上海市洋泾中学2026-2027学年高三上学期10月阶段质量检测英语试卷

高三年级10月份阶段质量检测 英语试卷 （考试时间：120分钟 满分：140分） Ⅰ. Listening Comprehension Section A Directions: In Section A, you will hear ten short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard. 1. A. Home. B. The hospital. C. The cafeteria. D. The restaurant. 2. A. Two passengers on the bus. B. Policeman and driver. C. Hotel receptionist and traveler. D. Passenger and taxi driver. 3. A. $10. B. $15. C. $20. D. $25. 4. A. Lock the door carefully. B. Open the door. C. Fix the door himself. D. Call a repairman. 5. A. The man is late for the trip because he is busy. B. The woman is glad to meet Mr. Brown in person. C. The man is meeting the woman instead of Mr. Brown. D. The man feels sorry that Mr. Brown is unable to come. 6. A. Alice didn’t seem to be nervous during her speech. B. Alice needs more training in making public speeches. C. The man could hardly understand Alice’s presentation. D. The man didn’t think highly of Alice’s presentation. 7. A. The new dress is for warm weather. B. The new dress makes her look cool. C. She doesn’t like cold weather at all. D. She bought the dress when it was warm. 8. A. She thinks it is a serious problem. B. She hates working in McDonald’s. C. She opposes building a McDonald’s. D. She longs to enjoy McDonald’s food. 9. A. Frank. B. Rude. C. Determined. D. Sensitive. 10. A. They will hold a furniture display. B. They will hold a lecture tonight. C. They are short of chairs for the audience. D. They haven’t prepared the lecture well. Questions 11 through 13 are based on the following passage. 11. A. Engine trouble. B. Poor weather. C. Tall waterfalls. D. A tight budget. 12. A. Amazing as well as tough. B. Funny while incredible. C. Disappointing but rewarding. D. Fascinating and well-paid. 13. A. A mechanic. B. A photographer. C. A travel writer. D. A weather man. Questions 14 through 16 are based on the following report. 14. A. Hangzhou held four United Nations World Data Forums. B. The Agenda for Sustainable Development will be conducted in 2030. C. A new philosophy includes innovation, coordination and openness. D. Sustainable development leads to prosperity of data sharing. 15. A. Many countries have been invited. B. It has been held in China before. C. Its slogan is innovation, coordinated and green. D. The forum is organized by the government of Zhejiang Province. 16. A. To build a win-win international cooperation. B. To improve digital infrastructure. C. To strengthen data and statistical capacity building. D. To draft the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. Questions 17 through 20 are based on the following passage. 17. A. To demand the date of the goods’ delivery. B. To get goods insurance. C. To make sure whether the goods will be delivered on time. D. To inquire about the position of the man. 18. A. The man forgot the deadline. B. The man has gone through some technical problems. C. The man had not done his best. D. There were some serious problems with the goods. 19. A. The woman will cancel half the order. B. The woman will end the contract with the man. C. The man will face some technical problems. D. The man will have to pay a great penalty. 20. A. Worried. B. Grateful. C. Guilty. D. Relived. Ⅱ. Grammar and Vocabulary Section A Directions: After reading the passage below, fill in the blanks to make the passage coherent and grammatically correct. For the blanks with a given word, fill in each blank with the proper form of the given word; for the other blanks, use one word that best fits each blank. 9:00 A.M., Saturday, November 14 The moment Fatima Bennett had dreamed of was finally here. Therefore, she couldn’t be (21) ________ (happy). The 4C Challenge (also known as the Clark County Coding Competition) was the event of the year (22) ________ target participants were STEM-minded eighth graders like Fatima and her two best friends, Julia Sheen and Felipe Alvarez. Their classmates were busy posting pictures on social media of their glorious summer vacations while the three best friends, who called (23) ________ Team Java Time, had spent countless hours storyboarding, coding, and adjusting their program. Their app, Romeo and Juliet Remixed, turned the famous play into a multiplayer adventure that retold the story, (24) ________ (integrate) Shakespeare’s language with the rhymes of songs. The completed app was due by September 1, and the teens had worked hard to get it done. (25)________ at any point they lost momentum (动力), they were pushed by weekly texts from Neil Green, who had taken over the competition coordination (协调) this year. On the day when their app (26) ________ (submit) to the competition’s submission website, Fatima said, “A prize would be great, but we all know the very best reward.” The teens shouted, “K-J-H-S!” Fatima, Julia, and Felipe were excited to show off their digital skills in front of the other teams of eighth graders, but they were most interested in the reward (27) ________ (give) to the top three teams: guaranteed admission to Katherine Johnson High School, the county’s STEM magnet school. Felipe, Fatima, and Julia, friends since kindergarten, (28) ________ barely contain their excitement. Their dream of going to KJHS together was (29) ________ their reach! That was (30) ________ Fatima didn’t mind getting out of bed at 8 A.M. on this cold November, Saturday to spend the day at Clarksville University, the site of the annual competition. Section B Directions: Complete the following passage by using the words in the box. Each word can only be used once. Note that there is one word more than you need. A. resting B. commonly C. intervals D. scheduled E. consequently F. desired G. needing H. coping I. affects J. subsequent K. alternatives Why People Snooze Their Alarm Getting up early in the morning is no easy task for plenty of people. That’s why alarms are important — they ensure that you wake up at your 31 time in the morning. However, nobody can deny how tempting it is to try and squeeze in a few more minutes of sleep. About 57 percent of people snooze in the morning, which is defined as 32 multiple alarms to wake up. If you set a single alarm and snooze it repeatedly or set several alarms at regular 33 until the time you absolutely need to get up, you are a snoozer. Waking up on the first alarm is 34 recommended, but does it really make a difference if you are woken up by one alarm compared to several ones? In a recent Sleep study, researchers examine how snoozing 35 an individual’s health and sleep. According to the study, people snooze for a variety of reasons. Most of the participants said that they just can’t get up with only the first alarm. Some say they snooze because they feel comfortable in bed, while others do it because they feel less tired when they do get up. “I think snoozing might be a sign that people are waking up because of important 36 activities rather than because they have adequately rested,” says Stephen M. Mattingly, a postdoctoral researcher at the University of Notre Dame who was involved in the study. The participants wore an activity tracker for the study, which allowed the authors to observe that snoozing is generally associated with lighter sleep in the last hour before waking up and a higher 37 heart rate across the night. The study found that snoozing isn’t necessarily associated with decreased sleep duration, increased sleepiness or more naps. This suggests that there might not be much of a difference between waking up on the first alarm or the 38 ones when it comes to shorter sleep duration or daytime sleepiness. What might matter more is whether you are sleep-deprived in the first place or not. “I don’t like to think of snoozing in terms of ‘bad’ or ‘good.’” says Mattingly. “I think the best answer is ‘there may be situations where it’s better than 39 .’ I see snoozing as a possible 40 mechanism for not sleeping enough. Thus, ‘good’ is sleeping as much as your body needs.” Ⅲ. Reading Comprehension Section A Directions: For each blank in the following passage there are four words or phrases marked A. B.C and D. Fill in each blank with the word or phrase that best fits the context. The number of the best How big should a business team be? It is an enormously important issue for companies. Teams that are too small may 41 the skills required to get the job done; teams that are too big may be impossible to co-ordinate. Similar trade-offs may apply when it comes to firms as a whole. Start-ups are often short of staff. The founders must play, a host of different 42 , from obtaining finance to product development and marketing, for which they may not be equally suited. But the 43 is that they can have highly collaborative working environments. People who have worked for start-ups say the culture changes when the company reaches a certain 44 . Patty McCord, formerly of Netflix, referred to the “stand-on-a-chair number” — the biggest group that can easily hear the boss 45 them. Robin Dunbar, an anthropologist (人类学家) at Oxford University, has done a lot of work on primate groups. His argument is that the size of the group is linked to the size of the brain. With their large brains, humans can cope with larger bands. A larger social group has many advantages, 46 greater protection and specialisation. Whereas 150 is sometimes referred to as the “Dunbar number”, the academic himself in fact refers to a range of 47 . He observes that humans tend to have five intimate friends, 15 or so good friends, around 50 social friends and 150 odd acquaintances. Running a larger network can be difficult. So much time is needed to maintain relationships that their quality inevitably 48 . The armed forces have spent millennia experimenting with unit size. A Roman centurion (百人队长) oversaw 100. The modern American army company has 180 members. Britain’s equivalent numbers 120. These are rough estimates, rather than rigid figures. But it is striking that many group activities seem to be 49 a Dunbar number. The Special Air Service, Britain’s elite fighting unit, has four-man patrols; when your life depends on it, you need to have absolute 50 in your colleagues. As a result, such groups are limited in size. Sports-team sizes 51 the playing area. There are five players in a basketball side and six in ice hockey; outdoors there are 11 players in football and cricket teams, and 7-15 in the various forms of rugby. Perhaps this is the optimal size for coaching purposes, or perhaps crowds would 52 to distinguish individual players if teams were larger. Small work teams may also tend towards these two size ranges. “If you want a committee to 53 something, limit it to four to five people,” says Mr Dunbar. “But to brainstorm in a meeting, you need 12-15.” Many companies use “agile” teams which draw employees from across the company; they tend to have between five and nine members. The modern company may settle on a 54 with a small group of “core” workers and a larger group of contract workers. The result may be more 55 within the core staff but the non-core staff may be less well treated. The small core teams may work effectively. The big question will be the effect on morale of those outside those teams. 41. A. demand B. lack C. cultivate D. sharpen 42. A. roles B. games C. cards D. missions 43. A. truth B. point C. upside D. goal 44. A. height B. level C. size D. degree 45. A. phone B. contact C. criticize D. address 46. A. calling for B. allowing for C. hoping for D. paying for 47. A. records B. networks C. circles D. figures 48. A. suffers B. thrives C. denied D. functions 49. A. similar with B. close to C. interested in D. equal to 50. A. trust B. will C. right D. advance 51. A. result in B. relate to C. arise from D. contribute to 52. A. rush B. compete C. struggle D. refuse 53. A. discuss B. decide C. judge D. facilitate 54. A. shape B. scale C. level D. construction 55. A. agreement B. innovation C. influence D. cohesion Section B Directions: Read the following three passages. Each passage is followed by several questions or unfinished statements. For each of them there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that fits best according to the information given in the passage you have just read. (A) All I had to do for the two dollars was clean Her house for a few hours after school. It was a beautiful house, too, with a plastic-covered sofa and chairs, wall-to-wall blue-and-white carpeting, a white stove, a washing machine and a dryer — things that were common in Her neighborhood, absent in mine. In the middle of the Second World War, She had butter, sugar and steaks. Part of my pride in working for Her was earning money I could spend freely: on movies, candy, ice cream… But a larger part of my pride was based on the fact that I gave half my wages to my mother, which meant that some of my earnings were used for real things — an insurance-policy payment or what was owed to the milkman or the iceman. The pleasure of being necessary to my parents was great. I had a status that doing housework at home did not provide — and it earned me a slow smile, an approving nod from an adult. Confirmations that I was adultlike, not childlike. Little by little, I got better at cleaning Her house — good enough to be given more to do, much more for a little girl. I was ordered to carry bookcases upstairs and, once, to move a piano from one side of a room to the other. I wanted to refuse, or at least to complain, but I was afraid She would fire me, and I would lose the freedom the dollar gave me, as well as the status I had at home. Then one day, alone in the kitchen with my father, I let drop a few complaints about the job. Although he listened carefully, I saw no sympathy in his eyes. Perhaps he understood that what I wanted was a solution to the job, not an escape from it. In any case, he put down his cup of coffee and said, “Listen. You don’t live there. You live here. You make the job. It doesn’t make you.” I have worked for all sorts of people since then, quick-witted and dull, big-hearted and narrow. I’ve had many kinds of jobs, but since that conversation with my father I have never considered the level of labor to be the measure of myself, and I have never placed the value of a job above the value of home. 56. In paragraph 1, the author mentions what there were in Her house in order to ________. A. illustrate a common lifestyle at that time. B. stress Her life was not similar to hers. C. demonstrate her pride in working for Her. D. reveal the cleaning job was not easy for her. 57. What was the author most proud of with the cleaning job? A. Being able to buy things without asking her parents. B. Helping her mother out by doing housework. C. Making contributions to the family income. D. Getting smiles and approving nods from Her. 58. The author complained to her father because ________. A. she hoped that he could negotiate with Her. B. She didn’t know how to escape from the job. C. She hoped that he could help solve her problem. D. She didn’t know how to keep her status at home. 59. From this childhood experience, the author has learned that ________. A. she should try various jobs to widen her horizons. B. she should never ignore the freedom her earnings give her. C. she should consider who she’ll work for while hunting for a job. D. she should never judge herself by the work she does (B) WHAT’S ON IN WINTER Winter is here but shorter days don’t mean less to do. The Great Outdoors Sundays, June and July ORIENTEERING Where: various bush and farm locations Orienteering is an outdoor activity that combines adventure and sport with navigational skills through the wild bush. Take a hike or mountain-bike ride through a set course in a different bush or farm location on each excursion with guidance from a compass and a map. Each course is about an hour’s drive of the CBD. This is a fun, easy and relatively relaxing way to enhance fitness for the whole family, ages 7-70. To learn more about orienteering or sign up for a course, visit wa.orienteering.asn.au or call 9215 0700. Mountain Designs 4 July ADVENTURE RACE AUSTRALIA Where: bush camp and forest retreat Adventure Race Australia heightens the thrill of adventure racing, combing biking, running, trekking, kayaking, rock climbing and other adventure sports to test physical strength, endurance and willpower. The race caters only to seasoned racers. To get involved, go to adventureaustralia.com.au. Film Frenzy 21 June & 19 July MEMORABLE MOVIES IN MIDLAND Where : Town Hall Take a trip down memory lane at the Memorable Movies gathering, held monthly. This June the memorable movie is Roman Holiday, the 1953 classic starring Gregory Peck and Audrey Hepburn. Then in July there is a school holiday special presentation of The World’s Fastest Indian, a true-life story of motorcycle enthusiast and world-record breaker Burt Munro, starring Anthony Hopkins. Music Magic 29 to 30 July A TRIBUTE TO LOUIS ARMSTRONG Where: Concert Hall Louis Armstrong revolutionized American jazz and dominated the scene for more than 60 years. He defines the jazz style and is a legendary figure in music history. Conductor Benjamin Northey will accompany trumpeter James Morrison to pay tribute to the famous musician by playing some of his most well-known and beloved hits. Go to waso.com.au for more details. 60. The underlined word “course” in The Great Outdoors is closest in meaning to ________. A. lesson B. route C. direction D. treatment 61. Which activity is most physically demanding? A. The Great Outdoors B. Mountain Designs C. Film Frenzy D. Music Magic 62. Which of the following is true according to the passage? A. The location of Orienteering is far away from the city center. B. Adventure Race Australia is suitable for racers of all different levels. C. Burt Munro is the leading actor in the movie The World’s Fastest Indian. D. Benjamin Northey will play his most famous songs in the Concert Hall. (C) Most managers can identify the major trends of the day. But in the course of conducting research in a number of industries and working directly with companies, we have discovered that managers often fail to recognize the less obvious but profound ways these trends are influencing consumers’ aspirations, attitudes, and behaviors. This is especially true of trends that managers view as peripheral to their core markets. Experts from Harvard Business School give some advice to managers. One strategy, known as ‘infuse and augment’, is to design a product or service that keeps most of the attributes and functions of existing products in the category but adds others that address the needs and desires unleashed by a major trend. A case in point is the Poppy range of handbags, which the firm Coach created in response to the economic downturn of 2008. The Coach brand had been a symbol of wealth and luxury for nearly 70 years, and the most obvious reaction to the downturn would have been to lower prices. However, that would have risked cheapening the brand’s image. Instead, they initiated a consumer-research project which revealed that customers were eager to lift themselves and the country out of tough times. Using these insights, Coach launched the lower-priced Poppy handbags, which were in bright colors, and looked more youthful and playful than conventional Coach products. Creating the sub-brand allowed Coach to avoid an across-the-board price cut. In contrast to the many companies that responded to the recession by cutting prices, Coach saw the new consumer mindset as an opportunity for innovation and renewal. A more radical strategy is ‘combine and transcend’. This involves combining aspects of the product’s existing value proposition with attributes addressing changes arising from a trend, to create a novel experience — one that may land the company in an entirely new market space. At first glance, spending resources to incorporate elements of a seemingly irrelevant trend into one’s core offerings sounds like it’s hardly worthwhile. But consider Nike’s move to integrate the digital revolution into its reputation for high-performance athletic footwear. In 2006, they teamed up with technology company Apple to launch Nike+, a digital sports kit comprising a sensor that attaches to the running shoe and a wireless receiver that connects to the user’s iPod. By combining Nike’s original value proposition for amateur athletes with one for digital consumers, the Nike+ sports kit and web interface moved the company from a focus on athletic apparel to a new plane of engagement with its customers. Once you have gained perspective on how trend-related changes in consumer opinions and behaviors impact on your category, you can determine which of our innovation strategies to pursue. Trends — technological, economic, environmental, social, or political — that affect how people perceive the world around them and shape what they expect from products and services present firms with unique opportunities for growth. 63. The underlined word “peripheral” in Paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________. A. marginal B. important C. subject D. relevant 64. According to the second paragraph, Coach was anxious to ________. A. follow what some of its competitors were doing B. maintain its prices throughout its range C. safeguard its reputation as a manufacturer of luxury goods D. modify the entire look of its brand to suit the economic climate 65. What does the writer suggest about Nike’s strategy? A. It was an extremely risky strategy at the time B. it was a strategy that only a major company could afford to follow. C. It was the type of strategy that would not have been possible in the past. D. It was the kind of strategy that might appear to have few obvious benefits. 66. The best title for the passage is probably ________. A. Knowing more about your customers B. Making the most of trends C. Eyes on strategies D. Following the advice Section C Directions: Read the passage carefully. Fill in each blank with a proper sentence given in the box. Each sentence can be used only once. Note that there are two more sentences than you need. A. “Don’t get dirty!” was once a constant family warning, as parents despairingly watched their children spoil their best clothes. B. What is gained in laundry bills may be lost in the child’s wellbeing. C. Besides the restorative effects, outdoor play can offer valuable learning experience. D. However, these behaviors allow children to gradually understand their bodily signals. E. A child may find it easier to build up strength and energy in a large open space, resulting in a reduced risk of obesity. F Those who grow up on farms are less likely to develop auto-immune disorders thanks, apparently, to their childhood exposure to a more diverse range of organisms. How Mud Boosts Your Immune System Children love getting dirty. They are drawn to puddles like muddy magnets, with no regard for footwear or the color of their clothing. But getting muddy could have a powerful effect on their wellbeing, too. 67 Whether they were running through farmers’ fields, climbing trees or catching tadpoles, it was inevitable that children’s whites would turn brown before the day was over. Today, many parents may secretly wish their children had the chance to pick up a bit of dirt. With the rise of urbanism, and the temptation of video games and social media, contact with nature is much rarer than in the past. For many, there is simply no opportunity to get muddy. 68 According to recent research, the dirt outside is teaming with friendly microorganisms. They can train the immune system and build resilience to a range of illnesses, including allergies, asthma and even depression and anxiety. Many of the psychological benefits of outdoor play are already well established. Our brains evolved in natural landscapes, and our perceptual systems are particularly well suited to wild outdoor spaces. This means natural scenes provide the perfect level of stimulation, which is thought to help recharge the brain when it is tired and easily distractible. 69 For example, the act of mudding and kneading materials like mud or sand can help children develop the way their senses and movement interact, known as sensorimotor development. When it comes to the child’s physical health, the most obvious advantage of outdoor play may be the exercise. 70 The latest findings suggest there could be a host of other advantages to playing in natural environments and secrets may be alive and wriggling (蜿蜒行进) around in the mud itself. Ⅳ. Summary Writing Directions: Read the following passage. Summarize the main idea and the main point (s) of the 9 passage in no more than 60 words. Use your own words as far as possible. 71. The production of coffee beans is a huge, profitable business, but, unfortunately, full-sun production is taking over the industry and bringing about a lot of damage. The change in how coffee is grown from shade-grown production to full-sun production endangers the very existence of certain animals and birds, and even disturbs the world’s ecological balance. On a local level, the damage of the forest required by full-sun fields affects the area’s birds and animals. The shade of the forest trees provides a home for birds and other species that depend on the trees’ flowers and fruits. Full-sun coffee growers destroy this forest home. As a result, many species are quickly dying out. On a more global level, the destruction of the rainforest for full-sun coffee fields also threatens human life. Medical research often makes use of the forest’s plant and animal life, and the destruction of such species could prevent researchers from finding cures for certain diseases. In addition, new coffee-growing techniques are poisoning the water locally, and eventually the world’s groundwater. Both locally and globally, the continued spread of full-sun coffee plantations could mean the destruction of the rainforest ecology. The loss of shade trees is already causing a slight change in the world’s climate, and studies show that loss of oxygen-giving trees also leads to air pollution and global warming. Moreover, the new growing techniques are contributing to acidic (酸性的) soil conditions. It is obvious that the way much coffee is grown affects many aspects of life, from the local environment to the global ecology. But consumers do have a choice. They can purchase shade-grown coffee whenever possible, although at a higher cost. The future health of the planet and mankind is surely worth more than an inexpensive cup of coffee. Ⅴ. Translation Directions: Translate the following sentences into English, using the words given in the brackets. 72．他不小心被工地上的电缆绊倒了。（trip） 73．我一直相信一个人睡眠充足了才能更好地抵御情绪紊乱。（convince） 74．善于讲故事的人，会灵活地补充细节或删减无关的信息，以保持观众的兴趣。（sustain） 75．我们谈到志愿者时，常有的疑问是到底是什么促使他们乐于为人服务，不求回报。（it） Ⅵ. Guided Writing Directions: Write an English composition in 120-150 words according to the instructions given below in Chinese. 76．学校正筹划一年一度的科技节，为了更出彩，有三种特色主题活动供大家选择：“生活中的科学现象展”“探访上海高科技园区”“知名理工专家进课堂”。 请写一封信给学校，选择你推荐的活动，信的内容必须包括： ①你推荐的活动： ②你推荐此活动的理由。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $