内容正文:
2026-2027学年第一学期错题挑战大赛
八年级英语试题
本试题分选择题部分和非选择题部分,共10页,满分为150分,考试用时120分钟。
答题前,请考生务必将自己的姓名、座号和准考证号填写在答题卡上,并同时将考点、姓名、准考证号和座号填写在试卷规定的位置。
答题时,选择题部分每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题部分,用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答。直接在试题上作答无效。
选择题部分 共100分
I. 听力测试 (30分)
第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听录音,从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子,每个句子听一遍。
1. A. How did you go on vacation? B. How was your vacation? C. How did your vacation go?
2. A. I did nothing special this holiday.
B. I didn’t do anything special this holiday.
C. I did everything I can do this holiday.
3. A. What did you do last weekend?
B. Where did you go last weekend?
C. When did you go to Lijiang?
4. A. It was such a good experience.
B. It was a fantastic place to visit.
C. It was so beautiful that I didn’t want to go.
5. A. Did you go anywhere interesting?
B. Did you do anything interesting on your holiday?
C. Did you eat anything special?
第二节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. Where did the man go for his last vacation?
A. To Australia. B. To China. C. To America.
7. Who did the woman go to Canada with?
A. Her parents. B. Her grandparents. C. Her friends.
8. Why did Jane stay at home last weekend?
A. Because she was lazy.
B. Because it rained outside.
C. Because she had too much homework.
9. Where is the gift shop?
A. Next to the coffee shop. B. Next to the post office. C. Behind the post office.
10. What time did Mary arrive at the train station?
A. At 4:00. B. At 5:00. C. At 5:20.
第三节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. Why is John tired now?
A. Because he went to bed late.
B. Because he played games all night.
C. Because he climbed the mountains yesterday.
12. How was John’s trip?
A. Meaningful. B. Terrible. C. Interesting.
13. When did the girl arrive in Sanya?
A. At 9:00 a.m. B. At 9:20 a.m. C. At 9:30am.
14. What did the girl and her family have for lunch?
A. Noodles. B. Fish. C. Bread.
15. Where did the girl visit some old buildings?
A. In the park. B. Near the beach. C. In the centre of the city.
第四节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案,听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. When did the speaker go to Hangzhou?
A. Last summer. B. Last winter. C. This winter.
17. What does the speaker think of the West Lake?
A. It’s beautiful. B. It’s clean. C. It’s special.
18. What did the speaker and his friend do?
A. They took photos. B. They wrote and painted. C. They went boating.
19. How was the weather?
A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Windy.
20. What did the speaker’s friend like about the West Lake?
A. The bridges. B. The trees. C. The pictures.
Ⅱ. 阅读理解 阅读下列短文,从每题A、B、 (C、D四个选项中,选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。(40分)
A
The Greens are going on holiday. Now they’re choosing a hotel to stay in.
1. Where are the Greens going on holiday?
A. Airport. B. Seattle.
C. Holiday Inn. D. Happy Family Hotel.
2. How many nights will the Greens stay in the hotel?
A. 2. B. 3. C. 4. D. 5.
3. What can’t the Greens do in Holiday Inn?
A. Feed their dogs. B. Use the free WiFi.
C. Have free breakfast. D. Enjoy free parking.
4. How is the Holiday Inn better than Happy Family Hotel?
A. It serves free lunch. B. The guests can check out later.
C. The room is larger. D. It’s closer to the metro station.
5. Where can people find the text?
A. In a book. B. On a website. C. In a magazine. D. On a notice.
B
Many people think a home is just a house with walls and a roof. But for me, home is far more than that. It is full of warm memories and quiet love.
Last year, my parents decided to sell our old house and move into a new flat in the city centre. The old house was small, without modern furniture. Many friends said we would have a much better life after moving. However, I felt upset. All my childhood stories stayed in that little house. I still remembered the apple tree in the yard, the sweet smell of my mum’s cookies, and every evening my dad sat beside me to help with my schoolwork.
During the first month in the new flat, I hardly felt happy. Everything looked new, but it had no warmth. One rainy evening, Mum saw me staring out of the window silently. She said gently, “A house is only a building. It becomes a home because of people inside, not the place itself. We can make new memories here together.”
From that day on, we began small changes. We hung my old photos on the wall. Every weekend, we cook meals and chat after dinner. Sometimes we watch funny movies and laugh loudly. Slowly, this new flat started to feel like home.
Now I truly understand: Home sweet home does not mean a perfect house. It means a place where your family stays with you. No matter where you live, as long as there is love and care, you have your sweet home.
6. Why did the writer feel unhappy about moving house?
A. The new flat was too small. B. He disliked living in the city centre.
C. He didn’t want to leave his old memories. D. His friends disagreed with the move.
7. What can we learn from Mum’s words in Paragraph 3?
A. Old houses always bring sadness. B. Love makes a building become a home.
C. People should buy bigger houses. D. It is easy to forget the past.
8. What did the family do to make the new flat warm?
A. They planted an apple tree in the new flat.
B. They bought lots of expensive furniture.
C. They created new happy moments together.
D. They often visited the old house on weekends.
9. What can we know from the passage?
A. The writer enjoyed the new flat right after moving.
B. The old house had many modern pieces of furniture.
C. The writer’s dad used to help him with studies.
D. They moved to the new flat on a rainy day.
10. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. A good house needs beautiful furniture.
B. Home is full of sweet childhood stories.
C. We should keep our old houses forever.
D. Love from family makes a sweet home.
C
Many kids help their parents to do chores such as washing the dishes, packing up things, cleaning the floor and taking out the rubbish in the house. And some kids get money or other rewards from their parents, such as playing computer games for 20 minutes.
But some people do not think that kids should get rewards for doing chores. One of them is Susie Walton, a parenting educator. She believes that if kids often get rewards, they will think that work isn’t worth (值得) doing unless they can get something. For example, kids won’t sweep the floor if they see it is dirty. But they will clean the floor if their parents reward them for it. Susie said, “A home is a living place for everyone in the family. It’s very important and necessary for kids to see that it’s all the family members’ job to keep their homes clean and comfortable.”
However, other people have different opinions. They believe that money or other rewards can encourage kids to do more and more chores. It also teaches them a real world lesson that we need to work to make money. Now, there are also many apps that encourage kids to do chores. The apps give kids points and gifts that can be used either online or in the real world when they finish some housework. With the Chore Monster app, kids get points after they do chores. Kids can exchange (交换) their points for real rewards, such as time to play video games or a trip to the mall.
What do you think of the two different opinions? Which one will you agree with? Should kids be rewarded for doing chores? Or should kids help out around their homes without getting anything?
11. How does the writer start the passage?
A. By giving some facts. B. By giving some opinions.
C. By using a teacher’s words.. D. By showing his own experiences.
12. What’s the meaning of the underlined word “rewards”?
A. 礼物. B. 奖项. C. 奖励. D. 夸奖
13. Which of the following is Susie Walton’s opinion?
A. Don’t ask kids to do housework.. B. Don’t reward kids for doing anything.
C. Don’t give kids rewards for doing chores.. D. Don’t let kids play computer games.
14. What’s Paragraph 3 mainly about?
A. How to make money by doing chores.
B. The apps that encourage kids to do chores.
C. How to exchange the points for real rewards.
D. The good side of rewarding kids for doing chores.
15. What is the purpose of writing the passage?
A. To call on readers to do more chores.. B. To tell readers two different opinions.
C. To invite readers to express their opinions.. D. To show the writer’s views about doing chores.
D
On November 15, 2025, Abdusamat Keram, a young man from Xinjiang, finished a 280‑day hiking journey from Kashgar to Beijing. The whole journey covers a distance of over 5,000 kilometers.
Abdusamat loved to explore in his childhood, yet he hardly had free time for it. After finishing high school, he worked in a factory. Through television and the Internet, he saw many hikers on the road. That’s when he decided to go out and explore the outside world.
Then he left his job and started the Taklimakan Desert trip with his brother, who is 10 years older than him.The adventure turned out to be extremely hard and lasted for five months. During the trip, he learned many practical life skills from his brother. Also, Abdusamat had a larger hiking plan: to walk from Kashgar to Beijing, alone.
“I shared the plan with my brother one night in the desert, and he responded, ‘If you have an idea, I support you to make it happen.’”
On February 7, 2025, Abdusamat set off on his journey with his dog Shunfeng. It made the long journey much easier and happier for him. However, Abdusamat as well as his dog suffered from health troubles during the trip. Fortunately, plenty of warm‑hearted strangers offered their help. Abdusamat planned to arrive in Beijing before October 1, but he didn’t get to Beijing until November 15.
The journey opened Abdusamat’s eyes and allowed him to witness the beautiful scenery across China. It has also changed him from a shy person to an outgoing person.
16. What can we learn about Abdusamat’s journey from Paragraph 1?
①Why he made it. ②Where it ended. ③How long it took. ④How far it covered.
A. ①②③ B. ①③④ C. ②③④ D. ①②④
17. What made Abdusamat decide to go out and explore?
A. His brother’s words. B. A book about hiking.
C. A high school hiking journey. D. Hikers on TV and the Internet.
18. What did Abdusamat’s brother think of Abdusamat’s larger plan?
A. He was for it. B. He was against it.
C. He knew nothing about it. D. He showed no interest in it.
19. What does the underlined word “Fortunately” in Paragraph 5 mean?
A. Simply. B. Suddenly. C. Recently D. Luckily.
20. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Useful skills for hiking. B. The story of a young hiker.
C. What we can learn from hiking. D. Why more and more people go hiking.
Ⅲ. 阅读理解 七选五根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。(10分)
Simple Ways to Improve Relationships with Family
A few lucky ones among us get on well with their family. Relationships with family always go through testing times and there will always be ups and downs. ____21____. But by following the suggestions below, you can improve and strengthen family relationships.
Listen more. The number one way to improve a relationship is to listen more. Listening can be the golden key that opens the door to human relationship. Are you a good listener? ____22____. While listening, we should put ourselves in their shoes. Remember to listen for both words and emotions.
____23____. It would be great if we organize some family activities from time to time. Some people like to arrange (安排) family game nights, some have outdoor picnics, and others watch movies together. In my family, one of the family traditions is to decorate the Christmas tree together at Christmas.
Keep in touch. These days technology makes it easy to stay in touch with family members. Even though we’re apart, we can send an email, or write a note to one another. When I worked overseas, I emailed home as often as I could. We were so happy to have a truly good family relationship and became even closer by talking about our days. ____24____.
Be thankful. Try not to take love for granted (理所应当). ____25____. Studies have shown that a simple thank can make family members feel valued and turn an ordinary day into a more pleasant one. Try to write heartfelt letters to each of your family members. This small action can inspire others to go out of their way to help you again and then make your relationship closer.
A. Support each other
B. Spend more time together
C. If you want people to listen to you, just listen to them first
D. Nothing is more important than your family
E. So don’t forget to call or send a message to people you care about
F. Sometimes your family may let you down and sometimes you disappoint them
G. Often say “I love you”, hug and express your thanks by giving small gifts
IV. 补全对话 (5分)
阅读对话,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
Kate: Mom, Saturday is my birthday. I’m so excited. ____26____
Mom: Of course! ____27____
Kate: I want you to give me some money.
Mom: OK. But why?
Kate: ____28____
Mom: Well, I’m going shopping tomorrow and I can buy some drinks and snacks for you. We can also prepare some fruit.
Kate: Oh, good. Thanks, Mom. I’m sure my friends will love them.
Mom: You’re welcome. Oh, could you clean your room?
Kate: ____29____
Mom: You need to clean it again for your party.
Kate: Sorry, I have to do my homework now.
Mom: That’s right. After you finish your homework, please clean the room. I’ll sweep the floor and do the dishes. ____30____
Kate: Yes, sure.
Mom: Great! I believe your friends will have a wonderful time at the party.
Kate: I hope so! I’m really looking forward to it and we plan to play fun games together.
26.
A. Could I invite my friends to my party on that day?
B. Can I go to the movies?
C. Could you help out with a few things?
D. Could you please give me a ride to the supermarket this afternoon?
27.
A. What should we do now? B. What do you want me to do?
C. What are you doing? D. What do you do after dinner?
28.
A. I need to buy some gifts for my friends. B. I need to buy some clothes.
C. I need to buy some drinks and snacks. D. I need to have a birthday party.
29.
A. Yes, I can. B. No problem!
C. That sounds great! D. I cleaned it yesterday.
30.
A. Could you please do them? B. Could you go out to play?
C. Could you please take out the rubbish? D. Could you sweep the floor?
V. 完形填空 (15分)
阅读短文,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。
For most people, childhood is a happy time. However, ____31____ my father died, my life changed a lot. My mother had to work hard to support our family. She worked far from home, so she really needed a car but we didn’t have enough money to buy one. One day, big ____32____ came into our life.
Mr Lucas, one of our ____33____, gave my mother an envelope with 300 dollars inside. Hesitating (犹豫) for a while, my mother didn’t ____34____ it for she couldn’t possibly pay him back. Mr Lucas knew her ____35____. He stepped forward and said, “Don’t worry about ____36____ the money. When times are better, just help someone else”.
My mother kept the words in her mind and took them ____37____. One cold night, my mother found a poor woman ____38____ on the street with her body shaking. Seeing the scene, she felt sad and decided to help the woman. She ____39____ home the poor woman as a guest. After some gentle talk, the 70-year-old woman told us the telephone number of her daughter. When they said goodbye, the old woman gave my mother a big hug for her ____40____.
Through the years, life kept being ____41____ for us. However, I always saw my mother ____42____ to those in need. Years have passed since our neighbor came to us with his ____43____. We still keep ____44____ his advice, helping a little here and there. I hope, in return, my children will get the important ____45____ I learned from my dear neighbor and mother: The action of kindness, however small, can make a big difference.
31. A. when B. after C. until D. before
32. A. choices B. meals C. changes D. roles
33. A. teachers B. writers C. winners D. neighbors
34. A. share B. take C. pack D. guide
35. A. worry B. mistake C. trouble D. dream
36. A. giving back B. making up C. caring about D. bringing out
37. A. clearly B. closely C. easily D. carefully
38. A. walking B. fighting C. performing D. shopping
39. A. brought B. left C. reached D. stayed
40. A. service B. ticket C. luck D. kindness
41. A. comfortable B. hard C. simple D. good
42. A. run away B. put up C. reach out D. wake up
43. A. car B. gift C. question D. example
44. A. giving B. hearing C. guiding D. following
45. A. decision B. difference C. lesson D. talent
非选择题部分 共50分
Ⅵ. 阅读填词 (共15分)
阅读短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Chen Tao went on an outdoor education trip (研学旅行) with his classmates last Friday. He was so ____46____ (exciting) that he didn’t sleep well the night before. Chen Tao got up early. He had breakfast and was ready ____47____ (go). Then his father ____48____ (drive) him to school. At the school gate, Chen Tao met his friends. Everyone found the bus for their trip ____49____ (easy).
It took them over ____50____ hour to get to the farm. The students spent most of the time ____51____ (sing) and talking on the way, so it seemed not to be very long. When they arrived, Chen Tao visited the farm ____52____ others. Later, he felt hungry ____53____ ate some sandwiches with his friends. Before they left, Chen Tao ____54____ (buy) some strawberries for his family. But he didn’t buy ____55____ (something) for himself. He thought it was an excellent outdoor education trip.
Ⅶ. 情景应用 (10分)
根据每小题所提供的图片情景,完成下列句子。
56. A: What did you do last weekend?
B: ________________________.
57. A: ________________________?
B: It was wonderful.
58. A: What would you like to do?
B: ________________________.
59. A: What is the robot doing?
B: ________________________.
60. A: Did Jim do his homework yesterday?
B: ________________________.
Ⅷ. 81. 书面表达 (25分)
61. 每一次旅行都是成长的契机,每一段旅途都留下独一无二的回忆。近期,学校公众号正在征集“假期游记”英语征文,请用英语记述你的一次旅行经历。内容包含:
1. Where did you go? Who did you go with?
2. What did you do?
3. What do you think of the trip?
要求:
1. 补齐题目
2. 词数80‑100词
3. 短文须包含上述要点,可适当增加内容,以使行文连贯
My ________ Vacation
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2026-2027学年第一学期错题挑战大赛
八年级英语试题
本试题分选择题部分和非选择题部分,共10页,满分为150分,考试用时120分钟。
答题前,请考生务必将自己的姓名、座号和准考证号填写在答题卡上,并同时将考点、姓名、准考证号和座号填写在试卷规定的位置。
答题时,选择题部分每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题部分,用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答。直接在试题上作答无效。
选择题部分 共100分
I. 听力测试 (30分)
第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听录音,从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子,每个句子听一遍。
1. A. How did you go on vacation? B. How was your vacation? C. How did your vacation go?
2. A. I did nothing special this holiday.
B. I didn’t do anything special this holiday.
C. I did everything I can do this holiday.
3. A. What did you do last weekend?
B. Where did you go last weekend?
C. When did you go to Lijiang?
4. A. It was such a good experience.
B. It was a fantastic place to visit.
C. It was so beautiful that I didn’t want to go.
5. A. Did you go anywhere interesting?
B. Did you do anything interesting on your holiday?
C. Did you eat anything special?
第二节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. Where did the man go for his last vacation?
A. To Australia. B. To China. C. To America.
7. Who did the woman go to Canada with?
A. Her parents. B. Her grandparents. C. Her friends.
8. Why did Jane stay at home last weekend?
A. Because she was lazy.
B. Because it rained outside.
C. Because she had too much homework.
9. Where is the gift shop?
A. Next to the coffee shop. B. Next to the post office. C. Behind the post office.
10. What time did Mary arrive at the train station?
A. At 4:00. B. At 5:00. C. At 5:20.
第三节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. Why is John tired now?
A. Because he went to bed late.
B. Because he played games all night.
C. Because he climbed the mountains yesterday.
12. How was John’s trip?
A. Meaningful. B. Terrible. C. Interesting.
13. When did the girl arrive in Sanya?
A. At 9:00 a.m. B. At 9:20 a.m. C. At 9:30am.
14. What did the girl and her family have for lunch?
A. Noodles. B. Fish. C. Bread.
15. Where did the girl visit some old buildings?
A. In the park. B. Near the beach. C. In the centre of the city.
第四节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案,听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. When did the speaker go to Hangzhou?
A. Last summer. B. Last winter. C. This winter.
17. What does the speaker think of the West Lake?
A. It’s beautiful. B. It’s clean. C. It’s special.
18. What did the speaker and his friend do?
A. They took photos. B. They wrote and painted. C. They went boating.
19. How was the weather?
A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Windy.
20. What did the speaker’s friend like about the West Lake?
A. The bridges. B. The trees. C. The pictures.
Ⅱ. 阅读理解 阅读下列短文,从每题A、B、 (C、D四个选项中,选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。(40分)
A
【1~5题答案】
【答案】1. B 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. B
B
【6~10题答案】
【答案】6. C 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. D
C
【11~15题答案】
【答案】11. A 12. C 13. C 14. D 15. C
D
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. B
Ⅲ. 阅读理解 七选五根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。(10分)
【21~25题答案】
【答案】21. F 22. C 23. B 24. E 25. G
IV. 补全对话 (5分)
【26~30题答案】
【答案】26. A 27. B 28. C 29. D 30. C
V. 完形填空 (15分)
【31~45题答案】
【答案】31. B 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. C 36. A 37. D 38. A 39. A 40. D 41. B 42. C 43. B 44. D 45. C
非选择题部分 共50分
Ⅵ. 阅读填词 (共15分)
【46~55题答案】
【答案】46. excited
47. to go 48. drove
49. easily 50. an
51. singing
52. with 53. and
54. bought 55. anything
Ⅶ. 情景应用 (10分)
【56~60题答案】
【答案】56. I climbed a mountain/I went climbing
57. How was your holiday
58. I’d like to feed the fish/I want to feed the fish
59. It is carrying a box/It is moving a box
60. No, he didn’t
Ⅷ. 81. 书面表达 (25分)
【61题答案】
【答案】
例文
My Unforgettable Vacation
Last summer vacation, I went to Qingdao with my parents. It took us about three hours to get there by train.
On the first day, we walked along the beautiful beach and enjoyed the sea wind. We also tried delicious seafood. The next day, we visited a museum and learned a lot about local history. We took many photos to keep the nice moments.
This trip was wonderful. Not only did I enjoy the amazing sights, but I also felt relaxed. It is really an unforgettable experience for me.
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