安徽省合肥市蜀山区第五十四中学2025-2026学年上学期八年级英语期中试卷

英语练习 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分16分） Ⅰ. （共3小题；每小题1分，满分3分） 在下列每小题中，你将听到一个或两个句子并看到供选择的A、B、C三幅图画。选出与你所听句子内容相匹配的图画。 1. A. B. C. 2. B. C. 3. A. B. C. Ⅱ. （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面五段对话。每段对话后都有一个问题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 4. What is Frank curious about? A. Plants. B. Space. C. Electricity. 5. Who will Amy go to the museum with tomorrow? A. Her dad. B. Her mum. C. Her brother. 6. What is Henry afraid of? A. Going to social events. B. Being in crowded places. C. Seeing the doctor. 7. What will Mark do for his mum? A. Write a poem. B. Do a painting. C. Sing a song. 8. What did Emily use to make the toy house? A. Plastic blocks. B. Paper waste. C. Wood waste. Ⅲ. （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）听下面长对话或独白。每段长对话或独白后有几个问题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 听下面一段材料，回答第9至第10题。 9. When was the invention competition? A. Last Tuesday. B. Last Friday. C. Last Sunday. 10. What was Jack’s invention? A. A mask. B. A wig. C. A surfboard. 听下面一段材料，回答第11至第13题。 11. Where did Neal and Jim go last Sunday? A. To the zoo. B. To the park. C. To the cinema. 12. Who is Mr White? A. Jim’s neighbour. B. Jim’s teacher. C. Jim’s grandpa. 13. How long has Neal known Jim? A. For about 3 years. B. For about 6 years. C. For about 9 years. Ⅳ. 听下面一段材料，填出所缺单词。每空仅填一词（共3小题；每小题1分，满分3分）。 A Young Inventor background Tom loves science. He thinks it can change people’s 14 . At 10 He learned how to 15 his bicycle from a TV show. At 13th birthday He got his first robot. At 16 He saw on the news that many people got hurt. He wanted to help. At 18 He 16 in making the light. 第二部分 英语知识运用（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅴ. 单项选择（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 1. In Chinese culture, water is a symbol of good _______ . It is soft but strong, and always finds a way to keep moving forward. A. objects B. views C. products D. qualities 2. The leatherback turtle (棱皮龟) is the largest of all living turtles, with some ________ over 900 kilograms. A. sensing B. weighing C. bringing D. covering 3. —What do you think of the hotel near the beach in Sanya? —Quite good. I ________ in it for a week last summer. A. have stayed B. will stay C. stayed D. stay 4. —The artist used ________ colors in her picture to make it look happy and full of joy. —True, these colors are all warm ones, like red and yellow. A. dark B. normal C. bright D. cold 5. — I like the Three - Body Problem very much. The story is so amazing! — I agree with you. Its writer, Liu Cixin, is very ________. He created the whole magical world and it amazed his readers. A. imaginative B. stressed C. common D. strict Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） A The idea for this braille (盲文) reader came to Mehta during a visit to his grandfather in India. His grandfather ____6____ a special school. It was for blind students. While there, Mehta learnt that ____7____ in school had an electronic braille reader —— it was too expensive (昂贵的) to afford, $3,000 each! Mehta wanted to make a ____8____. He wanted to help those students! Mehta had ____9____ interest in science and technology. As a result, he was excited to have a ____10____ immediately after the visit. He wanted to create a cheap braille reader and ____11____ help these students. His first ____12____ was challenging: to create a reader costing less than $50. Finally, he built two kinds: a small one costing $20 and a larger one costing $35. He made it! The journey to create the readers was not easy. Mehta ____13____ many problems. Yet he never got worried. Mehta’s grandfather ran the school so Mehta could ask blind students to ____14____ some advice after trying out (试用) the readers. With the students’ advice, then he improved them. He had so many difficulties, but he ____15____ his hope. In the future, maybe he will change “nobody had a reader” into “everybody has a reader”. “I hope to help people in need all over the world with my invention!” Mehta said. 6. A. ran B. closed C. left D. painted 7. A. somebody B. anybody C. nobody D. everybody 8. A. trip B. joke C. difference D. conclusion 9. A. great B. little C. no D. many 10. A. break B. meal C. trip D. try 11. A. truly B. nearly C. surprisingly D. impossibly 12. A. goal B. chance C. exhibition D. character 13. A. hated B. hid C. avoided D. faced 14. A. follow B. offer C. receive D. refuse 15. A. gave up B. stuck to C. worried about D. suffered from B Home is like a warm hug on a cold night, comforting me and making me feel safe. Last Friday, I had a big argument with my friend Macy. ____16____ I tried to talk to her, she didn’t listen. I was very sad. When I came near my home, I ____17____ my mum. She was waiting for me in front of the door. She ____18____ me and softly said, “Welcome home, dear!” Then, she took me to the kitchen. The smell of freshly made biscuits filled the air. “I made them just for you, my dear!” she said, ____19____ me. Just then, my dad walked in. Noticing the look on my face, he was ____20____ of my bad feeling. He cared a lot about me, so he asked me what happened ____21____. I told him the whole thing and he listened patiently. Dad said: “Relax, dear. Everyone has ____22____ days. Maybe Macy feels bad now too. Try to write her a note. You can tell her that you really ____23____ your friendship. You like being her friend. By the way, dad and mum are always here.” The next day, when I returned to school, I found a ____24____ on the desk. I opened it and read, “I AM SORRY. We are best friends forever. Macy.” ____25____ filled my eyes. Home is where I feel loved and safe. It’s the best place in the world! 16. A. Although B. Because C. If D. Until 17. A. loved B. noticed C. respected D. troubled 18. A. beat B. chose C. hugged D. tested 19. A. smiling at B. shouting at C. arguing with D. looking after 20. A. tired B. aware C. proud D. afraid 21. A. carelessly B. excitedly C. confidently D. calmly 22. A. lucky B. bad C. boring D. interesting 23. A. value B. doubt C. question D. forget 24. A. note B. bag C. box D. rod 25. A. Joy B. Victory C. Memories D. Tears 第三部分 阅读理解（共两大题，满分35分） Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） A: Lucy, what do you like doing in your free time? B: ____26____. A: Oh, me too. Which film do you like best? B: My favorite is Tom and Jerry. A: ____27____ B: Because it is interesting and there are many lessons in it. A: I see. My favorite film is Nezha. ____28____ B: Yeah. He is cool. How about coming to my house and watching one? A: ____29____ I will be at your home after I finish my homework! B: Fine! Do you want to have snacks when you watch? ____30____ A: It is very nice of you. Chips will be great! A. Why do you like it? B. I love this great idea! C. I like watching films. D. Nezha helps save people. E. I like playing basketball. F. Let’s play games together! G. What do you want to eat? Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） A Last month, we made a survey (调查) about what sports young people like doing at weekends. There are four age groups:100 aged 13-15,100 aged 16-18,100 aged 19-22 and 100 aged 23-28. Here is the result. What sports young people like doing at weekends 31. Which age group has the most people riding bikes? A. 13-15. B. 16-18. C. 19-22. D. 23-28. 32. How many people in the 13-15 group enjoy running? A. 40. B. 45. C. 50. D. 55. 33. What can we know from the survey? A. 500 people took part in the survey. B. Basketball is the most popular sport. C. Bike riding is the least popular sport. D. People prefer climbing to running. 34. In which part of a newspaper can you possibly see the survey? A. Science. B. Animals. C. Sports. D. Travel. B ①A healthy, happy way of thinking is key to your life. Even if you face big problems—like too much homework or little money—you can stop bad thoughts right now. There are certain things you can do to change yourself and your thoughts. ②First, cheer yourself up in the morning with a fun routine (常规). Open windows to let sunlight in, turn on happy music, and do sports a little. Eat a delicious and healthy breakfast. Then do one thing that makes you smile—like listening to a short relaxing talk or writing down one good thing about yourself. ③Second, look for good parts in your day to be positive. When you do chores or daily tasks, notice small nice things. For example, watch pretty street flowers or a stranger helping others. You’ll find there are always small happy moments to enjoy. ④Third, stay with positive people to be more hopeful. Some people like talking about happy things and you can choose them to be your friends. When these great people share what they’re thankful for, you’ll easily see how lucky you are. You’ll learn to notice all the good things in your daily life. 35. How can we make ourselves happy in the morning? A. Turn off happy music. B. Eat unhealthy food for breakfast. C. Do sports for a long time. D. Open windows to let sunlight in. 36. Why does the writer give examples in Paragraph 3? A. To make us do some chores. B. To show how to help others. C. To tell us how to be positive. D. To show how to water flowers. 37. From Paragraph 4, we can infer (推断) that ________. A. we should only talk about problems with friends B. choose happy and good-looking people to be friends C. positive friends make our own life easy and relaxing D. positive friends help us understand how lucky we are 38. What is the structure of this passage? A. ①/②③④ B. ①/②③/④ C. ①②/③④ D. ①②③/④ C 13 August is a special day for 10% of the world’s people. Those people are happy to celebrate being left-handed on International Left-Handers Day. In 1975, a group of left-handers started a club to make people understand the challenges and advantages (优势) of their situation. Left-handers are also called lefties. They meet many challenges daily. That’s because the world is made for right-handed people. For example, when lefties use regular (普通的) scissors, they can’t cut well. Also, in many places, some people think being left-handed is bad and impolite. Because of that, people often treat lefties differently. For example, they always ask left-handed children to use their right hands. And sometimes left-handed workers get less money than right-handed ones. But life isn’t all bad for left-handers. In some situations, they actually get an upper hand over righties. For example, in the world of sports, lefties often shine. They’re very good at baseball and tennis. If you’re right-handed, try doing everything with your left hand on International Left-Handers Day. You’ll quickly see that life isn’t so easy for lefties in a right-handed world. Anyway, being left-handed is just one of the many things that make people different. And that’s something to celebrate! 39. What can we learn about lefties? A. They meet few challenges daily. B. Everyone thinks lefties are rude. C. People often treat them differently. D. They never use their right hands. 40. What does “get an upper hand over” (Paragraph3) probably mean? A. do better than B. are afraid of C. are serious about D. are tired of 41. Why does the writer ask readers to try using their left hand in the last paragraph? A. To teach them a lesson. B. To make them more creative. C. To help them feel relaxed. D. To help them know left-handed life. 42. What’s the main idea of the text? A. Right-Handers Day is a big Day. B. Left-Handed people get less money. C. Lefties meet challenges and they have advantages. D. Left-handed people get more job chances than right-handed people. D Do you know Qiyun Mountain? Every year, people from all over China come to visit this magic place of interest. It is in Anhui Province, China. In the old days, people also called it Baiyue. The name tells us the mountain is tall and great because Qiyun means “as high as the clouds”. The whole area of the mountain is 110 km². Most of the land here is hills. These hills are about 400 meters high. There are many old red rocks there. These rocks make a special landform-Danxia. You can see special things here, like red high rocks and stone hills. When you see them, you will feel the power of nature and lose yourself in them. Besides, you can see many kinds of plants in its national forest park. There are 173 families of plants. Some of them are difficult to see. You can also see many kinds of animals in the park, such as more than 200 kinds of birds. Take a look and see how amazing they are! Now, many visitors like to visit Qiyun Mountain. They can walk on the hiking roads, enjoy the beauty of nature and experience the traditional Chinese culture. If you have time, ________________ 43. What does Qiyun mean?(不超过10词) ___________________________________________________________________________________________ 44. How high are the hills?(不超过5词) ___________________________________________________________________________________________ 45. What will you write on the line?(不超过10词) ___________________________________________________________________________________________ 第四部分 写（共四大题，满分25分） Ⅸ. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 46. We should all line up at this g________ (大门) and keep the road clear. 47. Wang Yujia’s musical t_________ (天分) has been noticed since she was a child. 48. His dream to be a doctor d________ (驱使) him to work hard and he realized it at last. 49. The firefighters’ job is r_________ (有危险的) but they are brave to help people in need. 50. Qiegao is a traditional snack in the wide streets and n_________ (窄的) lanes of Xinjiang. Ⅹ. 短文填空（每小题1分，共4分） Leo thought creativity was magic. His teacher, Mr. Davis, gave him a notebook and said, “It’s a skill. Start by ____51____ (collect) what you see.” Leo decided to have a go. He looked at things like leaf shapes ____52____ (careful). Then, he learned to connect and put his ideas together. His first try to draw a “Seasons Tree” was hard. ____53____, he didn’t lose hope. He kept ____54____ (improve) the artwork instead. When he finally finished, his classmates loved his work. Leo learned the important lesson: creativity comes from paying attention and trying again. Ⅺ. 书面表达（共1小题；满分15分） 55. 书籍是人类进步的阶梯，而初中生读书时间普遍不足。你校英语社团在全校每天阅读时间不足15分钟的学生中进行原因调查后（结果见下图），针对最突出的原因，以“Everyone can have time to read”为主题发起征文。请你简述调查结果，提出1-2条有效建议，参与投稿。 要求：1. 80-100词，开头已给出，不计入总词数； 2. 文中不出现真实人名、地名、校名； 3. 要点全面，可适当发挥，使行文连贯。 参考词汇： 碎片化时间 spare moments 控制电子产品使用时间 limit screen time According to the survey, 68% of students say they don’t have time to do reading. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 英语练习 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分16分） Ⅰ. （共3小题；每小题1分，满分3分） 在下列每小题中，你将听到一个或两个句子并看到供选择的A、B、C三幅图画。选出与你所听句子内容相匹配的图画。 1. A. B. C. 2. B. C. 3. A. B. C. Ⅱ. （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面五段对话。每段对话后都有一个问题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 4. What is Frank curious about? A. Plants. B. Space. C. Electricity. 5. Who will Amy go to the museum with tomorrow? A. Her dad. B. Her mum. C. Her brother. 6. What is Henry afraid of? A. Going to social events. B. Being in crowded places. C. Seeing the doctor. 7. What will Mark do for his mum? A. Write a poem. B. Do a painting. C. Sing a song. 8. What did Emily use to make the toy house? A. Plastic blocks. B. Paper waste. C. Wood waste. Ⅲ. （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）听下面长对话或独白。每段长对话或独白后有几个问题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 听下面一段材料，回答第9至第10题。 9. When was the invention competition? A. Last Tuesday. B. Last Friday. C. Last Sunday. 10. What was Jack’s invention? A. A mask. B. A wig. C. A surfboard. 听下面一段材料，回答第11至第13题。 11. Where did Neal and Jim go last Sunday? A. To the zoo. B. To the park. C. To the cinema. 12. Who is Mr White? A. Jim’s neighbour. B. Jim’s teacher. C. Jim’s grandpa. 13. How long has Neal known Jim? A. For about 3 years. B. For about 6 years. C. For about 9 years. Ⅳ. 听下面一段材料，填出所缺单词。每空仅填一词（共3小题；每小题1分，满分3分）。 A Young Inventor background Tom loves science. He thinks it can change people’s 14 . At 10 He learned how to 15 his bicycle from a TV show. At 13th birthday He got his first robot. At 16 He saw on the news that many people got hurt. He wanted to help. At 18 He 16 in making the light. 第二部分 英语知识运用（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅴ. 单项选择（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【1题答案】 【答案】D 【2题答案】 【答案】B 【3题答案】 【答案】C 【4题答案】 【答案】C 【5题答案】 【答案】A Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） A 【6~15题答案】 【答案】6. A 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. B B 【16~25题答案】 【答案】16. A 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. B 21. D 22. B 23. A 24. A 25. D 第三部分 阅读理解（共两大题，满分35分） Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【26~30题答案】 【答案】26. C 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. G Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） A 【31~34题答案】 【答案】31. D 32. B 33. B 34. C B 【35~38题答案】 【答案】35. D 36. C 37. D 38. A C 【39~42题答案】 【答案】39. C 40. A 41. D 42. C D 【43~45题答案】 【答案】43. As high as the clouds. 44. About 400 meters high. 45. come and visit it. 第四部分 写（共四大题，满分25分） Ⅸ. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【46题答案】 【答案】gate##ate 【47题答案】 【答案】talent##alent 【48题答案】 【答案】drove##rove 【49题答案】 【答案】risky##isky 【50题答案】 【答案】narrow##arrow Ⅹ. 短文填空（每小题1分，共4分） 【51~54题答案】 【答案】51. collecting 52. carefully 53. However 54. improving Ⅺ. 书面表达（共1小题；满分15分） 【55题答案】 【答案】 According to the survey, 68% of students say they don’t have time to do reading. 16% of them think there are no interesting books, and 12% don’t know what to read. The other 4% have other reasons. However, everyone can have time to read if we try. First, we can make full use of our spare moments. For example, we can read a few pages while waiting for a bus or before going to bed. Second, it is a good idea to limit screen time. Instead of playing with mobile phones, we can pick up a book. In a word, reading is helpful. Let’s take action and enjoy reading every day. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $