2026-2027学年高一上学期期中自编模拟英语试卷（西藏自治区拉萨市适用）

绝密 ★ 启用前 拉萨市实验中学2026-2027学年第一学期期中考试 高一年级英语试卷 班级：______ 准考证号：______ 姓名：________ 得分：______ 注意事项： 1．本试卷全卷共 12 页，共 67 道题，满分 150 分，考试时间为 120 分钟。 2．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 3．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如果需改动，用橡皮擦擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 4.测试范围： 必修一初高中衔接语法知识动词，名词，副词，代词，五种简单句型 一、听力（30分，共20小题，每题1.5分） 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What did the woman see? A. An airplane. B. A black dog. C. A red house. 2. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a hotel. B. On a plane. C. At a coffee shop. 3. Why should the man hurry? A. The store will close soon. B. He has to get to work on time. C. There are few T‑shirts on sale. 4. What does the woman say about her new house? A. It's next to a bar. B. It's in the city center. C. It's not very comfortable inside. 5. How long did the man stay in Spain? A. Four days. B. Five days. C. Seven days. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。 6. Whom did the woman buy the sweater for? A. A friend. B. A family member. C. Herself. 7. What will the woman do next? B. Show the receipt. B. Talk to the manager. C. Leave the store. 听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。 8. What is the man interested in most? C. Reading books. B. Drawing pictures. C. Playing baseball. 9. How does the woman like reading? A. She has always loved it. B. She never cares about it. C. She only does it for school. 听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。 10. What is most probably the man's favorite color? A. Black. B. Blue. C. Red. 11. How much will the man spend on the T‑shirts? A. $45. B. $90. C. $100. 12. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Shop assistant and customer. B. Husband and wife. C. Close friends. 听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。 13. How many computer labs are there in this school? A. Three. B. Four. C. Seven. 14. Which computer lab is in this building? A. Wimborne. B. Franklin. C. Salisbury. 15. What should the woman do to use a computer in a lab? A. Call the man in advance. B. Come to the lab earlier. C. Make a reservation through a machine. 16. What will the man do? A. Take the woman to his colleague. B. Write down the woman's username. C. Teach the woman to get her password. 听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。 17. What is the speaker mainly talking about? A. The plan for a holiday. B. Some activities at the hotel. C. The services offered in this building. 18. When does free breakfast start? A. At 7:00 a.m. B. At 7:30 a.m. C. At 8:00 a.m. 19. What can customers do on the fourth floor? A. Smoke. B. Do some shopping. C. Watch movies. 20. Where can customers go swimming? A. On the seventh floor. B. On the sixth floor. C. Behind the hotel. 二、阅读（50分，共20小题，每题2.5分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A The Palace Museum is limiting the daily number of visitors to 80,000 and recommending both individual visitors and tourist groups to book tickets in advance online (booking address: https://gugong.ktmtech.cn). Foreign visitors are required to provide passport numbers during the online booking. ADMISSION April 1st—October 31st 60 yuan November 1st—March 31st 140 yuan ●Free admission (入场费) for children under 1.2 meters in height. ●Free admission for disabled visitors. ●20 yuan for elementary, middle school, and undergraduate students with student ID. (not including graduate and adult or continuing education students) ●50% discount for people over 60 years old with valid certificate or proof of age (passport, etc.) ●Women's Day (March 8): Half-price admission for female visitors. ●Children's Day (June 1): Free admission for children 14 years old and younger. 50% discount on admission for one accompanying parent, legal guardian, or adult. For detailed information and instruction, please click here. 21. How many people can visit the Palace Museum daily at most? A. Eight hundred. B. Eighty thousand. C. Eight million. D. Eighty million. 22. Among the four, who can get the lowest admission price? A. A middle-aged woman visiting it on 13th, Mar. B. A middle-aged parent visiting it alone on 1st, June. C. A 65-year-old man visiting it on 7th, May. D. A middle school student visiting it on 6th, Jan. 23. Where do you think the passage most probably comes from? A. A website. B. A magazine. C. A book. D. A newspaper. B When I was 12 years old, I already knew that my teen years were going to be the worst years of my life. I was a total outsider, bullied (欺凌) at school. I felt completely alone in my small town. But by starting to do volunteer work when I was 14, I turned my problem into a passion for helping others. The opportunity to practice kindness made me feel like my life had a greater purpose. The more positive energy I shared, the more kindness and appreciation I received. I realized that my purpose in life would be to reach out to people, specifically teenagers, and help them feel less alone. Books were my true friends back then. I was so thankful that the authors wrote those books. The kindness they offered me with their books saved my life. One of my biggest dreams was to become an author so I could write books that would help other teenagers the way those books helped me. Kindness saved me when I needed help the most. Even small acts of kindness can change someone’s life. You never know what someone else is going through. But by practicing daily kindness, you become an architect of positive change. 24. What was the author’s life like when he was 12? A. Boring. B. Peaceful. C. Unhappy. D. Meaningful. 25. How did the volunteer work benefit the author? A. It helped him find the meaning of life. B. It made him popular in his town. C. It helped him understand others’ lives better. D. It helped to shape his dream career. 26. Why did the author choose writing as his job? A. He was inspired by his teacher. B. He found he had a talent for writing. C. He wanted to share his school experiences. D. He could pass positive energy to readers. 27. What does the author suggest readers do in the last paragraph? A. Say ‘no’ to bullies bravely. B. Make positive changes in their lives. C. Learn to care more about others’ feelings D. Treat others with kindness in daily life. C When my parents moved to a new city, I felt like my world fell apart. Everything that had once felt familiar was gone: my friends, my routines, even the streets I used to walk on. I didn't know anyone, and the thought of starting over terrified me. On the first day at my new school, I sat at the back of the classroom, hoping no one would notice me. The noise of students chatting made me feel even smaller, like a stranger who didn't belong. But then, during English class, something unexpected happened. The teacher asked us to introduce ourselves by sharing a short story. My heart raced and my voice shook as I spoke about how my grandmother taught me to recite (朗诵) English poems under the stars in our backyard. I remembered the smell of jasmine in the summer air and the way my grandmother's voice carried a quiet strength. To my surprise, the class listened in silence, and when I finished, a soft round of applause (掌声) came from several students. For the first time that day, I felt seen. After class, a girl named Lily came up to me.“I love poetry, too,”she said with a warm smile. We talked about our favourite writers and the comfort that words can bring. She invited me to join the school's English club. The following weeks were filled with new experiences: reading aloud with confidence, preparing small plays that made us laugh, even writing our own poems and sharing them. For the first time since moving, I felt that English was not just a subject, but a bridge that connected me to others and gave me courage. By the end of the term, I was no longer the quiet student in the back row. Standing on stage, reciting a poem with my new friends, I realized that starting over didn't mean losing myself—it meant discovering a new side of me, one that was braver, stronger, and ready to belong. 28. Why did the author sit at the back of the classroom on the first day? A. To avoid drawing attention to herself. B. To observe the new teacher's style. C. To make friends more quickly. D. To get a better view of the blackboard. 29. What made the author feel noticed during English class? A. Her grandmother's story. B. Her teacher's praise. C. Her friend's invitation. D. Her classmates' applause. 30. Which word best describes the author by the end of the term? A. Anxious. B. Confident. C. Lonely. D. Generous. 31. What does the author's experience show? A. True friendship always begins with hobbies. B. Success comes only after repeated practice. C. Starting over can lead to new discoveries. D. Confidence is the key to winning competitions. D Nowadays, handwriting seems to become less necessary, for young children learn to tap and touch screens before they have even learned to pick up a pencil or tie their shoelaces. Most of our written communication is done through texting on mobile phones or typing on a keyboard. And voice recognition softwares are becoming more and more advanced—making even keyboards unnecessary! So, are handwriting skills important to your child? Actually, handwriting is an exercise in eye-hand coordination(协调), an important part of visual-motor(视觉运动) skills, which are connected with achievements in study. Scientists found that developing fine visual-motor skills in early childhood can lead to not only writing success, but better performance in reading and maths in elementary school. It was also found that kids who fail to write neatly and efficiently are often accused of being lazy, and this may affect their behaviour and self-worth. Moreover, a study showed that when a group of children were asked to come up with ideas for an article, the ones with better handwriting were more active and had quicker minds. In some ways, handwriting helps their brains' development. The first attempts at writing can be challenging for preschool children—whose fine motor skills are not yet fully developed. But some skills to prepare for handwriting are simple to build at home and in preschool. Parents should provide lots of opportunities for kids to copy and draw shapes and simple pictures in early childhood before letters are introduced. Let your child copy your shapes in the sand, or with chalks on a board before trying to draw the shapes on their own. Encourage your child to spend less time on electronic devices and more time on activities to improve eye-hand coordination. Let's face it—technology is certain to continue developing and more research is needed to find the best ways to teach handwriting to young children. But, there's plenty of evidence that the handwriting practice can provide young children with a good start in developing skills needed for a healthy and successful journey in school. 32. According to Paragraph 1, handwriting is ________. A. easy to learn on a touch screen B. used less frequently now C. more difficult than typewriting D. totally replaced by softwares 33. How does the author explain the benefits of handwriting? A. By presenting some research findings. B. By mentioning examples of the kids around him. C. By giving some news reports on handwriting. D. By providing data about pupils with good grades. 34. What does the author suggest parents do? A. Keep young children away from electronic devices. B. Teach preschool children to write letters with chalks. C. Help children get ready for handwriting before school. D. Encourage children to face writing challenges bravely. 35. What can be the best title for the text? A. Does poor handwriting really mean being lazy? B. Should handwriting be taken seriously in children's growth? C. How can handwriting affect children's self-confidence? D. Should homework be done through handwriting or typewriting? 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项 How to Choose Courses for High School Freshmen Welcome to the exciting world of high school! As a freshman, you may be feeling unsure of how to choose the right courses. Fear not, we will guide you through the process of choosing the perfect courses for your unique academic journey. Start with your strengths The first step in choosing courses is to take a look at your strengths and interests. What courses are you better at?      (36)     For example, if you love science and math, you might want to start with those areas. Consider your career goals Think about what jobs you are interested in in the future.      (37)     For instance, if you want to become a doctor, you might want to take biology and chemistry courses. Talk to the school advisers School advisers are your valuable resource when it comes to choosing courses. They can help you find your interests, strengths, and career goals. They also recommend courses that are suitable for you.     (38)           (39)      When choosing courses, itˈs important to look at your schedule. Will you have enough time to complete your homework and still have time for other activities? Will the courses conflict with each other? For example, if you have heavy work of math and science courses, you might want to avoid adding another challenging course to your plate. Research the subjects Before choosing a course, take some time to research the subject matter. Look for reviews and feedback from present and former students.     (40)      This will help you make a better decision about which courses are right for you. A. Consider your schedule B. Balance your homework C. Science courses are best for choosing a job. D. What courses will help you achieve your goals? E. What subjects do you find yourself naturally attracted to? F. They can help you get a sense of the course content and level. G. In a word, they help you find the perfect choice specially for you. 36. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E F. F G. G 37. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E F. F G. G 38. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E F. F G. G 39. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E F. F G. G 40. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E F. F G. G 三、语言运用（30分，共25小题,每题1/1.5分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳 Steve and Mark were good friends. They decided to spend their vacation in Haiti. Since they couldn't (41) French, they took a French wordbook with them and hoped it would help them in difficult situations. The flight was (42) , and the hotel was very comfortable. Each day after breakfast, Steve and Mark packed the picnic lunch and dinner and went off to visit interesting places. After a few days, the boys became (43) of eating picnic meals and decided to eat a big fish dinner in a good restaurant. Unfortunately, they left their wordbook in the hotel. They (44) the menu carefully. After ten minutes, Steve said to Mark, “I don't understand this menu.” “Neither do I,” said Mark. “I see poison on the menu. Are they (45) here?” “Maybe. They even spelled poison (46) . They spelled it p-o-i-s-s-o-n instead of p-o-i-s-o-n. But it must mean the same thing. Maybe we should go to another restaurant. I don't (47) to eat something that will kill me.” But Mark was (48) , so he said, “There are no other restaurants near here, and I'm tired of walking around the city. Let's order something else instead. It's (49) here, so the food must be good.” The boys looked at the menu again. They finally decided to order steak, (50) they really wanted fish. The boys just pointed to the word steak, and the waiter understood. As they were eating, they (51) some tourists speaking English. “This (52) is delicious. We're lucky we have picked a restaurant that's famous for its fish.”Steve and Mark wondered what they discovered.“Famous for its fish? There is no fish on the (53) !” said Mark. Finally, Steve decided to find out what all this was about. “Excuse me, how did you order fish when it isn't on the menu?” “Sure it's on the menu. It's right here. Poisson.” The boys shouted, “Poisson. That's poison! We were (54) why a restaurant like this should have poison on the menu.” The tourists (55) , and one of them said, “No. Poisson is French for fish.” 41. A. speak B. inspect C. teach D. demand 42. A. terrible B. straight C. quick D. excellent 43. A. tired B. frightened C. grateful D. fond 44. A. studied B. learnt C. remembered D. observed 45. A. familiar B. crazy C. confident D. official 46. A. fluently B. wrongly C. simply D. natively 47. A. want B. recognize C. request D. recover 48. A. scared B. equal C. tired D. endangered 49. A. active B. comfortable C. peaceful D. crowded 50. A. since B. although C. unless D. because 51. A. found B. sensed C. watched D. heard 52. A. steak B. insect C. fruit D. fish 53. A. table B. menu C. show D. track 54. A. determining B. wondering C. expressing D. admitting 55. A. stopped B. shocked C. laughed D. shouted 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Sometimes we have a fight with friends. Many times, you find that you even forget 56. the fight was about. You just seem to be 57. (anger), and then stop 58. (talk) to each other. Time goes by and you realize that you miss 59. friendship, and wish you could talk to your friend again. And 60. (probable) your friend feels the same way as you do. So how can you get out of the fight without 61. (hurt) your feelings? If you talk right after fight, you will say many 62. (word) out of anger. However, do not wait too long. It will become hard 63. (make) up the relationship after too long waiting. So after the fight calms down, make sure you talk to the person before it is too late. Say sorry if you 64. (be) to blame (负有责任) for the fight. Maybe it is your friend's fault and you have done nothing wrong. In that case, wait until he says he is sorry! And if he doesn't do it, he's not worth your time. You can spend the time 65. other friends. 四、写作（40分，共2小题,每题15/25分） 第1节 应用文写作（满分15分） 66. 假定你是李华，你们学校下周将要举行英语演讲比赛，学校安排外教Jay选拔一名主持人，请你给Jay写一封推荐信，推荐你的同班同学王明。 内容包括：(1)写信目的；(2)推荐理由；(3)希望给予考虑。 注意：写作词数应为80字左右。 Dear Jay, _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 第二节 读后续写（满分25分） 67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 I like running and I practice it every day. I wanted to join the school running competition. I hoped to get a good grade with my hard work. Unluckily, during the practice one week before the competition, I fell down on the playground. My leg hurt badly. I could not run fast any more. I failed the final test and lost the chance to join the race. I was very sad and lost my confidence. I did not want to run again. My PE teacher found my change. He talked to me patiently. He told me that failure was common in our life. No one can always be successful. True growth comes from difficulties. His words made me think a lot. After a long night of thinking, I finally made a big decision. The next morning, I walked towards the playground slowly, not knowing what new challenge was waiting for me. 注意：1. 续写词数应为100左右；2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 When I arrived at the playground, I saw my PE teacher waiting for me.He held a pair of new sports shoes in his hand. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025-2026学年第二学期期中考试 第7页（共14页） 2025-2026学年第二学期期中考试 第8页（共14页） 2026-2027学年第一学期期中考试 第5页（共14页） 2026-2027学年第一学期期中考试 第6页（共14页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $null 答案及评分标准 一、听力（30分） 每小题 1.5 分，选出正确答案得 1.5 分，选错或不选得 0 分。 1.A 2.B 3.A 4.A 5.C 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.C 11.B 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.C 16.A 17.C 18.B 19.C 20.A 二、阅读（50分） 每小题 2.5 分，选出正确答案得 2.5 分 21.B 22.D 23.A 24.C 25.A 26.D 27.D 28.A 29.D 30.B 31.C 32.B 33.A 34.C 35.B 36.E 37.D 38.G 39.A 40.F 三、语言运用（30分） 完型填空：每小题 1 分，选出正确答案得 1 分 41.A 42.D 43.A 44.A 45.B 46.B 47.A 48.C 49.D 50.B 51.D 52.D 53.B 54.B 55.C 语法填空：每小题 1.5 分，选出正确答案得 1.5 分 56. what 57.angry 58.talking 59.the / your 60.probably 61.hurting 62.words 63.to make 64.are 65.with 四、写作 第一节 应用文写作（15 分） 评分细则： 0分 0 未书写任何文字；内容完全和题目无关，无法辨认是推荐信。 一档 1～3分 有书信基本格式框架，但没有有效推荐内容；几乎没有写出题干三个要点，只写零星单词，语义无法理解。 二档 4～6分 能写到部分要点，推荐理由表述模糊；3个任务要点有缺失（比如漏写信目的，或者推荐理由只写1点，逻辑单薄）；大量基础语法、单词错误，影响理解。 三档 7分 三个要点全部覆盖，推荐理由合理；但是句式单一，多用简单句，句子逻辑性一般；存在少量单词、语法错误。 四档 7～9分 全部要点齐全，推荐理由通顺合理；包含1处高级句式（定语从句/非谓语/倒装等）；少量语言错误，不影响阅读，词数基本达标。 五档 10～12分 全部要点齐全，推荐理由充实合理；行文逻辑连贯；包含2处高级句式；少量笔误，词汇选用恰当，词数符合要求（70-90词）。 六档 13～15分 所有要点完整，内容紧凑；逻辑流畅自然；高级句式丰富，词汇优美；几乎没有单词、语法错误；词数控制在80词左右，格式规范，几乎无瑕疵。 基础版： Dear Jay, How is everything going? Our school will hold an English speech contest next week. I’m writing to recommend my classmate Wang Ming to be the host.（开头：背景+写信目的） First, he speaks fluent English with perfect pronunciation. Besides, he is confident and responsible. He once hosted our class English show and knows well how to cheer up the audience.（中间推荐理由：能力+品行/经验） I would be grateful if you could consider my recommendation. Looking forward to your reply.（结尾：恳请考虑） Yours sincerely, Li Hua 升级版： Dear Jay, How is everything going? Our school will hold an English speech contest next week. I’m writing to recommend my classmate Wang Ming to be the host. Wang Ming, who speaks fluent English with perfect pronunciation, is confident and responsible. Having hosted our class English show before, he has a good knowledge of how to arouse the audience’s enthusiasm. It goes without saying that he is perfectly qualified for this job. I would be grateful if you could consider my recommendation. Looking forward to your reply. Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节 读后续写（25 分） 故事主线： 我热爱跑步，赛前训练摔伤腿，失去参赛资格，变得自卑不想跑步。体育老师开导我：失败很常见，真正的成长来自困境。思考一夜，我下定决心，第二天慢慢走向操场，迎接新挑战。 必须写全3个核心要点（缺一就降档） 1. 老师的言行：老师拿出新跑鞋，对我说鼓励的话（点明鞋子象征新起点，跑步不只是为比赛拿名次） 2. 我的动作+心理：我接过鞋子，内心被打动；穿上跑鞋，忍着腿部的不适，尝试慢慢慢跑 3. 结尾升华（主旨句，必写）：感悟，呼应老师原话 —— True growth comes from difficulties。失败不可怕，跌倒后重新出发就是成长 读后续写评分细则 1-5分：抄续写原文，1分 有抄有写，内容与续写有一点相关，仅有若干关键词3-4’ 有抄有写，1-2个句子呈现与续写相关内容，5’ 6-10分：有抄有写，与原文相关内容较少，句子不通顺，内容逻辑错误多，故事不完整，6-7’ 有与续写主题相关的主旨升华句，8-10’ 11-15分：续写基本完整，逻辑基本合理，要点齐全，语句简单，错误较多 15-20分：续写比较完整，内容比较合理，逻辑性较强，有1-2个高级句型，包含3种以上描写，书写规范，语言错误较少 21-25分：续写完整，内容丰富合理，逻辑性强，与原文情境融洽度高，每段至少2个高级句型，运用多种描写手法，书写整洁规范。语言错误很少。 参考范文：When I arrived at the playground, I saw my PE teacher waiting for me. He held a pair of new sports shoes in his hand. He smiled and told me the shoes meant a new start. I didn’t have to take part in the race to prove myself. I accepted the shoes and put them on carefully. I tried to run slowly. My leg still hurt a little, but I kept moving forward. At that moment, I understood his words. True growth comes from difficulties. Failure cannot stop me. I will keep running bravely. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 拉萨市实验中学2026-2027学年第一学期期中考试 高一年级英语学科命题要素一览表 题号 题型 分值 知识点 试题来源 题目类型 预估难度 1 听力 1.5 事物识别（名词辨析） 借鉴 选择题 0.75 2 听力 1.5 地点场景判断 借鉴 选择题 0.75 3 听力 1.5 原因逻辑推理 借鉴 选择题 0.80 4 听力 1.5 细节理解（房屋描述） 借鉴 选择题 0.72 5 听力 1.5 数字计算（时间） 借鉴 选择题 0.68 6 听力 1.5 细节理解（购物对象） 借鉴 选择题 0.65 7 听力 1.5 后续动作推理 借鉴 选择题 0.70 8 听力 1.5 兴趣爱好细节 借鉴 选择题 0.63 9 听力 1.5 观点态度判断 借鉴 选择题 0.73 10 听力 1.5 颜色推理判断 借鉴 选择题 0.66 11 听力 1.5 数字计算（价格） 借鉴 选择题 0.69 12 听力 1.5 人物关系判断 借鉴 选择题 0.55 13 听力 1.5 数字细节（数量） 借鉴 选择题 0.64 14 听力 1.5 细节匹配（实验室名称） 借鉴 选择题 0.62 15 听力 1.5 规则细节理解 借鉴 选择题 0.58 16 听力 1.5 后续动作推理 借鉴 选择题 0.54 17 听力 1.5 主旨大意概括 借鉴 选择题 0.52 18 听力 1.5 时间细节提取 借鉴 选择题 0.51 19 听力 1.5 地点功能细节 借鉴 选择题 0.67 20 听力 1.5 地点细节提取 借鉴 选择题 0.60 21 阅读A 2.5 人与社会：细节理解（数字） 改编 选择题 0.85 22 阅读A 2.5 人与社会：推理判断（价格比较） 改编 选择题 0.77 23 阅读A 2.5 人与社会：推理判断（文章出处） 改编 选择题 0.80 24 阅读B 2.5 人与自我：细节理解（人物状态） 改编 选择题 0.75 25 阅读B 2.5 人与自我：推理判断（事件影响） 改编 选择题 0.65 26 阅读B 2.5 人与自我：细节理解（职业动机） 改编 选择题 0.60 27 阅读B 2.5 人与自我：观点态度（作者建议） 改编 选择题 0.55 28 阅读C 2.5 人与自我：细节理解（行为原因） 借鉴 选择题 0.70 29 阅读C 2.5 人与自我：细节理解（情感触发） 借鉴 选择题 0.75 30 阅读C 2.5 人与自我：推理判断（人物特征） 借鉴 选择题 0.70 31 阅读C 2.5 人与自我：主旨大意（成长启示） 借鉴 选择题 0.66 32 阅读D 2.5 人与社会：细节理解（现状描述） 借鉴 选择题 0.58 33 阅读D 2.5 人与社会：写作手法判断 借鉴 选择题 0.55 34 阅读D 2.5 人与社会：细节理解（教育建议） 借鉴 选择题 0.55 35 阅读D 2.5 人与社会：主旨大意（标题选择） 借鉴 选择题 0.50 36 七选五 2.5 人与自我 改编 选择题 0.65 37 七选五 2.5 人与自我 改编 选择题 0.70 38 七选五 2.5 人与自我 改编 选择题 0.60 39 七选五 2.5 人与自我 改编 选择题 0.55 40 七选五 2.5 人与自我 改编 选择题 0.54 41 完形填空 1 动词辨析（语言能力） 改编 选择题 0.76 42 完形填空 1 形容词辨析（出行体验） 改编 选择题 0.72 43 完形填空 1 固定搭配（be tired of） 改编 选择题 0.70 44 完形填空 1 动词辨析（查看菜单） 改编 选择题 0.65 45 完形填空 1 形容词辨析（情绪判断） 改编 选择题 0.70 46 完形填空 1 副词辨析（拼写错误） 改编 选择题 0.70 47 完形填空 1 动词辨析（意愿表达） 改编 选择题 0.62 48 完形填空 1 形容词辨析（状态描述） 改编 选择题 0.62 49 完形填空 1 形容词辨析（场景描述） 改编 选择题 0.66 50 完形填空 1 连词辨析（让步逻辑） 改编 选择题 0.70 51 完形填空 1 动词辨析（感官动作） 改编 选择题 0.64 52 完形填空 1 名词辨析（食物主题） 改编 选择题 0.80 53 完形填空 1 名词辨析（场景事物） 改编 选择题 0.62 54 完形填空 1 动词辨析（心理活动） 改编 选择题 0.55 55 完形填空 1 动词辨析（情绪反应） 改编 选择题 0.61 56 语法填空 1.5 名词性从句（宾语从句引导词） 借鉴 主观题 0.7 57 语法填空 1.5 词性转换（名词→形容词） 借鉴 主观题 0.6 58 语法填空 1.5 非谓语动词（stop doing 结构） 借鉴 主观题 0.45 59 语法填空 1.5 冠词 / 物主代词（特指用法） 借鉴 主观题 0.5 60 语法填空 1.5 词性转换（形容词→副词） 借鉴 主观题 0.45 61 语法填空 1.5 非谓语动词（介词后动名词） 借鉴 主观题 0.50 62 语法填空 1.5 名词复数（可数名词数量变化） 借鉴 主观题 0.60 63 语法填空 1.5 非谓语动词 借鉴 主观题 0.70 64 语法填空 1.5 动词时态与主谓一致（一般现在时） 借鉴 主观题 0.55 65 语法填空 1.5 介词 借鉴 主观题 0.50 66 应用文写作 15 推荐信（应用文写作） 改编 主观题 0.60 67 读后续写 25 记叙文续写（校园成长主题） 借鉴 主观题 0.45 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $