracting countless people. Some children will hold homemade lanterns and walk along the streets, extremely excited. Solving lantern riddles is an essential part of the Lantern Festival. Lantern owners write riddles on paper and stick them to the lanterns. If visitors have solutions to the riddles, they can pull the paper out and go to the lantern owners to check their answers.If they are right, they will get a little gift. As solving lantern riddles is interesting and full of wisdom, it has become popular among all social strata (社会阶层). In addition, people will eat yuanxiao on theLantern Festival. Yuanxiao is a kind of small dumpling ball made of glutinous rice flour with different fillings. It also has another name,tangyuan. It can be boiled, fried or steamed. It tastes delicious. Most importantly, tangyuan has a similar pronunciation with“tuanyuan” in Chinese,meaning reunion. So people eat tangyuan specially to denote (表示) reunion, harmony and happiness for the family. In the daytime of the Lantern Festival, people can watch wonderful performances such as dragon lantern dance, lion dance, land boat dance,walking on stilts and beating drums while dancing.At night, besides amazing lanterns, fireworks form a beautiful scene. Some local governments will even organise a fireworks display. 32. Which of the following belongs to the activities at the Lantern Festival? A. Hanging healthy herbs. B. Dragon boat racing. C. Walking on stilts. D. Drinking chrysanthemum wine. 33. Why has solving lantern riddles become popular? A. Because people can get a little gift. B. Because it is filled with fun and wisdom. C. Because people have solutions to the riddles. D. Because it can tell whether people are wise or not. 34. What makes tangyuan become special food at the Lantern Festival? A. Its long history. B. Its unique and delicious taste. C. Its various fillings and cooking methods. D. Its symbol of reunion, harmony and happiness. 35. What is the author's attitude to the Lantern Festival? A. Doubtful. B. Favourable. C. Unclear. D. Curious. 第二节(共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 A healthy diet is not just what you eat, but how you eat. Here are some tips for you. Eat with others whenever possible. Eating with other people has numerous benefits, especially for children. 36 Eating in front of the TV or computer often leads to mindless overeating. Take time to chew your food and enjoy mealtimes. 37 We tend to rush through our meals, forgetting to enjoy the flavour and feel the taste of what is in our mouths. Listen to your body. Ask yourself if you are really hungry, or have a glass of water to see if you are thirsty instead of being hungry. 38 It actually takes a few minutes for your brain to tell your body that your stomach has had enough food,so eat slowly. 39 A healthy breakfast can speed up your metabolism (新陈代谢), and eating small, healthy meals throughout the day (rather than the standard three large meals) keeps your energy up and your metabolism going. Avoid eating at night. 40 And then don't eat for 12 to 14 hours until breakfast the next morning. Studies suggest that eating only when you' re most active and giving your digestive (消化的) system a long break each day may help keep fit. A. Drink plenty of water. B. Try to have dinner earlier. C. Be careful when eating out. D. Eat your food slowly, tasting every bite. E. During a meal, stop eating before you feel full. F. It allows you to follow others' healthy eating habits. G. Eat breakfast, and eat smaller meals throughout the day. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15 小题：每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 On Sunday morning, a man suffered a sudden heart attack and 41 down on a village street in the north. 42 bystanders called medical services for help. Sbri Diab, a volunteer EMT (急救医疗医生)of a non-profit emergency medical service organisation, was at work when he received the 43 about the medical emergency. Sbri 44 left work and drove to the 45 . When Sbri got there along with an ambulance, he found the manlying on the ground with no 46 and started CPR(心肺复苏) for him.After a few minutes, additional 47 arrived and got involved in the 48 to save the man's life. After about 40 minutes the team was 49 and the man regained his pulse (脉搏). Then the man was 50 to hospital in the ambulance for further care. When 51 after the whole thing ended, Sbri reported,“I'm glad the man regained consciousness.We worked hard to try to save the man. It's very 52 to see a patient regain life after what seems like death for a long time. It's very exciting and a great 53 to be able to save a life. We don't have many ambulances in the north. This is one of the reasons I decided to 54 the organisation so thatI could help save people until the 55 arrives.” 41. A. walked B. fell C. calmed D. settled 42. A. Creative B. Curious C. Angry D. Worried 43. A. call B. letter C. challenge D. permit 44. A. slowly B. cheerfully C. immediately D. regularly 45.A.company B. street C. centre D. hospital 46. A. medicine B. approach C. energy D. breath 47. A. volunteers B. workmates C. passersby D. friends 48. A. operation B. pressure C. effort D. system 49. A. confident B. successful C. disappointed D. tired 50. A. pushed B. guided C. led D. rushed 51. A. interviewed B. doubted C. suggested D.comforted 52. A. confusing B. horrible C. satisfying D. shocking 53. A. imagination B. relief C. benefit D. award 54. A. join B. design C. explore D. found 55. A. facility B. request C. chance D. ambulance 第二节(共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 In modern society, many traditional Chinese festivals are becoming less and less popular.However, they are an important part of Chinese culture, and it's our 56. (responsible) to protect and maintain them. This article focuses on a festival that many people are not familiar with — theCold Food Festival. The Cold Food Festival is named 57. food, and it is also known as“the Hanshi Festival”as people are only allowed to eat cold food on this day. The festival normally 58. (fall) one or two days ahead of the Qingming Festival. In most parts of China, fires might start easily in the dry early spring due to the flammable substances (易燃物) 59. (store) by people and the spring thunder. As a result, the ancients usually held grand ceremonies in 60. the fire stored from the previous year would be put out. Later, they would drill wood to get new fire for a new year. The gap between putting outold fire and 61. (burn) the wood to obtain new fire ranged from three, five, or seven days according to different 62. _________( history)records.During the gap days, fires 63. (forbid) in households. As a result, people would eat what they had prepared previously, namely the cold food, or“hanshi ” in Chinese. That's 64. the Cold Food Festival gradually came into being. As the Cold Food Festival is one or two days ahead of the Qingming Festival, little by little they got combined with one another. As time went by, theQingming Festival took over the folk activities of theCold Food Festival 65. (become) a major festival on this subject. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 近几年，一些西方节日(比如圣诞节)在中国愈来愈受到年轻人的青睐。为此，有学者倡议国人应慎重对待西方节日，抵制西方文化的扩张。假定你是某中学高一学生李华，前不久你们班就这个问题展开了一场辩论。请你根据下面表格提示的内容用英语给学校报刊的编辑写一封信，介绍辩论的结果并发表自己的看法。 观点 理由 70%的学生赞成过圣 诞节 了解西方文化；亲朋相聚，增进友谊和理解 20%的学生强烈反对 过圣诞节 崇洋媚外，有辱中国传统文化 10%的学生不反对过 圣诞节，但更提倡过 中国的传统节日 包容其他文化，但弘扬自己的传统文化是根本 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3.开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。 Dear Editor, I'm a senior high school student in Grade One.Several days ago our class had a heated debate on whether we should celebrate Christmas. Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Li Na, a Chinese exchange student in the UK,felt a bit nervous when Mr Smith asked each student to bring something that matters to them and share it with the class on Thursday. She sat in her seat quietly, thinking hard about what to bring. Suddenly, she remembered that the Lantern Festival happened to fall on next Friday. Her eyes lit up with excitement. On Thursday, the classroom was filled with joy and laughter as students shared their beloved snacks and toys. When Li Na's turn came, she rose,holding a wooden box. She opened it gently and took out a folded piece of red paper. With a few skilful folds and pulls, the paper magically turned into a beautiful lantern. She placed a candle inside and lit it carefully. “What is it?” asked Emma, her deskmate.“It is amazing!” Holding up the lantern, Li Na smiled and introduced the Lantern Festival —— its traditions of hanging lanterns, guessing lantern riddles (谜语),and eating sweet sticky rice balls called yuanxiao.“Red lanterns symbolise hope and reunion inChinese culture,” she explained.“And this year,the festival happens to be on next Friday.” Seeing how interested the students were, MrSmith walked over with a smile and said to Li Na,“Would you like to host a Lantern Festival party for the whole class next Friday night? I'm sure it will be a wonderful way to connect cultures.” “I'd love to!” Li Na replied without hesitation. Applause erupted in the classroom. But as she sat down, a little worry set in —— how could she make the party really fun and unforgettable? 注意： 续写词数应为150左右。 Paragraph 1: Li Na quickly realised the key was to get everyone involved in the preparation. Paragraph 2: The party took place as scheduled in the classroom. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 综合检测卷 时间:120 分钟 满分:150分 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5 小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a bank. B. In a hospital. C. In a restaurant. 2. What sport does the man like best? A. Jogging. B. Playing basketball. C. Swimming. 3. Which country did the man's wife visit last? A. Malaysia. B. Korea. C. Japan. 4. What does the man probably want to do? A. Do some exercise. B. Get an extra key. C. Order room service. 5. Why didn't William bring the drinks? A. He forgot about them. B. There were no drinks at the store. C. The drinks will be delivered. 第二节(共15 小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What's the time now? A. 10:30. B. 11:00. C. 11:30. 7. What's the man going to do? A. Look for a hotel. B. Make an appointment with the doctor. C. Meet someone at the hotel. 听第7段材料，回答第8至 10题。 8. When will the woman leave for Brisbane? A. On Monday. B. On Tuesday. C. On Wednesday. 9. What will the woman do on Thursday? A. Meet Mr Graig. B. Go to a fair. C. Attend a conference. 10. Where is the fair? A. In Brisbane. B. In Wellington. C. In Sydney. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. Which floor is the woman's room on? A. The 4th floor. B. The 5th floor. C. The 6th floor. 12. What colours are mostly used in the room? A. White and red. B. Blue and green. C. White and blue.13. What does the woman think of the room? A. She thinks it's too old. B. She loves it very much. C. She thinks it's not big enough. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. How long will Nick be away? A. About two weeks. B. About three weeks. C. About a month. 15. Where does Anna live? A. In Denmark. B. In Germany. C. In France. 16. Who could sing very well? A. Martin. B. Jane. C. Nick. 17. What will the woman talk about next? A. Her experience in Paris. B. Her friends' life in Europe. C. Her plan for the summer holiday. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What were Edgar and Louise Williams like? A. They were always in a hurry. B. They were very forgetful. C. They were afraid of flying. 19. How soon would the plane take off when Edgar and Louise Williams arrived at the airport? A. In 30 minutes. B. In 20 minutes. C. In 10 minutes. 20. What did Edgar mail to his mother? A. The insurance policy. B. The plane tickets. C. A beautiful stamp. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A College visits are important. Before you commit years of your life and money to a school, be sure you' re choosing a place that is a good match for your personality and interests. You can't get the“feel” of a school from any guidebook, so be sure to visit the campus. Below are a few tips for getting the most out of your college visit. Explore on your own Of course you should take an official campus tour, but be sure to allow time to hang around on your own. The trained tour guides will show you a school's selling points. But the oldest and prettiest buildings don't give you the entire picture of a college. Try to walk the extra kilometre and get the complete picture of the campus. Read the noticeboards When you visit the student centre, academic buildings and halls of residence, take a few minutes to read the noticeboards that provide an easy way to see what's happening on campus. The ads for lectures, clubs and plays can tell you what's going on outside the classrooms. Eat in the dining hall You can get a good feel about student life by eating in the dining hall. Try to sit with students if you can. Do they seem happy or stressed? Also, is the food good? Are there adequate healthy options?Many admissions offices will give prospective students coupons for free meals in the dining hall. Talk to lots of students Your campus tour guide has been trained to market the school. Try to talk to students who aren't getting paid to impress you. These important conversations can often provide you with information about college life that isn't part of the admission script. Few university officials will tell you if their students spend all weekend playing or studying, but a group of random students might. 21. What's the best way to know about a college in an official campus tour? A. To walk around the campus alone. B. To take pictures of the campus. C. To visit the oldest and prettiest buildings. D. To hire a trained tour guide. 22. What can reading the noticeboards help do? A. Decide the subject you want to major in. B. Find out the after-class activities on campus. C. Get free coupons from the admissions offices. D. Find out the options of healthy food. 23. Where does the passage probably come from? A. A news report. B. A poster. C. An educational magazine. D. A storybook. B Julie walked up and down as she waited backstage. This would be her most important piano performance yet. At ten years old, she was the youngest performer at the concert. She had practised playing her song more than 30 times that week.When she closed her eyes at night, the music played over and over again in her head. Now that the day had arrived, Julie was not sure she was ready. She smoothed back her hair and picked a piece of fluff (绒毛) from the new dress that her mother had bought for her. She noticed that her hands were shaking. How could she play thenotes of the song if her hands were shaking? She tried to concentrate on steadying them, but they only shook more.Julie's piano teacher, Ms Neal, walked up to speak to her.“I have something for you,” she said,putting a smooth black stone into Julie's hand.“It's a special stone. There's no other one like it in the world. You' ve practised so much; you don't need anything else.” The stage lights reflected off the rock.“Thank you,” Julie said. When Julie's name was called, she rubbed(搓) the stone, stepped onto the stage, and played better than ever. After her performance, she noticed that Ms Neal had a whole bag of black stones.“Why did you say this one was so special?” she asked.Her teacher answered,“Because, like your talent,it belongs only to you.” 24. Why did Julie hear the piano music in her head at night? A. She listened to the song every day. B. She wanted to remember the song forever. C. She had practised the song many times. D. She liked the song very much. 25. Which word best describes Julie when she waited backstage? A. Energetic. B. Nervous. C. Confident. D. Concentrated. 26. What did Ms Neal think of Julie? A. She was a curious girl. B. She was well prepared. C. She needed confidence. D. She trusted people easily. 27. What does the author want to show? A. People are talented in their own way. B. Performing in front of people is hard. C. Rubbing a stone can bring good luck. D. Hard work can make up for a lack of talent. C There's been a lot of talking about white - and blue-collar workers, and you may have even heard of gold-collar workers, but lately a new colour of collar is making its way into China's urban vernacular (方言)—— green. Green collars say no when work is life and life is work. They choose to get out of the fast lane, and explore new ways of living“green”. Living green doesn't mean someone is working as an environmentalist, a biologist or a scientist.Instead, it is more of a lifestyle choice. A typical green collar is well-educated like a white collar but physically tough like a blue collar. They are mostly born in the 1970s or 1980s and living in one ofChina's big cities, usually with a good income. The life of a green collar may go something like this: Turn off the mobile phone after work, eat only healthy food rich in vitamins, go out on hikes every weekend, and be willing to help the disadvantaged. Green collars even have their own clubs. For example, there is a green collar club for people who share a“to be happy, healthy and helpful” spirit.The club often holds charity parties and uses the donations for environmental protection and poverty relief projects in China. “They are successful in their careers, but do not miss the pleasures in life. They have a lot of money, but they are not a slave to it,” said one of the members of the club. 28. Why are green collars living green? A. They have a high income to use. B. They don't want to live an unhealthy life. C. They spend a lot of money and time outside. D. They devote themselves to environmental protection. 29. What will green collars do after work? A. They will go to different clubs. B. They will talk to old friends on the phone. C. They will think nothing about work. D. They will do a lot of extra work at home. 30. What's the member's attitude towards green collars? A. Appreciative. B. Doubtful. C. Critical. D. Worried. 31. What is the passage mainly about? A. The lifestyle of green collars. B. New trends of life in China's big cities. C. People's increasing awareness of environmental protection. D. Differences between white collars and green collars. D Cheerleading is one of the fastest growing girls'sports, yet many Americans do not believe it is a sport. Actually, competitive cheerleading is a sport. Competitive cheerleading includes lots of physical activities. Like gymnasts, cheerleaders must learn tumbling (翻腾运动). They perform lifts and tosses. This is where the“fliers” are thrown in the air, held by“bases” in different positions that require strength and cooperation with other teammates. Just as basketball and football, competitive cheerleading also has guidelines for competitive play. Competitive cheerleaders’ goal is to be the best. Just like gymnasts, they are awarded points for difficulty, creativity and sharpness. Cheerleading is a team sport, so without cooperation, first place is out of reach. Cheerleading is an important cause of serious sports injuries to women, partly because they do not wear protective gear. While many athletes are equipped with hip pads or helmets, cheerleaders are tossed into the air and spiral down into the arms of trusted teammates. The fliers must remain tight at all times so that their bases can catch them safely.Also, because cheerleading is not yet recognised as a sport by many schools, neither proper matting nor high enough ceilings are provided to ensure safety.Instead, the girls use any available space. More recognition of competitive cheerleading as a sport would decrease the number of injuries. So why don't many Americans think cheerleading is a sport? Some people argue that cheerleaders are just girls in skirts with their only job to entertain the crowd, but cheerleaders today work just as hard as other athletes. Hopefully, cheerleading will become as well-known a sport as football and basketball, and even appear in the Olympic Games since cheerleaders are just as athletic and physically fit as those involved in the more accepted sports. 32. What does the underlined word“bases” inParagraph 2 refer to? A. Strength and cooperation. B. Lifts and tosses. C. Supporting teammates. D. Physical activities. 33. Why are gymnasts mentioned in the passage? A. To explain the dangers of cheerleading. B. To show their similarities with cheerleaders. C. To suggest cheerleaders learn to do gymnastics. D. To present the guidelines on gymnastics. 34. What can we learn from the passage? A. Cheerleading is a good sport for all people. B. Cheerleading lacks necessary guidelines to follow. C. Cheerleading is more than a form of entertainment. D. Cheerleading enjoys greater popularity than other sports. 35. What's the author's purpose in writing this passage? A. To attract more girls to cheerleading. B. To introduce the guidelines on cheerleading. C. To call for more recognition of competitive cheerleading as a sport. D. To criticise some Americans who do not think of cheerleading as a sport. 第二节(共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Teenagers are especially likely to suffer from loneliness. Here are some suggestions about speeding a recovery from loneliness. Reach out to others, but start small. A smile and a friendly greeting for the student behind you in line at the cafeteria won't make you best friends. 36 It can also make it easier to interact the next time. Find a safe place to make connections. If going to the school dance makes you feel like you just don't belong, try joining a special hobby group. Maybe it's the drama club or the marching band. 37 Find other ways of making connections. Lonely people hunger for acceptance and friendship.Sometimes feeling accepted and liked comes more easily when you do something for others. 38 Teach a child to read. Take notes for a classmate who is ill. You might be surprised at the connections you make after helping others in these ways. 39 Loneliness is an absence of quality friendships, not of a particular quantity of friends.That's why it's important to know how to select a friend. The best friendships are those based on similar values and attitudes. You get what you expect, so expect the best. If you expect others to be friendly, you will behave in similar ways. 40 It goes away as teens learn how to find their way through their social world and connect with others. A. Choose the right people. B. So, consider becoming a volunteer. C. Some teens aren't so adaptable, however. D. Encourage people to be friendlier to you. E. But it will make you both feel pretty good. F. For most young people, loneliness is only temporary (暂时的). G. Look for a group that allows you to feel at ease gradually. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 One summer evening as I was cooking dinner,there was a knock at the door. I 41 it and saw a truly bad-looking old man. But his voice was 42 as he said,“Good evening. I come to see if you have a room for just one night. I came for a(n) 43 this morning from the eastern shore. And there's no bus till the next morning.” He told me he'd been 44 for a room but with no success.“Iguess it's my face... I know it looks terrible, but my doctor says with a few more treatments...” he said. Itold him we would 45 him a bed, but he needed to rest on the porch for a while. I went inside and prepared dinner. When we were ready, I asked him if he would like to 46 us.“No, thank you.I have plenty,” he replied.When I had 47 the dinner, I went out to talk with him. It didn't take a long time to 48 that this old man had an oversized heart crowded into that tiny body. He told me he fished for a living to 49 his daughter, her five children, and her husband, who was 50 disabled from a back injury. At bedtime, we 51 a bed in the children's room for him. On his next trip, as a gift,he brought a big fish and some of the largest oysters(牡蛎) I had never seen. Later, he came to 52 overnight with us several times, and there was never a time he did not 53 us some fish or vegetables from his garden. I knew our family would always be 54 to have known him. From him we learnt what it was to accept the 55 without a complaint and the good with thanks. 41. A. felt B. opened C. repaired D. painted 42. A. tired B. bored C. pleasant D. angry 43. A. interview B. text C. performance D. treatment 44. A. crying B. hunting C. studying D. choosing 7-6 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 7-6 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 45. A. find B. tell C. send D. sell 46. A. call B. visit C. join D. invite 47. A. examined B. broken C. finished D. removed 48. A. decide B. admire C. hear D. see 49. A. expect B. supply C. support D. ask 50. A. breathlessly B. carelessly C. hopelessly D. cautiously 51. A. put B. planted C. covered D. discovered 52. A. stay B. judge C. live D. suffer 53. A. bring B. teach C. show D. buy 54. A. beautiful B. thankful C. special D. silent 55. A. poor B. wounded C. ill D. bad 第二节(共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Do you feel a little sleepy after lunch? Well,that's normal. Your body 56. (natural)slows down then. What should you do about it? Don't reach for a coffee! Instead, take a nap — a very short sleep. It's good for you 57. (have) a daily nap. You remember things better and become more active. It may even cheer you up. However, there 58. (be) some simple rules you should follow about taking a nap. First,take a nap 59. the middle of the day —about eight hours after you wake up. Next, 60. 20-minute nap is the best. If you sleep longer, you may fall into a deep sleep. After waking up from a deep sleep, you will feel even61. (bad). Also, you should set an alarm clock. In that way, you can get fully 62. (relax) during your nap. You won't have to keep63. (look) at the clock and you won't oversleep. Next time you feel sleepy after lunch, don't worry. Put your head down, close your 64. (eye) and take a short sleep, 65. will surely do you good. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 假定你是李华，你的美国朋友 Tom 给你发来一封电子邮件，表示对中国的传统节日很感兴趣。请你给他回复邮件，向他介绍你最喜欢的中国传统节日。内容包括： 1.节日的名字及时间； 2.庆祝方式或活动； 3.你喜欢它的原因。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 第二节(满分25分) 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 I was responding to a call from a small flatmade of brick in a quiet part of town. I assumed Iwas being sent to pick up some partygoers, or aworker heading to an early shift at some factory inthe industrial part of town. When I arrived at 2:30 am, the building was dark except for a single light on the ground floor.Under such circumstances, many drivers just honk(按喇叭) once or twice, wait a minute, and then drive away. But I saw too many weak people who depended on taxis as their only means of transport. This passenger might be someone who needed my assistance, I thought to myself. So I walked to the door and knocked.“Just a minute,” answered a feeble (非常虚弱的) voice. I could hear something being dragged across the floor. After a long pause,the door opened. A small woman in her 80s stood in front of me. She was wearing a print dress and a pillbox hat, like somebody out of a 1940s film. By her side was a small suitcase made of nylon. The flat looked as if no one had lived in it for years. All the furniture was covered with sheets.There were no clocks on the walls, and no equipment on the work-top (厨房的操作台). In the corner was a cardboard box filled with photos and glassware. “Would you carry my bag out to the car?” the woman said. I took the suitcase to the taxi, and then returned to assist her. She took my arm, and we walked slowly towards the taxi. She kept thanking me for my kindness.“It's nothing,” I told her. “I just try to treat my passengers the way I would want my mother treated.” 注意： 续写词数应为150左右。 Paragraph 1: Having given me an address, a hospice (临终安养院), she asked,“Could you drive through downtown?” Paragraph 2: We drove in silence to the address she had given me. 7-8 英语必修第二册 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 7-8 英语必修第二册 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 综合检测卷 时间:120 分钟 满分:150分 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5 小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a bank. B. In a hospital. C. In a restaurant. 2. What sport does the man like best? A. Jogging. B. Playing basketball. C. Swimming. 3. Which country did the man's wife visit last? A. Malaysia. B. Korea. C. Japan. 4. What does the man probably want to do? A. Do some exercise. B. Get an extra key. C. Order room service. 5. Why didn't William bring the drinks? A. He forgot about them. B. There were no drinks at the store. C. The drinks will be delivered. 第二节(共15 小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What's the time now? A. 10:30. B. 11:00. C. 11:30. 7. What's the man going to do? A. Look for a hotel. B. Make an appointment with the doctor. C. Meet someone at the hotel. 听第7段材料，回答第8至 10题。 8. When will the woman leave for Brisbane? A. On Monday. B. On Tuesday. C. On Wednesday. 9. What will the woman do on Thursday? A. Meet Mr Graig. B. Go to a fair. C. Attend a conference. 10. Where is the fair? A. In Brisbane. B. In Wellington. C. In Sydney. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. Which floor is the woman's room on? A. The 4th floor. B. The 5th floor. C. The 6th floor. 12. What colours are mostly used in the room? A. White and red. B. Blue and green. C. White and blue.13. What does the woman think of the room? A. She thinks it's too old. B. She loves it very much. C. She thinks it's not big enough. 听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。 14. How long will Nick be away? A. About two weeks. B. About three weeks. C. About a month. 15. Where does Anna live? A. In Denmark. B. In Germany. C. In France. 16. Who could sing very well? A. Martin. B. Jane. C. Nick. 17. What will the woman talk about next? A. Her experience in Paris. B. Her friends' life in Europe. C. Her plan for the summer holiday. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What were Edgar and Louise Williams like? A. They were always in a hurry. B. They were very forgetful. C. They were afraid of flying. 19. How soon would the plane take off when Edgar and Louise Williams arrived at the airport? A. In 30 minutes. B. In 20 minutes. C. In 10 minutes. 20. What did Edgar mail to his mother? A. The insurance policy. B. The plane tickets. C. A beautiful stamp. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A College visits are important. Before you commit years of your life and money to a school, be sure you' re choosing a place that is a good match for your personality and interests. You can't get the“feel” of a school from any guidebook, so be sure to visit the campus. Below are a few tips for getting the most out of your college visit. Explore on your own Of course you should take an official campus tour, but be sure to allow time to hang around on your own. The trained tour guides will show you a school's selling points. But the oldest and prettiest buildings don't give you the entire picture of a college. Try to walk the extra kilometre and get the complete picture of the campus. Read the noticeboards When you visit the student centre, academic buildings and halls of residence, take a few minutes to read the noticeboards that provide an easy way to see what's happening on campus. The ads for lectures, clubs and plays can tell you what's going on outside the classrooms. Eat in the dining hall You can get a good feel about student life by eating in the dining hall. Try to sit with students if you can. Do they seem happy or stressed? Also, is the food good? Are there adequate healthy options?Many admissions offices will give prospective students coupons for free meals in the dining hall. Talk to lots of students Your campus tour guide has been trained to market the school. Try to talk to students who aren't getting paid to impress you. These important conversations can often provide you with information about college life that isn't part of the admission script. Few university officials will tell you if their students spend all weekend playing or studying, but a group of random students might. 21. What's the best way to know about a college in an official campus tour? A. To walk around the campus alone. B. To take pictures of the campus. C. To visit the oldest and prettiest buildings. D. To hire a trained tour guide. 22. What can reading the noticeboards help do? A. Decide the subject you want to major in. B. Find out the after-class activities on campus. C. Get free coupons from the admissions offices. D. Find out the options of healthy food. 23. Where does the passage probably come from? A. A news report. B. A poster. C. An educational magazine. D. A storybook. B Julie walked up and down as she waited backstage. This would be her most important piano performance yet. At ten years old, she was the youngest performer at the concert. She had practised playing her song more than 30 times that week.When she closed her eyes at night, the music played over and over again in her head. Now that the day had arrived, Julie was not sure she was ready. She smoothed back her hair and picked a piece of fluff (绒毛) from the new dress that her mother had bought for her. She noticed that her hands were shaking. How could she play thenotes of the song if her hands were shaking? She tried to concentrate on steadying them, but they only shook more.Julie's piano teacher, Ms Neal, walked up to speak to her.“I have something for you,” she said,putting a smooth black stone into Julie's hand.“It's a special stone. There's no other one like it in the world. You' ve practised so much; you don't need anything else.” The stage lights reflected off the rock.“Thank you,” Julie said. When Julie's name was called, she rubbed(搓) the stone, stepped onto the stage, and played better than ever. After her performance, she noticed that Ms Neal had a whole bag of black stones.“Why did you say this one was so special?” she asked.Her teacher answered,“Because, like your talent,it belongs only to you.” 24. Why did Julie hear the piano music in her head at night? A. She listened to the song every day. B. She wanted to remember the song forever. C. She had practised the song many times. D. She liked the song very much. 25. Which word best describes Julie when she waited backstage? A. Energetic. B. Nervous. C. Confident. D. Concentrated. 26. What did Ms Neal think of Julie? A. She was a curious girl. B. She was well prepared. C. She needed confidence. D. She trusted people easily. 27. What does the author want to show? A. People are talented in their own way. B. Performing in front of people is hard. C. Rubbing a stone can bring good luck. D. Hard work can make up for a lack of talent. C There's been a lot of talking about white - and blue-collar workers, and you may have even heard of gold-collar workers, but lately a new colour of collar is making its way into China's urban vernacular (方言)—— green. Green collars say no when work is life and life is work. They choose to get out of the fast lane, and explore new ways of living“green”. Living green doesn't mean someone is working as an environmentalist, a biologist or a scientist.Instead, it is more of a lifestyle choice. A typical green collar is well-educated like a white collar but physically tough like a blue collar. They are mostly born in the 1970s or 1980s and living in one ofChina's big cities, usually with a good income. The life of a green collar may go something like this: Turn off the mobile phone after work, eat only healthy food rich in vitamins, go out on hikes every weekend, and be willing to help the disadvantaged. Green collars even have their own clubs. For example, there is a green collar club for people who share a“to be happy, healthy and helpful” spirit.The club often holds charity parties and uses the donations for environmental protection and poverty relief projects in China. “They are successful in their careers, but do not miss the pleasures in life. They have a lot of money, but they are not a slave to it,” said one of the members of the club. 28. Why are green collars living green? A. They have a high income to use. B. They don't want to live an unhealthy life. C. They spend a lot of money and time outside. D. They devote themselves to environmental protection. 29. What will green collars do after work? A. They will go to different clubs. B. They will talk to old friends on the phone. C. They will think nothing about work. D. They will do a lot of extra work at home. 30. What's the member's attitude towards green collars? A. Appreciative. B. Doubtful. C. Critical. D. Worried. 31. What is the passage mainly about? A. The lifestyle of green collars. B. New trends of life in China's big cities. C. People's increasing awareness of environmental protection. D. Differences between white collars and green collars. D Cheerleading is one of the fastest growing girls'sports, yet many Americans do not believe it is a sport. Actually, competitive cheerleading is a sport. Competitive cheerleading includes lots of physical activities. Like gymnasts, cheerleaders must learn tumbling (翻腾运动). They perform lifts and tosses. This is where the“fliers” are thrown in the air, held by“bases” in different positions that require strength and cooperation with other teammates. Just as basketball and football, competitive cheerleading also has guidelines for competitive play. Competitive cheerleaders’ goal is to be the best. Just like gymnasts, they are awarded points for difficulty, creativity and sharpness. Cheerleading is a team sport, so without cooperation, first place is out of reach. Cheerleading is an important cause of serious sports injuries to women, partly because they do not wear protective gear. While many athletes are equipped with hip pads or helmets, cheerleaders are tossed into the air and spiral down into the arms of trusted teammates. The fliers must remain tight at all times so that their bases can catch them safely.Also, because cheerleading is not yet recognised as a sport by many schools, neither proper matting nor high enough ceilings are provided to ensure safety.Instead, the girls use any available space. More recognition of competitive cheerleading as a sport would decrease the number of injuries. So why don't many Americans think cheerleading is a sport? Some people argue that cheerleaders are just girls in skirts with their only job to entertain the crowd, but cheerleaders today work just as hard as other athletes. Hopefully, cheerleading will become as well-known a sport as football and basketball, and even appear in the Olympic Games since cheerleaders are just as athletic and physically fit as those involved in the more accepted sports. 32. What does the underlined word“bases” inParagraph 2 refer to? A. Strength and cooperation. B. Lifts and tosses. C. Supporting teammates. D. Physical activities. 33. Why are gymnasts mentioned in the passage? A. To explain the dangers of cheerleading. B. To show their similarities with cheerleaders. C. To suggest cheerleaders learn to do gymnastics. D. To present the guidelines on gymnastics. 34. What can we learn from the passage? A. Cheerleading is a good sport for all people. B. Cheerleading lacks necessary guidelines to follow. C. Cheerleading is more than a form of entertainment. D. Cheerleading enjoys greater popularity than other sports. 35. What's the author's purpose in writing this passage? A. To attract more girls to cheerleading. B. To introduce the guidelines on cheerleading. C. To call for more recognition of competitive cheerleading as a sport. D. To criticise some Americans who do not think of cheerleading as a sport. 第二节(共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Teenagers are especially likely to suffer from loneliness. Here are some suggestions about speeding a recovery from loneliness. Reach out to others, but start small. A smile and a friendly greeting for the student behind you in line at the cafeteria won't make you best friends. 36 It can also make it easier to interact the next time. Find a safe place to make connections. If going to the school dance makes you feel like you just don't belong, try joining a special hobby group. Maybe it's the drama club or the marching band. 37 Find other ways of making connections. Lonely people hunger for acceptance and friendship.Sometimes feeling accepted and liked comes more easily when you do something for others. 38 Teach a child to read. Take notes for a classmate who is ill. You might be surprised at the connections you make after helping others in these ways. 39 Loneliness is an absence of quality friendships, not of a particular quantity of friends.That's why it's important to know how to select a friend. The best friendships are those based on similar values and attitudes. You get what you expect, so expect the best. If you expect others to be friendly, you will behave in similar ways. 40 It goes away as teens learn how to find their way through their social world and connect with others. A. Choose the right people. B. So, consider becoming a volunteer. C. Some teens aren't so adaptable, however. D. Encourage people to be friendlier to you. E. But it will make you both feel pretty good. F. For most young people, loneliness is only temporary (暂时的). G. Look for a group that allows you to feel at ease gradually. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 One summer evening as I was cooking dinner,there was a knock at the door. I 41 it and saw a truly bad-looking old man. But his voice was 42 as he said,“Good evening. I come to see if you have a room for just one night. I came for a(n) 43 this morning from the eastern shore. And there's no bus till the next morning.” He told me he'd been 44 for a room but with no success.“Iguess it's my face... I know it looks terrible, but my doctor says with a few more treatments...” he said. Itold him we would 45 him a bed, but he needed to rest on the porch for a while. I went inside and prepared dinner. When we were ready, I asked him if he would like to 46 us.“No, thank you.I have plenty,” he replied.When I had 47 the dinner, I went out to talk with him. It didn't take a long time to 48 that this old man had an oversized heart crowded into that tiny body. He told me he fished for a living to 49 his daughter, her five children, and her husband, who was 50 disabled from a back injury. At bedtime, we 51 a bed in the children's room for him. On his next trip, as a gift,he brought a big fish and some of the largest oysters(牡蛎) I had never seen. Later, he came to 52 overnight with us several times, and there was never a time he did not 53 us some fish or vegetables from his garden. I knew our family would always be 54 to have known him. From him we learnt what it was to accept the 55 without a complaint and the good with thanks. 41. A. felt B. opened C. repaired D. painted 42. A. tired B. bored C. pleasant D. angry 43. A. interview B. text C. performance D. treatment 44. A. crying B. hunting C. studying D. choosing 7-6 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 7-6 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 45. A. find B. tell C. send D. sell 46. A. call B. visit C. join D. invite 47. A. examined B. broken C. finished D. removed 48. A. decide B. admire C. hear D. see 49. A. expect B. supply C. support D. ask 50. A. breathlessly B. carelessly C. hopelessly D. cautiously 51. A. put B. planted C. covered D. discovered 52. A. stay B. judge C. live D. suffer 53. A. bring B. teach C. show D. buy 54. A. beautiful B. thankful C. special D. silent 55. A. poor B. wounded C. ill D. bad 第二节(共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Do you feel a little sleepy after lunch? Well,that's normal. Your body 56. (natural)slows down then. What should you do about it? Don't reach for a coffee! Instead, take a nap — a very short sleep. It's good for you 57. (have) a daily nap. You remember things better and become more active. It may even cheer you up. However, there 58. (be) some simple rules you should follow about taking a nap. First,take a nap 59. the middle of the day —about eight hours after you wake up. Next, 60. 20-minute nap is the best. If you sleep longer, you may fall into a deep sleep. After waking up from a deep sleep, you will feel even61. (bad). Also, you should set an alarm clock. In that way, you can get fully 62. (relax) during your nap. You won't have to keep63. (look) at the clock and you won't oversleep. Next time you feel sleepy after lunch, don't worry. Put your head down, close your 64. (eye) and take a short sleep, 65. will surely do you good. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 假定你是李华，你的美国朋友 Tom 给你发来一封电子邮件，表示对中国的传统节日很感兴趣。请你给他回复邮件，向他介绍你最喜欢的中国传统节日。内容包括： 1.节日的名字及时间； 2.庆祝方式或活动； 3.你喜欢它的原因。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 第二节(满分25分) 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 I was responding to a call from a small flatmade of brick in a quiet part of town. I assumed Iwas being sent to pick up some partygoers, or aworker heading to an early shift at some factory inthe industrial part of town. When I arrived at 2:30 am, the building was dark except for a single light on the ground floor.Under such circumstances, many drivers just honk(按喇叭) once or twice, wait a minute, and then drive away. But I saw too many weak people who depended on taxis as their only means of transport. This passenger might be someone who needed my assistance, I thought to myself. So I walked to the door and knocked.“Just a minute,” answered a feeble (非常虚弱的) voice. I could hear something being dragged across the floor. After a long pause,the door opened. A small woman in her 80s stood in front of me. She was wearing a print dress and a pillbox hat, like somebody out of a 1940s film. By her side was a small suitcase made of nylon. The flat looked as if no one had lived in it for years. All the furniture was covered with sheets.There were no clocks on the walls, and no equipment on the work-top (厨房的操作台). In the corner was a cardboard box filled with photos and glassware. “Would you carry my bag out to the car?” the woman said. I took the suitcase to the taxi, and then returned to assist her. She took my arm, and we walked slowly towards the taxi. She kept thanking me for my kindness.“It's nothing,” I told her. “I just try to treat my passengers the way I would want my mother treated.” 注意： 续写词数应为150左右。 Paragraph 1: Having given me an address, a hospice (临终安养院), she asked,“Could you drive through downtown?” Paragraph 2: We drove in silence to the address she had given me. 7-8 英语必修第二册 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 7-8 英语必修第二册 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 3 单元检测卷 时间:120分钟 满分:150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5 小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does Jim do? A. A teacher. B. An officer. C. A student. 2. What time did Suzy leave home? A. At 4:30. B. At 5:00. C. At 5:15. 3. What are the speakers talking about? A. Their own exhibition. B. The plan for today. C. A talk show. 4. How long has the rain probably lasted? A. Five days. B. Six days. C. Seven days. 5. What do the speakers think of their chemistry course? A. It's perfect. B. It's well organised. C. It's unsatisfactory. 第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Where does this conversation take place? A. In a library. B. In a classroom. C. In a bookshop. 7. Why is William Shakespeare mentioned in the conversation? A. He gave presents to millions of people. B. He was a wealthy man in his times. C. His signature is worth a lot of money. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Whom is the man asking for help? A. A policewoman. B. A passerby. C. A waitress. 9. What is the man looking for? A. A comfortable hotel. B. An inexpensive hotel. C. A modern hotel. 10. How long will the man stay in the hotel? A. One night. B. Two nights. C. Three nights. 听第8段材料，回答第11 至13题。 11. Why does the woman talk with the man? A. To make an invitation. B. To get some advice. C. To offer help. 12. What does the man plan to do on Saturday? A. Go climbing. B. Stay at home. C. Help his sister move. 13. Where will the woman go this evening? A. The man's house. B. Her mother's home. C. A restaurant. 听第9段材料，回答第14 至 17题。 14. What is Lisa doing? A. Listening to music. B. Seeing a film. C. Writing a letter. 15. How long will Lisa stay in Japan? A. For a year. B. For a month. C. For two years. 16. What will Lisa do before going to Japan? A. Read more Japanese novels. B. Attend a language class. C. Apply for a new programme. 17. According to Lisa, what matters most about getting into a programme? A. The mastery of a foreign language. B. The ability to learn new things quickly. C. The experiences of studying abroad. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. Why does the speaker give this talk? A. To introduce the Irish Pub. B. To inform the listeners of some changes. C. To tell the arrangements for the day. 19. Where is the LaFleur Club located? A. It's behind the Rodolfo Club. B. It's very far from the office. C. It's opposite a gallery. 20. How does the speaker suggest the listeners get to the party? A. By bus. B. By subway. C. By car. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分,满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A There is no chance of children getting bored in the holidays with these action-packed weeks of fun and games. Days begin with team building activities to help“break the ice” and get the children in the mood. The wonderfully safe and secure environment of Port Regis enables the children to explore the woods and enjoy their own creative play. Week 1 Festival of Sport (22 July to 26 July) The summer activities kick off with a wonderful week of sporting fun including cricket, athletics and other great team games. Swims in the pool and games in the gym. Week 2 Let's Go Wild (29 July to 2 August) A whole week in the great outdoors with treasure hunts and cave building along with amazing team games in the woods. This week guarantees to be like no other. Navigate yourself through the huge spiders’ web and guide balls through the huge ball maze... This is a great week for making new friends. Week 3 Sports Madness (5 August to 9 August) A wild and strange week of tournaments and team games, but be careful, for you might get wet!Arts and crafts, fun in the gym and swims in the pool make this a hard week. Besides exhaustion,you'd better learn to get used to challenges and accept any result. Activities will be dependent on the weather. Week 4 Medal Medley (12 August to 16August) This week reruns the best bits of the last three weeks with great team games and tournaments,action-packed ball sports, fun in the pool and adventures in the woods. Children will need to bring: Swimming kit, plenty to drink and break snacks.Depending on the weather, children will need either sunscreen and sun hats or rain gear (雨具). 21. Which activity will be unique? A. Swims in the Pool. B. Let's Go Wild. C. Festival of Sport. D. Sports Madness. 22. When can children review the activities they had before? A. From 22 July to 26 July. B. From 29 July to 2 August. C. From 5 August to 9 August. D. From 12 August to 16 August. 23. What can we learn from the passage? A. Children will be provided with snacks to eat. B. Children must wear sunscreen or sun hats. C. Children need to prepare for rainy days. D. Children have to drink a lot before swimming. B A blind skateboarder has proven that his lack of sight won't stop him from living a normal life —— and now he's learnt some of the most complicated tricks. Dan Mancina was diagnosed with a rare genetic disease at 13 and it causes loss of vision. Around five years ago, Dan lost his vision completely and now is defined as a blind person —— but refuses to let it hold him back. Dan said that he was discouraged by other people's behaviour and was determined to prove people wrong, so he started skateboarding,practised every day, and soon he was landing trick after trick. Dan started performing tricks that some might not expect a blind person to be able to do —— like throwing darts(飞镖). He said he felt a need to prove himself to those who doubted his abilities. SoDan, who has been skateboarding since he was seven years old, recently posted a video of himself performing a trick on the Internet. The experience reminded him of his love for the sport and inspired him to continue pursuing his passion, but now his methods are somewhat different. Before skating at a park, Dan uses a stick to measure the different ramps (人造斜坡) and corners, and get a feel for the area. He also uses a beeper box or a Bluetooth speaker to bounce the sounds off anything in the environment —— such as a nearby road —— warning him of any dangers in the area. The skateboarder said,“I get a mental map of the area where I am and use every other sense Ihave. I'm always trying to progress and keep pushingmyself further and further. I have certain goals that Iwant to achieve. One day I want to film full-length skateboard videos without any cuts. That's really my goal.”24. What happened to Dan Mancina when he was thirteen? A. He became completely blind. B. He suffered from an unusual eye disease. C. He was not allowed to skateboard. D. He got injured while skateboarding. 25. Why did Dan perform complicated tricks? A. To shoot a video about his success in life. B. To become the focus of public attention. C. To achieve his childhood dream. D. To show he could live a normal life. 26. What does Paragraph 4 mainly talk about? A. Dan's training field. B. Dan's passion for sport. C. Dan's training equipment. D. Dan's preparations for skateboarding. 27. What can we learn from the story? A. Nothing is impossible to a willing heart. B. A good beginning makes a good ending. C. He who laughs last laughs best. D. All that ends well is well. C The roots of basketball are deep in Canada. In1891 the game was invented by Dr James Naismith,who was born in Ontario, Canada. Having been given the task of creating a new indoor sports activity while conducting a physical education class at an international training school inSpringfield, Massachusetts, Naismith designed what we now call basketball. The original game involved13 basic rules and a peach basket hung about 3metres above the floor. It soon became popular,spreading through the world. Basketball played by school and local amateur teams has been part of the Canadian sports scene since the turn of the century. Basketball teams representing Canada have entered the OlympicGames since 1936. One of the most storied amateur teams inCanadian basketball history is the Edmonton Grads,a group of Canadian women who dominated the sport in the 1920s, 30s and 40s. Over 25 years, theGrads played more than 400 games at home and abroad, against both women's and men's teams.While a definite number may never be achieved,there is no doubt that the Grads were an exceptional team, winning around 95 per cent of their games. The National Basketball Association (NBA)also has origins in Canada. The NBA's first game was played in Toronto on 1 November 1946 when theNew York Knickerbockers defeated the TorontoHuskies 68-66 at Maple Leaf Gardens. The teams were part of the Basketball Association of America(BAA), the forerunner to the NBA. 28. Why was basketball created as a physical activity? A. Canada desired to be a forerunner in sports. B. A new indoor activity was needed inMassachusetts. C. Students from Canada needed physical exercise. D. James Naismith was a teacher of physical education. 29. What does the underlined word“dominated”mean in Paragraph 4? A. Contributed to. B. Took an interest in. C. Took the lead in. D. Took part in. 30. What can be inferred about the Grads according to Paragraph 4? A. The Grads won about 68 games. B. The Grads had men and women players. C. The Grads were active in the 1960s. D. The Grads seldom lost the games. 31. What can be the best title for the passage? A. BAA and NBA B. The origin of NBA C. NBA and the Olympic Games D. The history of basketball in Canada D Wasting things is a nightmare (噩梦) for the environment, especially food waste, which does double harm to the environment. Plenty of resources go into the food and the food system also produces lots of greenhouse gases and pollution. In our homes, restaurants, and food shops,about 17 per cent of all our food is thrown away——that's about a sixth of all of the food we have. If the food lost in production is included, about a third of all food produced never reaches a mouth. Every year, millions of people are affected by hunger.Even more—— one in three—— can suffer from some form of malnutrition. It is mostly households that are to blame: 11 per cent of the food ends up in the rubbish of our homes, much more than that in stores and restaurants. The reasons why food goes to waste are probably familiar to you: dinner party leftovers that never get eaten, food going bad before you cook it,or simply confusion over sell-by dates (销售期限)and expiry dates (到期日) that leads to totally fine food ending up in the rubbish. Most countries are taking measures to cut food waste in half at the consumer and sale levels.Luckily, there's actually a lot we can do as individuals and governments can make policies to help people and the environment a lot. For individuals, it is important to be more thoughtful and prepared when we go to the supermarket. Make a list of meals you want to cook, and then only buy fresh produce that you will 100 per cent be eating in the next few days. In the social aspect, improving education on how to preserve (保存) food and understand tricky labels, encouraging food recycling and pushing companies to sell smaller quantities of healthy, fresh food for one or two people could all play a helpful role in bringing down the massive pile of eatable waste. 32. Which of the following contributes most to food waste? A. Food shops. B. Restaurants. C. Households. D. Food production. 33. What is partly responsible for food waste? A. People eat less than before. B. The food price is low. C. Food goes bad easily during the summer. D. People are confused about the shelf life (保存期) of food. 34. What is the author's advice on how to deal with food waste? A. Supermarkets should supply limited food. B. Everyone should eat as little food as possible. C. People should raise their awareness of food conservation. D. Governments should distribute (分配) food resources fairly. 35. In which section of a newspaper may this passage appear? A. Health. B. Fashion. C. Environment. D. Science. 第二节(共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Benefits of team sports Team sports are sports that require manyplayers such as football, basketball and volleyball and they offer many great benefits. 36 Instead,they desire to have their children succeed in individual sports. The following are major benefits of taking part in team sports.Team sports improve leadership abilities. Team sports are very vital in helping children develop their leadership abilities. 37 It is very important for every player in any team sport to be aware of their roles in the class of leadership. Players also learn the importance of supporting the leader, thereby promoting the efficiency of the team. Team sports promote responsibility. 38 In most schools, there are academic expectations required from all players. Parents do not allow their children to take team sports unless they complete their schoolwork. 39 Team sports such as football and basketball are a great method of exercising as they involve constant running as well as other activities that work every muscle in your body. It can therefore help children manage their weight and get fitter.Furthermore, team sports are particularly effective for exercising leg muscles. Team sports have social benefits. There is always a great sense of loyalty (忠诚) to the team and this strengthens social relationships. This also hugely inspires a child's social life since he or she is going to make many new friends. Team sports also enhance self-respect and therefore increase happiness. 40 The shortcomings of team sports are that you are required to share many things when you are a member of a team and that you might be easily overshadowed (使相形见绌) if the other players are better than you. A. Team sports are an effective workout. B. Happy people are able to socialise more easily. C. Sometimes parents and guardians overlook team sports. D. Team sports help develop critical thinking skills. E. In fact, most children gain leadership due to their abilities in a team. F. Similar to other sports, team sports teach the players how to become more responsible in their lives. G. The only choice is to move forwards, follow the plan, and work hard to recover. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)第一节(共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 When Trevor was born, there was something wrong with his eyes. As time goes by, he could see 41 but light. On the other hand, Melanie was born with a kind of disease, which made her 42 the ability to walk. Trevor always loved outdoor sports and continued 43 them even after he became a blind man. As a kid, Melanie often spent her time camping and 44 the outdoors while she was in a carrier on someone's back. Knowing all of these about each other, the pair 45 a brilliant idea — with their strengths 46 , they would climb the mountains together! Before the start of each 47 , Melanie,secure in a carrier, is always lifted by a friend or a fellow hiker onto Trevor's back. Her role is to give 48 to her partner as they move forwards on the road. “I 49 everything I see and tell Trevor 50 how he needs to move,” Melanie said of their hiking method.“ He’ s the legs, and I’ m theeyes! Together, we’ re the 51 team.”“It makes me so happy to help someone experience what I' ve been able to 52 in my whole life. Just getting on the top of a mountain which a car can't get to, you just feel that sense of 53 . The best part is being able to make her smile, which gives me motivation,” Trevor said. To them, the best part about 54 as a pair is that they get to give each other the 55 to accomplish something that others might believe is impossible. 41. A. anything B. nothing C. everything D. something 42. A. lose B. suspect C. cure D. remind 43. A. dropping off B. succeeding in C. engaging in D. turning down 44. A. explaining B. predicting C. imagining D. exploring 45. A. put up with B. came up with C. got out of D. ran out of 46.A.compared B. exhausted C.combined D. separated 47. A. journey B. class C. meeting D. conversation 48. A. speeches B. applause C. food D. directions 49. A. describe B. discover C. correct D. create 50. A. curiously B. roughly C. exactly D. regularly 51. A. construction B. dream C. intention D. research 52. A. go against B. go over C. go off D. go through 53. A. humour B. responsibility C. accomplishment D. relief 54. A. talking B. hiking C. growing D. cheating 55. A. opportunity B. promise C. recommendation D. request 第二节(共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Every sport has its own specific health benefits.Swimming, for example, is an excellent physical activity as nearly all muscles 56. (use)when you swim. As a result, it provides a terrific full-body workout, improving balance, muscle strength and flexibility (灵活性). Sport, as well as being a physical activity,57. (have) a mental aspect, too. It can help define who you are and who you can become.Sport forms character and promotes the development of 58. number of qualities that are essential for a successful life. Included here are three qualities worthy of special 59. (consider). Firstly, sport requires self-discipline, without60. there will always be the temptation to simply give up. Secondly, sport will encourage you to maintain a positive and 61. (relax)attitude. Everyone has 62. (they) ups and downs and, therefore, a big part of life means having to deal with success and failure.63. (take) part in a competitive sport will help you understand that winning a competition does not make you superior to everyone else.64. ( final), sport will help you understand the importance of teamwork. It will show you that you often need to rely 65. others for your success and, similarly, you also have a responsibility to contribute to others’ success. The world of sport is a fairground of exciting opportunities where you can discover your true self. Time, I think, to lace up your sports shoes and go play! 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 假定你是李华，你所在的校乒乓球队正在招收新队员。请你给你的留学生朋友 Eric 写封邮件，邀请他参加。内容包括： 1.邀请原因； 2.球队活动； 3.报名方式及截止日期。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 第二节(满分25分) 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 It was a couple of weeks after the midterm during the second semester of my freshman year when the stress really started to hit me. The difficulty of my classes was not in itself enough to be too much for me, but combined with more responsibilities at work, money worries, and my own desire to be perfect that would accept nothing less than an A in any subject, my nerves were frayed. I had tried calming my mind many times, but with little success. It is not in my nature to sit still for long and I was having a hard time focusing on my breathing with my mind so full of“x+y” and the endless stream of exams. It became an effort just to get out of bed in the morning. That was until one day a friend from my class suggested that I take up running. She had been told the year before that she had a medical condition, and as a result, her doctor advised her to lose some weight. She had first taken up running with that goal in mind. She was surprised after only a couple of months to find that the benefits of the exercise went far beyond losing a few pounds.She insisted that after a run she felt more awake,more energetic and less stressed out in general.“Just try it. Twenty minutes a day and I promise it will change your life.”“Twenty minutes,” Ireplied,“I'm lucky if I have five minutes to brush my teeth. I just don't have the time.”“Make the time,” she said. So I did. The idea of running did interest me. I liked to be active and I had always wanted to give it a try.Since worries usually woke me before my alarm in the mornings anyway, I figured that instead of lying awake for half an hour worrying about tests, I could at least make good use of the time. The night before my first try, I placed my running shoes by the door,with mixed feelings of self- doubt and hope. 注意： 续写词数应为150左右。 Paragraph 1: However, my first attempt ended before it really began. Paragraph 2: Weeks later, as I kept running, the weight on my shoulders gradually lifted (消散). 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 综合检测卷 第一部分 听力 1-5 CCBAC 6-10 ACCAC 11-15 CCBBB 16-20 AABCB 第二部分 阅读 第一节 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. B 26. B 27. A 28. B29. C 30. A 31. A 32. C 33. B 34. C 35. C 第二节 36. E 37. G 38. B 39. A 40. F 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 41. B 42. C 43. D 44. B 45. A 46. C 47. C 48. D49. C 50. C 51. A 52. A 53. A 54. B 55. D 第二节 56. naturally 57. to have 58. are 59. in 60. a 61. worse62. relaxed 63. looking 64. eyes 65. which 第四部分 写作 第一节 One possible version: Dear Tom, I'm glad to hear that you are interested in traditional Chinese festivals. My favourite festival is the Mid-Autumn Festival. It usually comes in September or October. On that day, our family members usually get together and have a nice meal. After that, Ialways watch the moon and share mooncakes with my family. I love this festival because I like eating mooncakes. They are in the shape of a full moon. They carry people's wishes to the family members they love and miss. In short, the Mid-AutumnFestival is a special day of pleasure and happiness. I hope that my letter will help you know more about traditional Chinese festivals. Best wishes to you. Yours, Li Hua 第二节 One possible version: Paragraph 1: Having given me an address, a hospice, she asked,“Could you drive through downtown?” Asked why we didn't take the shortest way, the small woman told me it was the last chance for her to visit the city. We drove through the neighbourhood where she and her husband had lived. Besides, she asked me to slow down in front of a particular building or corner and would sit staring into the darkness, saying nothing. At last, she said she was tired and wanted to go to the hospice. Paragraph 2: We drove in silence to the address she had given me. It was a low building, where the old woman would live the rest of her life. Two nurses who must have been expecting her came out to the taxi as soon as we pulled up. I took the suitcase to the door and the woman was already seated in a wheelchair. When she asked how much she owed me, without thinking, I said nothing and bent to give her a hug. It was my assistance that helped the weak woman realise her wish. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $Unit 4 单元检测卷 时间:120分钟 满分:150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What is the woman? A. A translator. B. A student. C. A teacher. 2. What animals was the man afraid of? A. Big dogs. B. Spiders. C. Tigers. 3. When does the conversation most probably take place? A. On Sunday. B. On Monday. C. On Saturday. 4. How did the man's wife like the exhibition? A. Difficult. B. Boring. C. Enjoyable. 5. What does the man mean? A. He agrees with the woman. B. It is cold and rainy in autumn. C. Not every autumn is beautiful. 第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6至8题。 6. Where is Alice? A. In England. B. In the US. C. In Italy. 7. What is Alice's favourite subject? A. Maths. B. Music. C. History. 8. Why can't Jane write to Alice now? A. Her computer broke down. B. She cannot spare the time. C. Alice is pretty busy. 听第7段材料，回答第9至11题。 9. When did Jim begin to cough? A. Last night. B. Yesterday morning. C. The day before yesterday. 10. What did Jim have for breakfast this morning? A. A little milk and an egg. B. A little coffee and some bread. C. A little tea and an apple. 11. What does Dr Pugh ask Jim to do? A. Take some medicine. B. Have an injection. C. Rest at home. 听第8段材料，回答第12至 14题。 12. Why was the man late for work? A. He got up late. B. He missed the bus. C. The traffic was heavy. 13. What are the speakers talking about? A. A new way of traveling to work. B. A new system for parking cars. C. A new way of making friends. 14. How can one join carpooling? A. By calling a special number. B. By downloading a special app. C. By visiting a travel agency. 听第9段材料，回答第15 至17题。 15. What does the man think of cooking? A. Difficult. B. Time-consuming. C. Enjoyable. 16. What do Mary's guests usually help her do? A. Cook food. B. Wash dishes. C. Set the table. 17. What food has Mary learnt to cook recently? A. Indian food. B. Italian food. C. Chinese food. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What was Hawking's major at the University ofOxford? A. Maths. B. Physics. C. Chemistry. 19. How many children did Hawking have? A. Three. B. Two. C. One. 20. According to the talk, what does Hawking's story show us? A. Nobody should lose hope. B. Life is not fair. C. Love is precious. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分,满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Kwame Alexander is a best-selling author of more than 30 books. His novel in verse (诗体) TheCrossover won the Newbery Medal in 2015, and was followed by another verse novel in 2016, Booked. In his book The Playbook: 52 Rules to Aim, Shoot,and Score in This Game Called Life, Alexander aims to inspire readers to dream big and reach for their goals.Time For Kids (TFK): What can you tell us about The Playbook? Kwame Alexander (Alexander): I wanted to write a book about how important it is to persevere (坚持不懈) and accept the challenges that come, because they only make you stronger. And I wanted to do it in a really cool and fun way, using sports as a metaphor (隐喻), so students would be interested in reading a book that is telling them how to make their lives better. TFK: Where did you get the idea for the book? Alexander: In The Crossover, the father of the main characters, Josh and Jordan, gives them these rules for life, called Basketball Rules. Well, I was having breakfast with a friend of mine in New York City. He said,“Kwame, I love those Basketball Rules you have in The Crossover. You should think about writing a whole book on those.” That's where it all began. TFK: Is it hard to mix sports and poetry? Alexander: I love sports, and I' ve been writing poetry sinceI was a kid. So those two things are as natural as breathing, laughing and walking to me. TFK: You' ve said teachers need to make learning poetry fun. Did you have a teacher like this as a kid? Alexander: My mother. She read poetry to my sisters and me when I was a kid, and she would make the words jump off the page! TFK: What advice would you give to young authors? Alexander: Read everything you can get your hands on.The best way to become a good author is to read what other people have written. 21. What can we learn about The Playbook? A. It is a historical novel. B. It won the Newbery Medal. C. It is actually about rules for life. D. It is based on Alexander's true life. 22. Who inspired Alexander to write The Playbook? A. His mother who read poetry to him. B. The teacher who taught him poetry. C. His friend who read The Crossover. D. The two characters in The Crossover. 23. When Alexander was a kid, how did he feel about poetry? A. It was rather boring. B. It was quite difficult. C. It was pretty mysterious. D. It was very interesting. B Of all the famous English authors, probably the best- known is William Shakespeare, who was born in 1564. His father was an important man in town,so Shakespeare had a good upbringing (培养). He got married to Anne Hathaway when he was 18 and the couple had three children. Shakespeare wrote many plays and sonnets (十四行诗). His career jump- started (启动) inLondon, and by 1592 his reputation was established there. He became rich enough to buy a fancy house in Stratford- upon- Avon. He wrote tragedies, likeRomeo and Juliet, comedies, romantic stories and stories about historical figures such as Julius Caesar. Shakespeare was 52 years old at the time of his death. But his works, which looked at common human themes, such as power, ambition and love,are still popular today. These themes are as much a part of human nature today as they were all those years ago and are the themes we see in modern soap operas and films. Even though his theatre, the GlobeTheatre, burnt down in 1613, it was rebuilt inLondon in 1997 and you can still see his plays performed there today. Shakespeare's influence on the English language can still be felt today. We talk about“fair play”, meaning“fair treatment of people without cheating or being dishonest”, but this phrase was first used by Shakespeare. He coined (创造) the phrase“you can have too much of a good thing”.And it was Shakespeare who came up with the expression to disappear“into thin air” which we still use today when we lose something. Shakespeare's works have been translated into many languages in the world. And perhaps we' ll still be fascinated by his works 400 years from now as we' ve been for the last 400 years. 24. When did William Shakespeare die according to the passage? A. In 1592. B. In 1613. C. In 1616. D. In 1618. 25. What is William Shakespeare most famous for according to the passage? A. His plays and poems. B. His happy marriage. C. His good education in childhood. D. His theatre in London. 26. What does Julius Caesar belong to? A. A sonnet. B. A historical play. C. A comedy. D. A romantic play. 27. What was Shakespeare's influence on language? A. He translated his works into every major language in the world. B. He“invented” some interesting phrases inEnglish. C. He wrote many articles on how to understandEnglish phrases. D. His common human themes are adopted in soap operas and films. C The sun rises above the Arctic Ocean. Across the frozen sea, a white bear moves slowly. The bear stops and sways (摇晃) its head from side to side. There is nothing to see but endless ice and red sky. Then its powerful nose senses what its eyes cannot do: a white whale is nearby. The bear follows the smell and spots a large hole in the ice where a small white whale is swimming. He silently walks towards the hole, then stops, standing still. The whale does not see the bear, whose white fur makes it appear invisible against the ice. Finally, the whale swims close to where the bear is waiting. With terrifying speed, the bear comes to life and moves towards the whale. In a moment it is over, and the bear eats its first meal in nearly a week. Polar bears rule the frozen sea, but their ancestors weren't always born for ice and snow. The first Arctic bears were brown bears, a species that includes grizzly bears. They came to the icy north over a hundred thousand years ago. No one knows for sure why these bears travelled to such a cold place. Scientists think they might have wandered north looking for food. Maybe they became trapped by glaciers (冰川) and couldn't leave. Whatever the reason, these bears nevershould have survived.But they did. They got used to their new environment. Their bodies changed. Their behaviour changed, too. Eventually, these bears developed into an entirely new species: the polar bear. You can see some of the characteristics that polar bears developed to survive. Sadly, these characteristics may now threaten polar bears' survival. As sea ice melts due to global warming, polar bears are frequently forced to come ashore. They are poor hunters on land, which means they often go a long time between meals. The polar bear is now classified as a threatened species. Although the future of the polar bear is unknown, the tale of two bears continues. As temperatures rise, grizzly bears have been spotted moving north into polar bears’ territory (领地).These long-lost cousins, once forced apart by nature, are coming back together again. 28. What can be inferred about the white bear mentioned in the first four paragraphs? A. It is noisy. B. It is smelly. C. It is starving. D. It has good eyesight. 29. What do we know about polar bears' ancestors? A. They were a darker-coloured species. B. They were born to live in ice and snow. C. They had no trouble getting used to the icy north. D. They came to the Arctic Ocean about 1,000years ago. 30. Why are polar bears struggling to survive? A. They are losing their hunting ground. B. They are threatened by other animals. C. They are spending little time on land. D. They have difficulty reaching the shore. 31. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage? A. The climate change B. The polar bear's favourite meal C. The past and future of the polar bear D. The mysteries of the Arctic Ocean D If you' re like most kids, you' ve probably made more than a few paper planes in your day. But how many kids can say their paper planes have been made life-size and then flown? At least one: 12-year-old Arturo Valdenegro of Tucson, Arizona, was the winner of a competition launched by the PimaAir & Space Museum for kids. “The purpose of the competition is to inspire and draw kids' interest in science and flight,” said the director of the museum. About 150 kids entered the competition. The young designers learnt about how planes fly and then began to design their own planes. Arturo designed and built his plane. When he finished, he took his plane to the flight area and let it fly, outdistancing the other competitors in all age groups. At last, Arturo's plane flew the farthest ——about 22.9 metres! As the winner, Arturo got to meet with a team of engineers, who took his design and made a bigger one. The new paper plane might have been the largest one ever built! Arturo named his large paper plane Arturo's Desert Eagle. Later a helicopter tried to lift the paper plane over the desert, but it was unsuccessful. Engineers worked for several hours to repair it for a second try.This time, the helicopter managed to raise it to about 823 metres and then set the plane free. Arturo watched as his plane flew through the sky at a speed of up to 158 kilometres per hour for10 seconds before falling to pieces.“I felt happy but sad,” Arturo said.“It flew really well, but I was sad to see it destroyed.” But that wasn't the end of Arturo's DesertEagle. The Pima Air & Space Museum collected the pieces of the broken plane and put them on show to inspire other young designers to reach for the sky. 32. According to the passage, what is true about the competition? A. It was started by Arturo. B. It could only be entered by kids. C. It was to choose the largest plane. D. It was held by a team of designers. 33. What does the underlined word“outdistancing”in Paragraph 4 mean? A. Looking for. B. Believing in. C. Throwing away. D. Leaving behind. 34. What can we know about Arturo's Desert Eagle? A. It was made into a helicopter. B. It was produced in many places. C. It was sold to a team of engineers. D. It was put on show in the museum. 35. What is the purpose of the passage? A. To help kids develop an interest in science. B. To teach kids how to build life-size planes. C. To introduce a boy and his large paper plane. D. To call on more kids to visit the Pima Air &Space Museum. 第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Socialising your dog Keep it fun and enjoyable. Socialisation shouldn't feel like work because it's really just a natural process. Dogs must go through it to enjoy their time with other dogs and humans. 36 They’ ll help reduce any anxiety produced by an unfamiliar experience. Bringing a few of your dog's favourite toys along can also help keep your puppy entertained and relaxed while visiting a new place. Your dog should lead the way, not you. 37 When introducing your dog to another one, let both dogs smell each other (that's their way of saying hello) while holding onto their lead (牵狗的绳子). If one becomes fearful or aggressive,gently pull it away. 38 Start socialising your puppy early. Dogs have a sensitive period between the ages of 7 and 12 weeks when their surroundings make a huge impression on them. 39 Use this early courage to expose (使接触) them to a variety of people, places, animals and sounds so they form positive associations with people and those things. 40 Between weeks 8 and 11, your puppy may display signs of fear when faced with unfamiliar situations. If you start noticing sudden, negative reactions from your puppy (e. g. hugging your legs),do your best to protect it from frightening or painful experiences. A. Fears can occur at other times. B. Be careful of a sudden fear period. C. Keep social activities pleasant by bringing along a few dog treats. D. Like children, puppies at this age are eager and unafraid to meet new things. E. Pains at this stage can be more lasting than fears that occur at other times in their lives. F. A common mistake pet parents make is forcing their dogs into uncomfortable situations. G. The same should be done when you' re introducing them to humans or other types of pets. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Last year, I had a car accident. I was 41 .Despite having scratches(划伤) on my left arm and neck, I felt 42 right after the accident. Later that night, though, there was something wrong with my brain and my husband 43 me to hospital immediately. My doctor said I had concussion (脑震荡). The first week I felt like my inner 44 was off. I walked slowly, moving from side to side. I had difficulty in 45 because it was hard to remember words and I couldn't speak clearly. When all of these symptoms (症状) disappeared,people thought I had recovered, especially when my 46 injuries weren't apparent (显而易见的),but I hadn't. I was anxious and 47 . I gained about 11 kilograms because of overeating under stress. I felt like a victim. I couldn't bear it any more and I 48 to cure myself. I wrote down my feelings. I started to take exercise and lose 49 . It's almost been a year since the 50 . My neck still tenses when I'm nervous, but there are fewer headaches. I still have panic attacks, but less 51 . Although I am recovering slowly, the hopeless look in my eyes is 52 . Although my brain was hit, I was given another 53 . I 54 almost daily how I' ll live my second life. I' ll live with less speed and fewer things on the to-do lists. I' ll become my children's strongest backer and tell them,“I'm 55 here no matter what happens.” 41. A. terrified B. sad C. tired D. surprised 42. A. hurt B. fine C. selfless D. active 43. A. forced B. left C. showed D. sent 44. A. sense B. balance C. quality D. quantity 45.A.communicating B. behaving C. reading D. driving 46. A. physical B. emotional C. informal D. personal 47. A. cruel B. generous C. disappointed D. stressful 48. A. agreed B. continued C. decided D. managed 49. A. force B. weight C. sympathy D. confidence 50. A. illness B. cure C. attack D. accident 51. A. frequently B. desperately C. quickly D. crazily 52. A. special B. useless C. gone D. funny 53. A. chance B. vote C. choice D. challenge 54. A. accept B. consider C. remind D. observe 55. A. also B. already C. again D. always 第二节(共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Juan Heriberto Trevino was at a summer camp in the Sierra Madre Oriental mountain range in northeastern Mexico last month when he went off56. (get) some firewood. While gathering the wood, Trevino slipped down into a deep valley,hit a tree 57. fell down further into a dry river bed. Trevino was lost, but not alone. Max had followed Trevino on his firewood run.The dog stayed 58. him until they 59. __________(rescue) more than 40 hours later. “It is easy to get lost in the part of the mountain 60. Trevino and Max were,”said the deputy director of the local police. “The mountain is very cold at night as it is very high. The child was 61. (luck) to have the dog,” he said. Max also led Trevino to a pool with water they could drink. They walked until they became62. (extreme) tired. Nearly two days later, they managed to find a cabin. The people living there helped 63. (they) until rescue workers could arrive. Other than 64. (be) very tired,Trevino was stable (稳定的) physically. He is now back with his family. Although he hoped to adoptMax, the heroic dog already had a(n) 65. (own). 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 假定你是李华，你得到两张这周六晚上在城市剧院(City Theatre)演出的京剧门票。你来自英国的好友 David对京剧很感兴趣，请你给他写一封信，邀请他一起观看。要点如下： 1.邀请 David观看京剧; 2.说明邀请的原因； 3.约定见面时间和地点。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 第二节(满分25分) 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 In a house far from the city lived John and his mother. John's only hobby was wandering in the nearby picturesque forest. In its centre was a shiny clear lake with schools of fish dancing in it. Lovely animals such as deer or rabbits were playing around and cute birds were singing in trees. Fascinated by the beauty and liveliness of nature, he desired to become a great artist and present all the breathtaking scenes to the world. John studied in the local primary school. Life was not easy for John and his mum after his father died. Knowing what hard work his mother did to make ends meet, John really didn't want his mother to worry. His mother knew the significance of education in life but she was against his dream of becoming an artist.“The profession of an artist can't aid a person in meeting his daily expenses,” she would say. But as each day passed, John became more passionate about his dream. Due to the living circumstances, even buying some new colours would be a luxury. John only used the worn drawing paper and limited colours for his daily practice. Though lacking fine painting materials, he never gave up drawing. He spent a significant amount of time staying in the forest,secretly perfecting his craft. With continuous hard work and a distinct gift for art, he drew beautifully. One day John read about a competition being held in the town, whose deadline was only two daysaway. He got the perfect opportunity to fulfil his desire, but he was in a dilemma (困境) because for the competition he needed special paints and some brushes. He didn't have the courage to ask his mother for money as he knew her prejudice against art.That evening his mum returned from work and handed him a few notes, saying,“This is for your lunch at school next month.” The money was enough for his desired materials! John's face lit up. 注意： 续写词数应为150左右。 Paragraph 1: Early the next morning, John secretly left home with the money. Paragraph 2: A week later, a phone call came to John's home. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 2 单元检测卷 第一部分 听力 1-5 CACBB 6-10 ABACB 11-15 ACACA 16-20 CCBAB 第二部分 阅读 第一节 21. A 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. C29. B 30. C 31. A 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. B 第二节 36. F 37. D 38. E 39. G 40. B 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 41. B 42. D 43. A 44. C 45. B 46. D 47. A 48. C49. B 50. D 51. A 52. C 53. B 54. A 55. D 第二节 56. responsibility 57. after 58. falls 59. stored 60. which61. burning 62. historical 63. were forbidden 64. how65. to become 第四部分 写作 第一节 One possible version: Dear Editor, I'm a senior high school student in Grade One. Several days ago our class had a heated debate on whether we should celebrateChristmas. The majority of the students are in favour of celebratingChristmas, an important festival in Western countries. For one thing, it's an occasion for people to get to know Western culture; for another, it's also a great chance for people to get together to strengthen their friendship and understanding.Twenty per cent of them have a negative attitude, considering it blind faith in foreign things and bad for traditional Chinese culture. Ten per cent of them are not against it but insist on celebrating our own traditional festivals. In my view, living in a global village, we Chinese are supposed to carry on our traditions and take in different cultures as well.Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节 One possible version: Paragraph 1: Li Na quickly realised the key was to get everyone involved in the preparation. So she announced to the whole class that volunteers were needed. To her delight, all the students raised their hands eagerly, their faces shining with enthusiasm. Greatly relieved, Li Na divided the students into two groups. One was led by her to make lanterns and riddles, and the other was led by Emma to prepare the ingredients and tools for making yuanxiao. Everyone set to work immediately, and by Friday afternoon, everything was ready. Paragraph 2: The party took place as scheduled in the classroom. Varied red lanterns were used to decorate the room, creating a festive atmosphere. Guided by Li Na, the students made yuanxiao together. Soon, steaming bowls of yuanxiao were served, and everyone loved their handmade treats. The highlight was the riddle-guessing activity, which filled the classroom with laughter and cheers. Bathed in warm lantern light, the students shared not just food and fun, but a deep sense of connection that made the night truly unforgettable. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 3 单元检测卷 第一部分 听力 1-5 CABAC 6-10 CCCBA 11-15 ACBBA 16-20 BBBCA 第二部分 阅读 第一节 21. B 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. D 26. D 27. A 28. B29. C 30. D 31. D 32. D 33. D 34. C 35. C 第二节 36. C 37. E 38. F 39. A 40. B 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 41. B 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. B 46. C 47. A 48. D49. A 50. C 51. B 52. D 53. C 54. B 55. A 第二节 56. are used 57. has 58. a 59. consideration 60. which61. relaxed 62. their 63. Taking 64. Finally 65. on 第四部分 写作 第一节 One possible version: Dear Eric, Learning by chance that you are fond of table tennis, I am writing to invite you to join our school table tennis team aimed at developing our interests and improving our skills. As we all know, table tennis practice can prevent us from becoming short-sighted and keep us physically healthy. Considering the enormous benefits which we can gain steadily,we put all our energies into the training course. As for the activities, we will get high-level training by a professional coach every Friday around 3 to 5 pm. Meanwhile, we will be divided into several groups to have games every two weeks. If you are interested in what I have stated above, sign up on our school website before 1 September. I'm looking forward to your reply, even your appearance in our training centre soon. Yours, Li Hua 第二节 One possible version: Paragraph 1: However, my first attempt ended before it really began. Iwas too eager to see immediate results. I couldn't get my breathing right—— each breath shallow and rushed. How could Ikeep this up when I was already stressed out? That morning, Igave up. But later that day, my friend called, sensing my failure.“Take it slowly,” she said. Encouraged, I adjusted my pace: ten minutes first, then fifteen, then twenty. Little by little, I realized this wasn't just exercise—— it was a way to make peace with both my body and my mind. Paragraph 2: Weeks later, as I kept running, the weight on my shoulders gradually lifted. What had once felt like a never-ending burden began to go away. Each morning I tied my shoes and ran along the familiar tree-lined path. My breathing, once unsteady,found a steady rhythm. The restlessness that once troubled me faded into a quiet calm. I slept better, focused longer in class,and even smiled more often. Running didn't just keep me fit——it became my escape, and the key that unlocked a great change in my life. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 3 单元检测卷 第一部分 听力 1-5 CABAC 6-10 CCCBA 11-15 ACBBA 16-20 BBBCA 第二部分 阅读 第一节 21. B 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. D 26. D 27. A 28. B29. C 30. D 31. D 32. D 33. D 34. C 35. C 第二节 36. C 37. E 38. F 39. A 40. B 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 41. B 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. B 46. C 47. A 48. D49. A 50. C 51. B 52. D 53. C 54. B 55. A 第二节 56. are used 57. has 58. a 59. consideration 60. which61. relaxed 62. their 63. Taking 64. Finally 65. on 第四部分 写作 第一节 One possible version: Dear Eric, Learning by chance that you are fond of table tennis, I am writing to invite you to join our school table tennis team aimed at developing our interests and improving our skills. As we all know, table tennis practice can prevent us from becoming short-sighted and keep us physically healthy. Considering the enormous benefits which we can gain steadily,we put all our energies into the training course. As for the activities, we will get high-level training by a professional coach every Friday around 3 to 5 pm. Meanwhile, we will be divided into several groups to have games every two weeks. If you are interested in what I have stated above, sign up on our school website before 1 September. I'm looking forward to your reply, even your appearance in our training centre soon. Yours, Li Hua 第二节 One possible version: Paragraph 1: However, my first attempt ended before it really began. Iwas too eager to see immediate results. I couldn't get my breathing right—— each breath shallow and rushed. How could Ikeep this up when I was already stressed out? That morning, Igave up. But later that day, my friend called, sensing my failure.“Take it slowly,” she said. Encouraged, I adjusted my pace: ten minutes first, then fifteen, then twenty. Little by little, I realized this wasn't just exercise—— it was a way to make peace with both my body and my mind. Paragraph 2: Weeks later, as I kept running, the weight on my shoulders gradually lifted. What had once felt like a never-ending burden began to go away. Each morning I tied my shoes and ran along the familiar tree-lined path. My breathing, once unsteady,found a steady rhythm. The restlessness that once troubled me faded into a quiet calm. I slept better, focused longer in class,and even smiled more often. Running didn't just keep me fit——it became my escape, and the key that unlocked a great change in my life. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 6 单元检测卷 第一部分 听力 1-5 AACBB 6-10 ACBCA 11-15 ABCAB 16-20 CBCCB 第二部分 阅读 第一节 21. D 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. B29. C 30. D 31. D 32. D 33. D 34. B 35. B 第二节 36. C 37. D 38. E 39. B 40. F 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 41. D 42. C 43. B 44. C 45. A 46. B 47. D 48. C49. A 50. D 51. C 52. B 53. A 54. D 55. A 第二节 56. importantly 57. to have 58. solutions 59. on 60. be encouraged 61. biggest 62. taken 63. a 64. where 65. themselves 第四部分 写作 第一节 One possible version: How to live a low-carbon life As we all know, having a low-carbon life will be very important to us. It not only can help us save a lot of energy, but also is good for our environment. There are many ways for us to lead a low-carbon life. First of all, we can turn off the computers and other electrical equipment in time when leaving our room. It is also important for us to turn off the tap after using it. What's more, we should stop white and air pollution. When we go shopping, we'd better use cloth or paper bags instead of plastic bags. When we go to school or hang out with friends, we can choose to walk or use public transport. In my opinion, having a low-carbon life is very necessary for us students, and it's our duty to do something for the Earth.If everyone can do a little, the environment we live in will be more beautiful. 第二节 One possible version: Paragraph 1: Just then, one of the boys looked back and saw the large animal he knew too well. His heart beat faster but his body froze. He screamed with fright.“Here comes the shark. Run!”The other boy spotted the shark this time. Panicked and helpless, they struggled to swim towards the ship as fast as they could. But they were still hundreds of metres away from the ship. The shark was approaching nearer with its white, sharp and pointed teeth clearly seen. All the people on the deck screamed wildly again. Paragraph 2: Their screams brought the captain back to his senses.Rushing back, he started the engine again. The ship was like an arrow, heading straight towards the shark. As if frightened by the noisy ship, the shark hesitated for a second, turned around sharply and soon disappeared into the blue sea. Witnessing the whole process, all people on the deck burst into cheers for the captain's quick action. The captain finally let out a long sigh of relief, holding his son tightly in his arms. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 1 单元检测卷 第一部分 听力 1-5BBACA 6-10 CBCBC 11-15 BAABA 16-20 CBCAA 第二部分 阅读 第一节 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. D 25. D 26. A 27. B 28. C29. B 30. A 31. D 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. B 第二节 36. G 37. D 38. B 39. C 40. A 第三部分 语言运用 第一节 41. A 42. C 43. B 44. D 45. A 46. C 47. C 48. A49. C 50. B 51. A 52. C 53. D 54. B 55. D 第二节 56. served 57. when 58. has made 59. in 60. Featuring61. although/ though/ while 62. variety 63. feet 64. easily65. a 第四部分 写作 第一节 One possible version: Dear teachers and students,As we all know, health is closely connected with what we eat.Therefore, it's important for us to have a balanced diet. However, some students have formed a variety of unhealthy eating habits, such as having no breakfast, eating too much junk food and so on, which will surely do harm to their health. To keep fit, we should have a balanced diet. We should not only have different kinds of food, like fish, meat, vegetables and fruit, but also have food regularly and properly. Personally,I think it is important to keep a balanced diet, which is beneficial to our health. 第二节 One possible version: Paragraph 1: In an instant, I decided to ask the server to bring some chopsticks to me. When they arrived, I took them carefully in my hand. I looked up at my boss and we smiled at each other. As Igrasped the chopsticks and lifted a little rice and meat, trying to get them into my mouth, my fingers slipped and the food fell back onto the plate. However, I didn't give up and eventually managed to eat my entire meal by using chopsticks. It felt like a great achievement to me. Paragraph 2: In the end, I wasn't embarrassed at all. I was glad that my new boss was such a thoughtful person that he could take everything into consideration. And I was really happy that Idecided to ask for chopsticks. After that, we often went out forlunch in this restaurant. Despite experiencing a number of setbacks, I persevered in my attempts to use chopsticks. Now, Ihave totally mastered the skill of using chopsticks. And as an old saying goes, practice makes perfect. It really isn't that difficult once you get used to it. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ Unit 1 单元检测卷 时间：120分钟 满分：150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What do we learn about the man? A. He likes driving. B. He used to have a car. C. He enjoys travelling by car. 2. How does the man usually go to work? A. By car. B. By bus. C. On foot. 3. What colour does the woman prefer? A. Light blue. B. Yellow. C. Pink. 4. What does Tony mean? A. He didn't know about the concert. B. He was too busy to go to the concert. C. He didn't have enough money for the concert ticket. 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. The power failure. B. The energy saving. C. The air-conditioning. 第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is Henry going to do? A. See off Mary. B. Look for his bag. C. Go on a trip. 7. Where are the speakers? A. At the bus stop. B. At the airport. C. At the train station. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What did Samuel invite Sonia to do? A. Attend a party. B. Go shopping. C. Have dinner. 9. What does Sonia still need? A. A hat. B. Some flowers. C. Some sweets. 听第8段材料，回答第10 至 12题。 10. How does the girl feel about tomorrow's test? A. Worried. B. Confused. C. Confident. 11. What time does the film begin? A. At 4:00. B. At 4:15. C. At 4:50. 12. Where does the boy want to go after the film? A. To the bookshop. B. To the school. C. To the ice cream shop. 听第9段材料，回答第13 至 16题。 13. Why was Joan absent from school today? A. She was ill. B. She visited a friend. C. She had to look after her sister. 14. What is the maths homework? A. The exercises from 2a to 2f on Page 13. B. The exercises from 2c to 2f on Page 30. C. The exercises from 2a to 2c on Page 30 15. What day is it today? A. Wednesday. B. Thursday. C. Friday. 16. Who asked the students to observe a plant? A. The history teacher. B. The French teacher. C. The science teacher. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. Which word can best describe the New York subway? A. Comfortable. B. Old. C. Slow. 18. Why did Rosie Ruiz get on the subway? A. She was tired of running. B. She wanted to go home. C. She wanted to win a race. 19. What do we know about the subway in the 1960s? A. It became dangerous. B. It ran much faster than cars. C. It couldn't work for a long time. 20. What do people like most about the subway according to the speaker? A. The feeling of traveling fast underground. B. The adventure of exploring the secrets. C. The excitement from watching the lights. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Healthy Planet, Healthy People: We have talked a lot about the healthy planet here to Planetpals, but we don't want to lose sight of the importance of a healthy body as well. Make sure the food you eat and the food you buy are clean and nutritious, too! That makes you healthier and happier. Food that is safe from harmful bacteria,viruses, parasites(寄生虫), and chemical fertiliser is vital for health. Safety means that the food brings little risk of food-borne illness. Farmers, restaurants,and shops have standards to keep things safe.However, we also need to keep and prepare food safely at home, and be alert when we are out.A few health precautions (预防措施) about your food: At the store · Look at the dates on all packaging. · Check nutrition facts labels on the packaging——buy healthy food! · Separate raw, cooked, and ready-to-eat foods while shopping. At home · Wash hands and clean surfaces often. · Wash meat, fruit and vegetables thoroughly. · Cook food to a safe temperature. · Check and follow the cooking instructions. · Serve safely. Keep hot food hot and cold food cold. · Read labels carefully before storing! · When in doubt, throw it out. Be a Planetpal—— Eat healthy food. Be Healthy! 21. What is essential to keep a healthy body? A. Food free of pests. B. Nutritious and safe food. C. Health precautions in our life. D. Low risk of food-borne illness. 22. What should you do before keeping food? A. Pay attention to labels. B. Wash the surface thoroughly. C. Heat food to a certain temperature. D. Check nutrition facts on the packaging. 23. What's the purpose of this passage? A. To introduce Planetpals. B. To expand knowledge about food. C. To offer tips on how to treat food properly. D. To call on people to keep food safe at home. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 B When my daughter Sara was in the fifth grade, she came to me with a problem.“Mum, Marcy hates me!” she cried.“Because Kathy is my friend, too. Marcy wants me to be her friend and nobody else's.You talk to Marcy. You tell her that I want to be her friend, but I can have other friends, too!” Oh! I looked at Sara for a few moments,wondering how I got into this mess, when suddenly an idea came to me. Picking up two baskets from the living room, Iexplained,“When everyone is born, they have a little basket. This little one here is yours. The big one is mine. As you grow, so does the basket. You can see your little basket is inside mine because when you were born, there were too many things you couldn't do by yourself. I did everything you couldn't do on your own.” She nodded. “Well, as you grew older and began to do some things on your own, I began placing a few more things in your basket. When you learnt to tie your shoelaces, that went in your basket.” She said softly,“I can tie my own shoelaces.” “Right. As you grow older, there will be more and more things you must do on your own.” As I spoke, I gradually took her basket out of mine and handed it to her.“You will finally carry your own basket with things only you can do.” She looked up at me and said,“I understand. There are some things that I have to do by myself because they are in my basket.” 24. What was Sara's problem? A. She didn't have a basket. B. Her mother was too hard on her. C. She didn't want her own basket. D. She couldn't deal with her friendship. 25. How did the author feel at first when she heardSara's problem? A. Angry. B. Confident. C. Proud. D. Helpless. 26. What can we infer about Sara? A. She would talk to Marcy herself. B. She wouldn't make friends with Kathy. C. She was too young to deal with anything. D. She managed to persuade her mother to help her. 27. What do the baskets mentioned in the passage refer to? A. Friendship that needs repairing. B. Growing abilities as people grow up. C. Gifts that people have for doing something. D. Something that people use to keep vegetables. C Every year around the world, humans waste over a billion tons of food. This happens even though many people go hungry. So some people have made it their life's work claiming food before it goes to waste and then giving it to people who are hungry. One of those people is Brett Meyers. In 2011, Meyers started Nourish Now, a food bank in the state of Maryland. This non-profit organization collects food and then gives it to the poor and organizations that support them. Nourish Now is a food bank that recovers food from restaurants, catering companies, grocery stores, hotels, farms etc. Every day, staff and volunteers package the donations and distribute them to recipients. A woman named Rhoda is one of the recipients.She describes the quality of the food delivered to her family by Nourish Now.“It consists of fresh food,fruit and vegetables. You will get bread. Sometimes you get dairy products such as yoghurt or milk. And you will also get some meat items. And if you get lucky, you might get cooked food, or prepared salads and stuff like that.” Besides families, the organization also donates snacks to several nearby schools and social organizations. Nourish Now has grown considerably since it opened. Brenda is one of them. Part of her job as a volunteer is to make sure that none of the food goes to waste. “In the morning, I make sure that all the things that came late yesterday, get put away so that we use that last, and we used the things that came the day before first, so that we' re always giving fresh food and we' re not throwing out anything.” 28. What do we know about Nourish Now? A. It donates money to the poor. B. It benefits from collecting food. C. It gets food from many places. D. It distributes food only to the poor. 29. What does the underlined word“them” inParagraph 2 refer to? A. Restaurants. B. The poor. C. Food banks. D. Schools. 30. What does the author want to show with the example Rhoda in Paragraph 4? A. The recovered food is fresh and rich. B. Rhoda isn't satisfied with the food supplied. C. Eating better can keep people healthier. D. Rhoda can get food donations every day. 31. What is the best title for the passage? A. People should take care of the weak B. The poor are suffering from starvation C. Nourish Now calls on people to save food D. Nourish Now uses leftover food to feed the hungry D Sports can help you keep fit and get in touch with nature. However, whether you are in the mountains, in the waves, or on the grassland, you should be aware that the sport of your choice might have a great influence on the environment. Some sports are resource-hungry. Golf, as you may know, eats up not only large areas of countryside, but also tons of water. Besides, all sorts of chemicals and huge amounts of energy are used to keep its courses (高尔夫球场) in good condition. This causes major environmental effects.For example, in the dry regions of some countries,golf is often held responsible for a serious water shortage.There are many environmentally friendly sports.Power walking is one of them that you could take up today. You don't need any special equipment except a good pair of shoes; and you don't have to worry about resources and your wallet. Simple and free,power walking can also keep you fit. If you walk regularly, it will be good for your heart and bones.Experts say that 20 minutes of power walking daily can make you feel less anxious, sleep well and have better weight control. Whatever sport you take up, you can make it greener by using environmentally friendly equipment and buying products made from recycled materials.But the final goal should be“green gyms”. They are better replacements for traditional health clubs and modern sports centres. Members of green gyms play sports outdoors, in the countryside or other open spaces. There is no special requirement for you to start your membership. And best of all, it's free. 32. Which of the following is the author most probably in favour of? A. Cycling around a lake. B. Motor racing in the desert. C. Playing basketball in a gym. D. Swimming in a sports centre. 33. What can we learn about golf? A. It is popular in the dry regions. B. It causes a water shortage around the world. C. It pollutes the Earth with chemicals and wastes. D. It needs water and power to keep its courses green. 34. Why does the author use power walking as an example? A. Because it is an outdoor sport. B. Because it improves our health. C. Because it uses fewer resources. D. Because it is recommended by experts. 35. In which part of the magazine can this passage be found? A. Education. B. Environment. C. Art. D. History. 第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 The Qingming Festival is a Chinese holiday that has been celebrated in China for centuries. Together with the Spring Festival, the Dragon Boat Festival and the Mid-Autumn Festival, the Qingming Festival is one of the most important traditional festivals inChina. 36 Tomb sweeping aims to commemorate family ancestors while going on a spring outing allows people the chance to enjoy the spring blossoms. Traditional customs Tomb sweeping. 37 On this day, family members gather in front of their ancestral tombs.They sweep the tombs, remove weeds, and add fresh soil to the tombs. They may stick willow branches, flowers, or plastic plants on the tombs.They pray for their ancestors’ blessing. However, the customs have been greatly simplified today,especially in cities. Spring outing. The time around the QingmingFestival is very suitable for a spring outing, as plants are thriving and flowers are blooming. People can have a great time outdoors with their friends and family. 38 Traditional food Qingtuan is a green rice ball tiny enough to fit into your hand. 39 It is a mixture of sticky rice powder and green vegetable juice, stuffed with sweetened bean paste. Qingtuan tastes sweet with the fresh fragrance of aicao, a kind of green plant. In celebration of the Qingming Festival, people fromShaanxi Province make steamed buns, known asHuamo. 40 Some are for peaceful family life while others represent the wish for health. A. Each different look comes with a good blessing. B. Going for a picnic and flying kites are popular activities. C. It is popular in the southern regions of theYangtze River. D. This is one of many ways to express people's love for ancestors. E. Family members gather together to celebrate and taste the food. F. Many traditional customs are practised to show respect for our ancestors. G. The two main activities during the festival include tomb sweeping and going on a spring outing. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 People in the US have been encouraged for decades to eat various kinds of food, as the variety of food helps to 41 that they keep a diet with enough nutrition. But this week a group of nutrition experts said that long-standing 42 might be out-of-date. The advice on 43 different kinds of food has been included in the government's Dietary Guidelines for Americans for quite some time.Previous studies claimed that eating various kinds of food could help 44 deficiencies (缺乏) of nutrition. But things may be different considering today's environment where food is plentiful. That same advice could lead to a(n) 45 consequence,argued a doctor. Experts 46 the latest evidence of the recommendation, and 47 a scientific report.The report stated that in some studies, people who eat a 48 range of food usually eat many nutritious food such as fish, vegetables and fruit. 49 , they also eat some 50 food, like sugared snacks and other processed food. Greater dietary variety is also associated with a(n) 51 calorie intake and weight gain. Some studies show that a wide variety of food choices in any given meal could delay fullness and 52 the amount of food people eat. Some recent dietary guidelines recommend that people eat“a variety of food”, and 53 “ a variety of vegetables”. But the doctor said people should worry 54 about variety and more about diet quality, such as filling half your plate with only one or two vegetables you like. Actually, what 55 is the amount of fruit, vegetables, nuts and other nutritious food you eat, not the variety. 41. A. ensure B. say C. show D. suggest 42. A. decision B. research C. recommendation D. study 43. A. cooking B. consuming C. finding D. making 44. A. cure B. identify C. protect D. prevent 45. A. opposite B. positive C. same D. convincing 46. A. carried B. did C. examined D. left 47. A. held B. gave out C. released D. came out 48. A. wide B. narrow C. traditional D. selective 49. A. Therefore B. Finally C. However D. Luckily 50. A. healthy B. unhealthy C. nutritious D. high-fat 51. A. higher B. smaller C. lower D. bigger 52. A. reduce B. take C. increase D. bring 53. A. in general B. in other words C. in short D. in particular 54. A. more B. less C. better D. worse 55. A. cares B. differs C. indicates D. matters 第二节(共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Most Americans love Chinese food. However,Chinese food 56. ( serve) in mostAmerican restaurants is very different from the authentic (正宗的) cuisine enjoyed by people inChina. The history of westernised Chinese food started in the 19th century, 57. many Chinese immigrants had trouble landing a job in America. To make a living, some of them opened restaurants.Over the years, Chinese cuisine 58. (make) its way into the mainstream. One of the main differences between authentic and westernised Chinese food lies 59. the ingredients that are used. 60. (feature)vegetables that are common in Western cuisine,westernised Chinese food prefers broccoli (西蓝花), carrots, onions, tomatoes and dairy products. In addition, 61. you can find someWestern cuisine that uses strange meat, mostWesterners are pretty conservative about the meat they eat. Authentic Chinese food, in contrast, uses a wider 62. _______(vary) of protein sources,including tofu, chicken 63. (foot), duck blood and many more that Westerners generally wouldn't choose to eat. The cuisine also has a stronger taste. Indeed, there are numerous differences between authentic and westernised Chinese cuisine,but Western palates (味觉) adapt to new flavours 64. (easy). Therefore, it may only be 65. matter of time before authenticChinese food becomes popular in America! 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 假定你是李华，学校的问卷调查发现，许多同学有不良的饮食习惯，如不吃早餐，爱吃垃圾食品等。请你针对这一现象，写一篇关于养成良好饮食习惯的演讲稿，要点如下： 1.良好饮食习惯的重要性； 2.注意饮食均衡； 3.保持规律的饮食。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 第二节(满分25分) 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 I had applied for a job with a Chinese-Canadian company in Vancouver. As you know, Chinese people are famous for their food. They cook delicious food and find simple pleasure in eating. So, I was not surprised when my new boss invited me out to lunch to celebrate my new job. He said we were going to eat in a Chinese restaurant inChinatown. I was nervous. I knew we would be using chopsticks, and while I had tried many times to master the skill, Ihad completely failed in every attempt. How would Ibe able to make a good impression? Would I make a complete fool of myself? That evening, I called a friend and asked her to explain exactly how to use chopsticks. She patiently explained the proper way of holding them between the thumb (拇指), first and middle fingers.“It's not that hard,” she said.“That's easy for you to say,” I replied.“You' ve been eating with chopsticks all your life. It's natural for you!” I didn't get much sleep that evening. I kept tossing and turning in bed all night, worrying about lunch the next day. The next day, I could hardly control my anxiety. It was difficult to get any work done in the morning. At noon, I left with my boss and two co-workers and headed to the restaurant. We were seated at an excellent table. My boss wrote out the food order, speaking to the server inChinese. My heart was pounding, but then I noticed a strange thing. Instead of the customary chopsticks,each of us had knives, forks, and spoons. I was confused at first, but then, it hit me. My boss knew that I would have trouble with the chopsticks. He wanted to save me from embarrassment, so he had called ahead and arranged for us to be served with knives and forks. Icouldn't believe how kind and helpful he was. 注意： 续写词数应为150左右。 Paragraph 1: In an instant, I decided to ask the server to bring some chopsticks to me. Paragraph 2: In the end, I wasn't embarrassed at all. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $Unit 6 单元检测卷 时间:120分钟 满分:150分 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does John Smith do? A. A postman. B. A secretary. C. A waiter. 2. Where will the man probably sit? A. In the front row. B. In the back row. C. In the middle row. 3. What is Richard famous for? A. Editing. B. Reporting. C. Writing. 4. What does the woman mean? A. She needs help for her luggage. B. She will carry the suitcase herself. C. She is going to buy a light suitcase. 5. What do we know about the woman? A. She should buy the ticket now. B. She has already missed the train. C. She can catch the train in time. 第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is the weather like in winter in the woman's place? A. Cold and wet. B. Cold and dry. C. Warm and pleasant. 7. Why is the man lucky in the woman's opinion? A. He can experience different kinds of weather. B. He can have winter sports in his home town. C. He can enjoy warm winters in his home town. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a swimming pool. B. At Moray's house. C. In the street. 9. What will Tina do this Friday evening? A. Take a business trip. B. Go to a coffee bar. C. Have a barbecue. 10. How did Tina find Charlie's visit? A. Annoying. B. Exciting. C. Surprising. 听第8段材料，回答第11至 13题。 11. Why is the man going to America? A. To attend a conference. B. To go sightseeing. C. To visit friends. 12. When does the man want to leave for America? A. In early January. B. In mid-January. C. In early February. 13. What is probably the woman's job? A. A scientist. B. A reporter. C. An embassy official. 听第9段材料，回答第14至 16题。 14. What does the man invite the woman to do onTuesday night? A. See a show. B. Eat in a restaurant. C. Watch a basketball game. 15. What is the woman going to do on Wednesday evening? A. Go shopping. B. Do some cleaning. C. Finish her term paper. 16. Whose birthday is on Friday? A. The woman's brother's. B. The man's mother's. C. The woman's father's. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What can we learn about the CDs? A. They' re cheap. B. They' re popular. C. They' re expensive. 18. When did the speaker receive the CDs? A. On 14 March. B. On 15 March. C. On 21 March. 19. Why couldn't the speaker get through to the helpline? A. He got the wrong number. B. It was too late. C. The line was busy. 20. What does the speaker complain about? A. The quality of the CDs. B. The service of the company. C. The price of the CDs. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Dive with big sharks Our shark dive adventures make use of hookah systems and shark cages. A hookah system is a system that provides air from the surface for divers down below. Cage divers breathe by using a regulator (调节器) connected to an air hose (软管). Is shark diving dangerous? Yes. You could get sunburnt. You could hityour head on the top bunk (卧铺) getting out of bed. You could fall overboard. Studies have shown that as for a shark attack, you are far more likely to be attacked by a dog or a deer. Pricing & Details One- day Cage Diver Adventure $875 Our expert shark diver team will accompany you to the best viewing areas within the Marine Sanctuary(禁猎区). There, we' ll drop our cage and prepare to provide you with a view you' ll never forget. No dive experience is necessary. Our cages sit just below the surface. You' ll be able to breathe comfortably from your snorkel (呼吸管) or air hose while you move about the cage, taking photos and having fun. Top Shark Adventure $375 If you want to see great white sharks but prefer them a little further away, we offer the perfect opportunity to watch them from our observation deck.You can scan the horizon for fins and watch for sharks attacking their prey (猎物). Important note There's No Shark Guarantee. Although we go to the best places at the best time of year, we cannot guarantee you' ll see sharks.We' ve been very successful in past shark seasons and expect another incredible year. However, if we see no sharks, there is no refund (退款). 21. Which of the following is TRUE about the two adventures? A. Top Shark Adventure makes use of hookah systems. B. Cage Diver Adventure offers you a view of the bottom of the sea. C. Cage Diver Adventure is less interesting than the other. D. Top Shark Adventure is suitable for those who are worried about danger. 22. What might happen according to the advertisement? A. You fail to see any shark during the trip. B. You are out of breath deep down in the sea. C. You are hurt by a shark while diving there. D. You suffer from lack of skill in shark diving. 23. What can we infer about shark diving from the advertisement? A. It's difficult but exciting. B. It's challenging and tiring. C. It's amazing and enjoyable. D. It's expensive but popular. B On a sunny spring day on the California coast,a crowd of people take photos of sea otters (海獭)floating on the waves. Lately, sea otter sightings like this one have become more common in California.The state's sea otter population is higher than it has been in decades. Scientists say the increase is something to celebrate. Hundreds of thousands of sea otters once lived in the northern Pacific Ocean. But in the 17th century, people began hunting them for their thick fur to earn money. Hunting sea otters was banned in the early 20th century, but by then fewer than2,000 were left. Scientists also tried moving some otters to places where they had completely disappeared. Over the years, sea otter populations have grown. Today there are more otters, mainly near Alaska. Sea otters aren't just cute. Sea otters also play a major role in their ecosystems.“There aren't a lot of them,” said a scientist.“But they have a very big impact.” The scientist explained that otters love to eat sea urchins (海胆). That's important because too many sea urchins who eat kelp (大型褐藻) can cause big problems in the sea. When sea otters aren't around, sea urchins often eat up all the kelp in an area. That leavesanimals like seals, fish, and crabs without a source of food or shelter. Kelp forests are also important in another way. They help absorb carbon dioxide.When people burn fuels to power cars and factories,large amounts of this gas are sent out into the air. It even gets into sea water. There, it can cause problems for marine animals. For example, it can make it harder for some sea creatures to form shells.By keeping the populations of sea urchins under control, sea otters help kelp forests grow —— and other sea animals survive. 24. What caused the sharp drop in sea otter population during the past several centuries? A. Water pollution. B. Overhunting. C. Too many enemies. D. A lack of food. 25. Why is the sea otters' growing population worth celebrating? A. They are cute and smart. B. They are nature's helpers. C. They are of great research value. D. They are the symbol of California. 26. What does Paragraph 5 mainly explain? A. The food source for sea otters. B. The danger of carbon dioxide. C. The role of sea urchins. D. The value of kelp forests. 27. What's the author's purpose in writing this passage? A. To call on people to protect sea otters. B. To tell the present situation of sea otters. C. To explain the increase of the sea otter population. D. To show people's love for sea otters. C Microplastics (MPs) are tiny bits or threads of plastic, which are often too small to be seen. The current study shows that MPs are constantly coming down in great numbers, even in remote, protected lands. The scientists didn't set out to study MPs. DrJanice Brahney created the experiment to test her equipment, which was meant to track the way helpful chemicals travel to farms through the air. The experiment used buckets (桶) that opened and closed automatically depending on the weather. This allowed the researchers to separate dust that fell during rainstorms from dust that was carried in dry air. These“wet” and“dry” buckets were set up at11 different protected, remote areas in the westernUS and checked regularly for over a year. But when Dr Brahney and her team began to study the dust they had collected, they got a surprise——MPs.By figuring out how much plastic was falling per square metre, the scientists were able to get a good idea of how much plastic was falling in all of the protected areas in the western US every year. The answer was shocking—— about 907,000 kilograms,which is enough plastic to make over 123 million plastic bottles. MPs have been found in tap water, bottled water, and in sea animals that people eat. Now there is growing proof that we are also breathing MPs all the time. Scientists still don't know how eating or breathing MPs will affect people, though many of the chemicals from plastic are known to cause health problems. There are concerns that MPs can get stuck in the lungs, where they may lead to long-term problems. Dr Brahney says that for these reasons, it's important to reduce the amount of plastic we produce and use. She points out that much of the dust the scientists collected was too small to test. Also, she says that scientists only studied MPs that fell in protected areas in the western US——a small part ofthe US land area.28. How did Dr Brahney and her team find microplastics? A. By comparison. B. By chance. C. By choice. D. By design. 29. What waits for scientists to discover about MPs? A. How to get MPs’ helpful chemicals. B. How to separate wet and dry MPs. C. How taking in MPs will affect people. D. How MPs travel a long distance. 30. What does Dr Brahney imply about MPs in the last paragraph? A. Most of them stay in the dust. B. They fall mainly in the western US. C. They’ ll lead to the end of plastic use. D. Their actual amount is higher than that tested. 31. What is the best title for the passage? A. Scientists find MPs in the lungs B. People used to ignore the problem of the MPs C. MPs are travelling all over the world D. MPs rain down in protected lands D Although fires are still a danger in every major city today, they were a much more serious problem in earlier centuries. The Great Fire of London was a serious example of the damage fire can cause.Finally, however, this disaster also positively affected the city. In 1666, the Great Fire of London burnt out of control for several days, destroying most of the central district of the city. The disaster caused a huge amount of damage——a large number of people lost their homes. There are no accurate (精确的)records of how many people died in the fire. Some historians state that the government didn't record the death toll of poor people in those early times. When the fire happened, people in London were already struggling to survive a large plague (鼠疫) outbreak that had begun in 1665. London's housing troubles were a major cause of the problem.At the time, much of central London consisted of closely packed and poorly made wooden buildings.This created an unhealthy environment because germs (细菌) travelled freely from home to home.In addition, the buildings were on narrow, dirty streets where people threw their rubbish. Rats were attracted by the rubbish, and they brought fleas (跳蚤)—— the carriers of the plague. Once people caught the plague from flea bites, the disease spread rapidly throughout the city, especially in the cramped central district. It was in these terrible conditions that the Great Fire spread rapidly throughLondon. Despite the damage, the fire had a positive effect because it destroyed the old, poorly made wooden buildings. It also killed most of the rats and fleas, which slowed the spread of the plague. After the fire, the government rebuilt the damaged areas.Whenever possible, they used bricks or stones.Thus, the new houses were much more solid and more difficult for rats to enter. Widened streets and improved rubbish collection also helped to stop the disease from spreading from person to person because there was simply more room to walk. 32. Which of the following is TRUE about fires in the past? A. They mainly happened in large cities. B. They always had some positive effects. C. They caused small amounts of damage. D. They were more dangerous than fires today. 33. What can we learn about the death records of theGreat Fire? A. There were too many deaths. B. The government intended to hide the facts. C. The records were destroyed in another fire. D. The death toll of poor people was unrecorded. 34. What does the underlined word“cramped” inParagraph 3 mean?A. Ancient.B. Crowded. C. Damaged. D. Popular. 35. Why did the government rebuild the city with bricks and stones after the Great Fire? A. To reduce building costs. B. To make houses stronger. C. To keep fleas out of the city. D. To stop the plague spreading. 第二节(共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 For most Americans, plastic bags are a necessary part of any shopping trip. 36 But plastic bags that end up in oceans and on beaches are harmful to fish, birds and other wildlife. Several cities around America have either banned single-use plastic bags or taxed (对……征税) them to limit their use. Those who support the tax on plastic bags say it encourages people to bring reusable bags.37 But critics argue that taxing the use of plastic bags puts unfair stress on low-income families. Here two students share their views. Grant Gordinier, 11, from San Diego,California, says,“ 38 Every year, billions of plastic bags are not recycled. Some end up in the ocean and can cause harm to sea life. Placing a small tax on plastic bags might encourage shoppers to bring their own reusable bags to stores. Reusable bags would cut down on waste in the environment.Businesses would also save money by not having to provide plastic bags for customers.” However, Elle Belpério, 12, from LosAngeles, California, has different opinions.“ 39 Some grocery stores have bins for shoppers to recycle used bags. Other stores attach importance to individual efforts. They give a small refund every time a shopper uses his or her own bag. If you reuse and recycle your plastic bag properly, you will not be hurting the environment. I know many families reuse them to pick up after their dogs. 40 Instead, the government should educate people in ways to reuse and recycle them.” A. New York City also bans plastic bags. B. There are many ways to reuse plastic bags. C. In my home, we find many uses for the bags. D. Besides, they think it helps cut down on waste. E. Communities should limit the use of plastic bags. F. I don't think communities should tax plastic bags. G. Many people seldom think of the bags’ influence on the environment. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 The sun was beginning to sink as I set off into the Harenna Forest. I was on my way to see a unique honey 41 . Here, in southeastern Ethiopia,hand-carved beehives (蜂箱) are placed in the 42 . Reaching them to get the honey is difficult ——and often 43 . I 44 beekeeper Ziyad over a wide stretch of grassland before entering a thick jungle. Ziyad began preparations. He 45 handfuls of tree leaves, wrapped them with string, and 46 the bunch to create a torch (火把). Then, with one end of a rope tied to his waist and the other end around the trunk of a tree, Ziyad began 47 . He stopped every few minutes to move the 48 higher up the tree trunk. 49 , Ziyad got close to the hive which was around 20 metres above the ground. Sitting on a branch, he 50 towards it carefully and slowlyand blew the smoke from his torch into a tiny hole in the hive. Suddenly, Ziyad let out a sharp cry.Within seconds, he’ d 51 the trunk and was back on the ground.It was too 52 to collect the honey. A cool summer had delayed 53 . Baby bees were still in the honeycombs (蜂巢). The adult bees were 54 and kept attacking as Ziyad escaped from the tree. He had to wait for the right 55 to go back up. 41. A. production B. adventure C. celebration D. harvest 42. A. courtyards B. fields C. treetops D. caves 43. A. urgent B. dangerous C. expensive D. pointless 44. A. searched B. recognised C. followed D. invited 45. A. gathered B. cleaned C. dropped D. checked 46. A. shook B. lit C. measured D. decorated 47. A. jumping B. talking C. testing D. climbing 48. A. hives B. leaves C. rope D. honey 49. A. Finally B. Surprisingly C. Naturally D. Immediately 50. A. backed B. dived C. jumped D. moved 51. A. cut off B. gone up C. slid down D. held on to 52. A. high B. early C. fast D. close 53. A. hatching B. training C. sowing D. trading 54. A. curious B. hungry C. bored D. angry 55. A. moment B. equipment C. person D. order 第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Our world has been greatly affected by global warming and it is critical that people, young and old, join hands to fight it. Most 56. (important), children today should learn to be eco-friendly at a young age. It is believed that the nation should ask schools57. (have) a class about“green living”.Every school should teach students to know about global warming and what they can do to reduce their carbon footprints. In class, students should be assigned to find several 58. (solve) to energy problems while learning about their effects 59. the Earth. Students also should 60. (encourage) to use what they learnt in class at home. Too many people think that global warming is not a threat, but it is one of our 61. (big)problems. Steps 62. (take) to be“green”in the school are very effective. What would children be learning if the school's lights were always left on and there were no recycling bins? Green living and green schools are part of 63. new wave sweeping the nation. Living in a community 64. protecting the environment is considered important, people should devote 65. _________(they) to dealing with global warming. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 为了向全世界展示绿色中国，学生会倡议每位同学围绕“如何进行低碳生活”用英语写一篇文章，介绍自己如何从身边的小事做起，尝试进行低碳生活。内容包括： 1.离开房间前，及时关掉电脑和其他电器设备； 2.使用后，关掉水龙头； 3.外出时，最好步行或乘坐公共交通工具； 4.用布袋等代替塑料袋。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.开头已给出，不计入总词数； 3.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 How to live a low-carbon life As we all know, having a low-carbon life will be very important to us. 第二节(满分25分) 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 It was a bright summer's day. The weather was pleasant, but the wind from the Sahara made it extremely hot and wet. A ship stopped off the coast of Africa. The seagulls were circling overhead and crying loudly. In the distance, several dolphins were jumping out of the water at times to create a big white wave. Just before sunset, the captain came on deck and called out,“Time for a swim.” Immediately sailors jumped into the water,lowered a canvas mat (帆布垫) and made it into a swimming pool. They had been waiting for this moment the whole day. There were two young boys on the ship. They both jumped in, but swam out into the open sea since it was too crowded inside the“pool”. They played and chased (追逐) each other in the open sea. Their fathers cheered them on, often urging one of the boys to prove his bravery over the other. Suddenly, something grey from a distance was coming closer and closer. Somebody from the deck called out,“Shark! Shark!” The fin was moving faster. Confusion and panic arose, and everyone climbed to safety. Everyone, except the two boys.They hadn't heard the shouts. The shark was moving towards the boys. The captain shouted,“Come back, my boys!There is a shark out there!” One of the boys was his son. For the first time in his life, he didn't know what to do. He could not think clearly. The captain's face became white as a sheet. He could feel his legs were shaking so badly that he nearly fell to the ground. The people on the deck screamed wildly. But the boys could not hear them. They continued to play and to swim, unaware of the danger approaching them fast. Some sailors lowered a boat, jumped into it and attempted to row towards the boys. 注意： 续写词数应为150左右。 Paragraph 1: Just then, one of the boys looked back and saw the large animal he knew too well. Paragraph 2: Their screams brought the captain back to his senses. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $