广东汕头市潮阳市关埠镇上仓学校2025-2026学年第一学期七年级英语科第二阶段学情自测试卷

　2025—2026 学年度第一学期　 七年级英语科第二阶段月考试卷 （内容：人教版七年级上册 Units 5—7；满分120分，考试时间120分钟） 班级＿＿＿＿＿＿　　姓名＿＿＿＿＿＿　　座位＿＿＿＿＿＿ 注意事项：1．满分120分（含听力20分），考试时间120分钟。2．答卷前，考生务必在指定位置填写学校、班级、姓名、座位号。3．选择题选出答案后，把所选答案填在对应的答题栏中；非选择题用黑色字迹的签字笔作答。4．考试结束时，将试卷一并交回。 第一部分　听力理解（共20分） 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Ⅰ．听句子，选择最佳答语（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分） 你将听到5个句子，每个句子读一遍。请从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出最佳答语。 1． A．The music club. B．I like apples. C．At seven o'clock. D．Yes, I can. 2． A．I'm twelve. B．By subway. C．It's sunny. D．Thank you. 3． A．Yes, please. B．I'm fine. C．It's nine yuan. D．No, I don't. 4． A．He is a student. B．At half past six. C．He likes red. D．In the library. 5． A．You're welcome. B．The same to you. C．Thank you. D．That's OK. Ⅱ．听对话，选择最佳答案（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 你将听到5段对话，每段对话后有两个问题，每段对话读两遍。请从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出最佳答案。 6． A．The art club. B．The music club. C．The sports club. D．The chess club. 7． A．Mr. Li. B．Miss Wang. C．Miss Chen. D．Mr. Zhang. 8． A．At six. B．At seven in the evening. C．At eight. D．At half past nine. 9． A．At nine. B．At ten. C．At nine thirty. D．At eight thirty. 10． A．Some beef and vegetables. B．Some noodles and eggs. C．Some chicken and rice. D．Some fish and bread. 11． A．Yes, he does. B．No, he doesn't. C．Yes, he would. D．We don't know. 12． A．By bus. B．By bike. C．On foot. D．By subway. 13． A．About five minutes. B．About ten minutes. C．About fifteen minutes. D．About twenty minutes. 14． A．On October 1st. B．On October 11th. C．On September 1st. D．On December 1st. 15． A．Twelve. B．Thirteen. C．Fourteen. D．Fifteen. Ⅲ．听短文，填写信息（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分） 你将听到一段短文，短文读两遍。请根据短文内容，填写下面表格中的信息。 Name: 16．______ Class: 17．______ Get up: 18．______ Club: 19．______ Club day: 20．______ 第二部分　语言知识运用（共15分） 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Ⅳ．单项填空（共15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 21．My sister ______ two piano lessons every week. A．have B．has C．having D．to have 22．—______ there any milk in the cup? —Yes, there is. A．Are B．Is C．Have D．Has 23．—Would you like ______ apples? —No, thanks. A．some B．any C．an D．a 24．Tom often ______ to school at seven thirty. A．go B．goes C．going D．to go 25．There ______ a book and three pens on the desk. A．is B．are C．have D．has 26．—______ does your mother go to work? —By bus. A．What B．When C．How D．Where 27．—______ do you usually get up? —At six o'clock. A．What time B．What C．How D．Where 28．My brother wants ______ the basketball club. A．join B．joins C．to join D．joining 29．—______ oranges are there in the bag? —There are six. A．How much B．How many C．How old D．How 30．Lucy ______ like hamburgers. She likes fruit. A．don't B．doesn't C．isn't D．aren't 31．There are ______ apples but there isn't ______ bread on the table. A．some; some B．any; some C．some; any D．any; any 32．—______ is your father's birthday? —It's on May 2nd. A．What B．When C．Where D．How 33．Let's ______ some food for the party. A．buy B．buys C．to buy D．buying 34．The students ______ an English party every year. A．has B．have C．having D．to have 35．—How ______ is it from your home to school? —About 2 kilometres. A．long B．far C．many D．much 第三部分　完形填空（共10分） 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 Ⅴ．完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Hello! I am Chen Hao. I am a student in Grade 7. Every morning, I 36．______ up at six thirty. Then I have breakfast with my family. My home is near the school, 37．______ I walk to school. School 38．______ at eight o'clock. I have seven classes a day. My favourite subject is PE 39．______ I like sports. After school, I go to the 40．______ club. We play basketball 41．______ Tuesday afternoon. My friend Li Tao 42．______ in the club, too. He 43．______ basketball very well. On Sunday, my family and I go to my grandmother's home. She 44．______ delicious food for us. I love my 45．______ very much. 36． A．get B．gets C．getting D．to get 37． A．but B．so C．and D．because 38． A．start B．starts C．starting D．to start 39． A．and B．but C．because D．so 40． A．art B．music C．sports D．chess 41． A．in B．on C．at D．for 42． A．am B．is C．are D．be 43． A．play B．plays C．playing D．to play 44． A．make B．makes C．making D．to make 45． A．school B．family C．club D．class 第四部分　阅读理解（共30分） 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 Ⅵ．阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，共30分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Our school has a Sports Day every October. This year it is on October 15th. Many students take part in it. Li Jun runs very fast and he wins the 100-metre race. Zhang Min is good at the long jump. Wang Tao plays basketball well and his team gets first place. After the games, we have a big lunch together. We are all very happy. 46．When is the Sports Day this year? A．On October 5th. B．On October 15th. C．On November 15th. D．On December 15th. 47．Who wins the 100-metre race? A．Li Jun. B．Zhang Min. C．Wang Tao. D．Chen Hao. 48．What is Zhang Min good at? A．Running. B．The long jump. C．Basketball. D．Football. 49．What does Wang Tao's team get? A．Second place. B．Third place. C．First place. D．No place. 50．What do they do after the games? A．They go home. B．They have a big lunch. C．They watch TV. D．They play football. B Healthy eating is important for students. We should eat different kinds of food every day. Rice and noodles give us energy. Vegetables and fruit keep us healthy. Milk and eggs help us grow. But we should not eat too much hamburgers or candy. They are not good for our teeth and body. Water is the best drink. We should drink about eight glasses of water a day. My friend Anna likes eating fruit. She eats an apple and a banana every day. She seldom eats ice cream. She is strong and seldom gets ill. 51．What gives us energy? A．Hamburgers and candy. B．Rice and noodles. C．Ice cream. D．Cola. 52．What helps us grow? A．Milk and eggs. B．Vegetables. C．Candy. D．Juice. 53．How much water should we drink a day? A．About five glasses. B．About six glasses. C．About eight glasses. D．About ten glasses. 54．The word "seldom" means（意思是）"______" in Chinese. A．总是 B．很少 C．有时 D．经常 55．Why is Anna strong? A．She drinks cola. B．She eats fruit every day and seldom eats ice cream. C．She eats hamburgers. D．She watches TV. C Many animals are in danger now. People cut down too many trees, so pandas lose their homes. Some people kill elephants for their ivory. The number of South China tigers is very small. We can help animals. First, we can plant more trees. Second, we should not buy things made from animal parts. Third, we can tell our friends to protect animals. There is a wildlife park near my city. I go there with my parents every month. We see many animals and learn about them. Animals are our friends. Let's protect them together. 56．Why do pandas lose their homes? A．Because people plant trees. B．Because people cut down too many trees. C．Because of the weather. D．Because they move away. 57．What do some people kill elephants for? A．Their meat. B．Their ivory. C．Their fur. D．Their milk. 58．Which is a way to help animals? A．Cut down more trees. B．Buy ivory things. C．Plant more trees. D．Kill tigers. 59．How often does the writer go to the wildlife park? A．Every week. B．Every month. C．Every year. D．Every day. 60．What is the best title（标题）for the passage? A．My Favourite Animal B．Protect Animals Together C．A Big Park D．Elephants and Ivory 第五部分　词汇运用（共10分） 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 Ⅶ．词汇运用（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 用括号内所给单词的适当形式填空。 61．My brother ______ (have) a new bicycle. 62．There ______ (be) some water in the glass. 63．Lucy ______ (go) to school by bus every day. 64．We have three ______ (class) in the afternoon. 65．Would you like some ______ (tomato)? 66．He ______ (not like) fish. 67．How many ______ (child) are there in the room? 68．My mother ______ (make) a cake for my birthday. 69．They want ______ (join) the music club. 70．There are two ______ (library) in our school. 第六部分　短文填空（共10分） 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 Ⅷ．短文填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分） 阅读短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词，或用括号内所给单词的正确形式填空。 Hello! I am Lin Fang. Today is my birthday. I 71．______ (be) twelve years old. My parents have a birthday party for me. There 72．______ (be) a big cake on the table. It 73．______ (look) very nice. My friends 74．______ (come) to my home. We 75．______ (eat) the cake and some fruit. My mother 76．______ (make) beef noodles. They 77．______ (be) delicious. Would you like 78．______ (some / any) noodles? We also drink 79．______ (orange) juice. I 80．______ (get) many nice presents from my friends. I am very happy. 第七部分　书面表达（共15分） Ⅸ．书面表达（15分） 假设你是李红（Li Hong），来自潮汕地区。学校英语板报正在征集以"My Favourite Food"为题的稿件。请根据以下提示写一篇英语短文投稿。 提示：1．你最喜欢的食物是什么；2．它是什么样子／味道如何；3．你通常什么时候吃，和谁一起吃；4．为什么喜欢它（可结合潮汕特色，如牛肉火锅、牛肉丸等）。 要求：1．包含以上要点，可适当发挥；2．60词左右；3．文中不得出现真实姓名和校名；标题已给出，不计入总词数。 My Favourite Food 七年级英语科第二阶段月考试卷（参考答案） 第一部分　听力理解（20分） 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 A B A B C A B B C A B B C A B 16 17 18 19 20 Liu Yang Class 2 half past six sports Tuesday 【解析】 1．问句 "What club do you want to join?" 询问想加入的俱乐部，答语 "The music club." 符合，选A。 2．问句 "How do you get to school?" 询问交通方式，"By subway." 符合，选B。 3．"Would you like some noodles?" 为礼貌邀请，肯定答用 "Yes, please."，选A。 4．问句询问弟弟几点起床，"At half past six." 回答时间，选B。 5．"Happy birthday to you!" 的恰当应答是 "Thank you."，选C。 6．由 "I want to join the art club." 可知 Lin Feng 想加入美术俱乐部，选A。 7．由 "Miss Wang. She is very kind." 可知美术俱乐部由王老师教，选B。 8．由 "I usually do it at seven in the evening." 可知 Yu Hao 晚上七点做作业，选B。 9．由 "At nine thirty." 可知他九点半睡觉，选C。 10．由 "I'd like some beef and vegetables." 可知 Xiao Ming 想吃牛肉和蔬菜，选A。 11．由 "No, thanks. I don't like noodles." 可知他不喜欢面条，选B。 12．由 "I ride my bike." 可知 Liang 骑自行车上学，选B。 13．由 "About fifteen minutes." 可知用时约十五分钟，选C。 14．由 "It's on October 1st." 可知 Chen Jie 的生日在10月1日，选A。 15．由 "I'm thirteen." 可知 Chen Jie 十三岁，选B。 【听力原文】 Ⅰ．听句子，选择最佳答语 1．What club do you want to join? 2．How do you get to school? 3．Would you like some noodles? 4．What time does your brother get up? 5．Happy birthday to you! Ⅱ．听对话，选择最佳答案 6—7． W: Hi, Lin Feng. What club do you want to join? M: I want to join the art club. I like drawing. W: Who teaches the art club? M: Miss Wang. She is very kind. Q6: What club does Lin Feng want to join? Q7: Who teaches the art club? 8—9． W: When do you usually do your homework, Yu Hao? M: I usually do it at seven in the evening. W: And when do you go to bed? M: At nine thirty. Q8: When does Yu Hao do his homework? Q9: When does he go to bed? 10—11． W: What would you like for your birthday dinner, Xiao Ming? M: I'd like some beef and vegetables. W: Would you like some noodles, too? M: No, thanks. I don't like noodles. Q10: What would Xiao Ming like for dinner? Q11: Does Xiao Ming like noodles? 12—13． W: How do you get to school, Liang? M: I ride my bike. W: How long does it take? M: About fifteen minutes. Q12: How does Liang get to school? Q13: How long does it take? 14—15． W: When is your birthday, Chen Jie? M: It's on October 1st. W: And how old are you? M: I'm thirteen. Q14: When is Chen Jie's birthday? Q15: How old is Chen Jie? Ⅲ．听短文，填写信息 Hello, everyone. I'm Liu Yang. I'm in Class 2, Grade 7. Every day I get up at half past six. My home is not far, so I walk to school. We have four classes in the morning and three in the afternoon. I like the sports club. We meet on Tuesday afternoon and play basketball together. I'm very happy at school. 第二部分　语言知识运用（15分） 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 B B A B A C A C B B C B A B B 【解析】 21．主语 My sister 为第三人称单数，谓语用 has，选B。 22．milk 不可数，there be 句型用 Is，选B。 23．Would you like... 表示委婉邀请，用 some，选A。 24．Tom 为第三人称单数，一般现在时用 goes，选B。 25．there be 就近原则，a book 为单数，用 is，选A。 26．答语 By bus 表交通方式，问句用 How，选C。 27．答语 At six o'clock 表时刻，用 What time 提问，选A。 28．want to do sth. 为固定搭配，用 to join，选C。 29．oranges 为可数复数，提问数量用 How many，选B。 30．Lucy 为第三人称单数，否定用 doesn't，选B。 31．肯定句用 some，否定句用 any，选C。 32．答语 on May 2nd 表日期，用 When 提问，选B。 33．Let's 后接动词原形 buy，选A。 34．students 为复数，谓语用 have，选B。 35．答语 About 2 kilometres 表距离，用 How far 提问，选B。 第三部分　完形填空（10分） 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 A B B C C B B B B B 【解析】 36．主语 I 后用动词原形 get，选A。 37．"家离学校近，因此步行"，前后为因果关系，用 so，选B。 38．School 为单数，谓语用 starts，选B。 39．"最喜欢体育是因为喜欢运动"，用 because，选C。 40．后文 play basketball 提示是 sports club，选C。 41．具体某天下午用介词 on，选B。 42．Li Tao 为单数，be 动词用 is，选B。 43．He 为第三人称单数，用 plays，选B。 44．She 为第三人称单数，用 makes，选B。 45．前文讲述家人，love my family 符合，选B。 第四部分　阅读理解（30分） 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 B A B C B B A C B B B B C B B 【解析】 46．由 "This year it is on October 15th." 可知运动会今年在10月15日，选B。 47．由 "Li Jun runs very fast and he wins the 100-metre race." 可知 Li Jun 赢得百米赛，选A。 48．由 "Zhang Min is good at the long jump." 可知 Zhang Min 擅长跳远，选B。 49．由 "Wang Tao plays basketball well and his team gets first place." 可知其队得第一，选C。 50．由 "After the games, we have a big lunch together." 可知赛后一起吃大餐，选B。 51．由 "Rice and noodles give us energy." 可知米饭面条提供能量，选B。 52．由 "Milk and eggs help us grow." 可知牛奶鸡蛋助成长，选A。 53．由 "We should drink about eight glasses of water a day." 可知每天约八杯水，选C。 54．由 "She eats fruit every day... She seldom eats ice cream... She is strong" 可知 seldom 意为"很少"，选B。 55．由 Anna 每天吃水果、很少吃冰淇淋故身体强壮，选B。 56．由 "People cut down too many trees, so pandas lose their homes." 可知熊猫失去家园因人们砍伐过多树木，选B。 57．由 "Some people kill elephants for their ivory." 可知为象牙杀象，选B。 58．文中提到种树等方式，"Plant more trees" 是帮助动物的做法，选C。 59．由 "I go there with my parents every month." 可知每月去一次，选B。 60．全文呼吁保护动物，标题 "Protect Animals Together" 最贴切，选B。 第五部分　词汇运用（10分） 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 has is goes classes tomatoes doesn't like children makes to join libraries 【解析】 61．brother 为单数，have 变为 has。 62．water 不可数，be 动词用 is。 63．Lucy 为单数，go 变为 goes。 64．three 后 class 用复数 classes。 65．some 后 tomato 用复数 tomatoes。 66．He 为单数，否定用 doesn't like。 67．How many 后 child 用复数 children。 68．mother 为单数，make 变为 makes。 69．want to do，join 变为 to join。 70．two 后 library 用复数 libraries。 第六部分　短文填空（10分） 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 am is looks come eat makes are some orange get 【解析】 71．主语 I 后用 am。 72．a big cake 为单数，there be 用 is。 73．It 为单数，look 变为 looks。 74．friends 为复数，用动词原形 come。 75．We 为复数，用动词原形 eat。 76．mother 为单数，make 变为 makes。 77．they 为复数，be 动词用 are。 78．Would you like 表邀请，用 some。 79．orange juice 中 orange 为定语，不变。 80．主语 I 后用动词原形 get。 第七部分　书面表达（15分） 【写作指导】 本次写作可分四步：① 点明最喜欢的食物；② 描述其外形或味道；③ 说明食用的场合与同伴（可写周末与家人吃潮汕牛肉火锅）；④ 表达喜爱的原因。注意使用一般现在时，并恰当运用 because、and 等连词。 【参考范文】 My Favourite Food I am Li Hong from Chaoshan. My favourite food is Chaoshan beef hot pot. The beef is very fresh and the soup is delicious. I often eat it with my family on weekends. We also like beef balls. They are soft and tasty. I don't like hamburgers because they are not healthy. Healthy food makes me strong. I love my favourite food. 评分标准： 第一档（13—15分）：要点齐全，内容充实，语言基本无误，书写工整。 第二档（9—12分）：要点基本齐全，语言有少量错误，语句基本通顺。 第三档（5—8分）：要点不全，语言错误较多，但能表达基本意思。 第四档（4分以下）：只写出个别句子或单词，难以表达意思。 说明：词数不足40词或超过90词，酌情扣1—2分。 七年级英语科第二阶段月考试卷　第 页（共 页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $