浙江省杭州闻涛中学2025-2026学年九年级上学期期中英语试题

2025学年第一学期期中学业水平测试 九年级英语 命题人：闻涛中学九年级英语组 审核人：倪晶、周婷婷 考生须知： 1. 本试卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 2. 答题前，在答题纸上写学校、班级、姓名和座位号。 3. 必须在答题纸的对应答题位置上答题，写在其他地方无效。务必注意试题序号和答题序号相对应。 第Ⅰ卷 第一部分 听力理解（共三节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What does the man order? A. Tomato soup. B. Beef noodles. C. Cabbage dumplings. 2. Where are the speakers going for their holidays? A. Mount Huang. B. The West Lake. C. Shaolin Temple. 3. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. A friend. B. A holiday. C. A photo. 4. When did John start watching TV? A. 9:10 p.m. B. 9:20 p.m. C. 9:50 p.m. 5. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. At a store. B. At home. C. At a restaurant. 第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段较长对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。 6. What’s the weather like now? A. Sunny. B. Snowy. C. Rainy. 7. How are the speakers going to the mountains? A. By car. B. By bus. C. By train. 听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。 8. How old was Tim when he wrote his first book? A. 10. B. 11. C. 12. 9. Who led Tim into the world of books? A. His teacher. B. His father. C. His mother. 10. What does Tim think of Robinson Crusoe? A. Excellent. B. Great. C. Interesting. 第三节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，独白读两遍。 听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。 11. What is the first thing to do in the speaker’s English learning? A. Take notes. B. Listen to the radio. C. Work with a group. 12. Who can help the speaker with something he doesn’t know? A. His teachers. B. His friends. C. The students in his group. 13. Where does the speaker go to join in the English Corner every Tuesday evening? A. Zhongshan Park. B. The library. C. The school. 14. Why does the speaker often go to the library to read some English books? A. Because he goes there for an English test. B. Because it can help the speaker improve reading skills. C. Because it can help the speaker make progress in spoken English. 15. How many ways of learning English are mentioned in this passage? A. 2. B. 3. C. 4. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A World Water Day 2025 World Water Day happens on 22nd March every year. It is a day to think about why we need water and how to look after it. This Year’s Theme The theme for World Water Day 2025 is “Glacier (冰川) Protection”. Glaciers are large amounts of ice and they’re important. We look after them and stop them from melting (融化). They help to keep our planet cool and we get lots of our water from them. What Happens on World Water Day? On World Water Day, we think about all the ways that we use water and how we can use less of it. Why Is Water Important? Water is very important to all life. Humans, animals and plants would die without it. We need water to drink. We also need water to keep our bodies and clothes clean. All plants need water to grow. Fun Water Facts ·More than half of your body is made of water. ·Ice has been found on the planet Mars! Did you know...? Some countries are having more droughts. A drought happens in the place with not enough rain. Crops and animals may die because there isn’t enough water. 1. What is the theme for World Water Day 2025? A. Water for Health. B. Look After Our Planet. C. Glacier Protection. D. Water for Thirsty Countries. 2. What can we know from the text? A. Less than half of our body is made of water. B. A drought happens when there’s too much water. C. Life and water have been found on the planet Mars. D. People are advised to save water on World Water Day. 3. What is the text above? A. A survey. B. A poster. C. A guide. D. A story. A young man ordered and packed his breakfast at a local noddle house and got much more than he expected. On April 8, TikTok user Andy Xu shared a video about his trip to a noodle house in Hangzhou. In the video, which has over 2.3 million views, Andy is shocked by what he finds in his to-go bag instead of breakfast: thousands of yuan. “Why? There’s a couple of thousand yuan here,” Andy said, “Why would they do this? Why would they give this to me?” Andy shared his shocking discovery on TikTok. He knew that ▲ , but finally, he said he knew what he needed to do. “Now I have to return it because I’m a good person, I guess,” Andy said, putting the money back in the bag. After he walked into the noodle house, he gave the bag to a worker at the door. The worker realized he’s returning the cash they had been looking for. With the relieved and thankful smiles on their faces, one staff person asked if they could give him a hug—which he accepted. Back in the car, Andy reflected on what he had done. “They were just all hugging me and thanking me,” he said. “When I was driving away, they called me back in. They gave me ¥300 as well as free noodles for a month.” The TikTok video ended with Andy sharing what he believes to be the lesson of the story. “Do good, people. Returned ¥3,000, got ¥300 and free noodles for a month,” he said. “Good trade value and maybe a meaningful TikTok video.” 4. What happened to Andy on April 8? A. He lost thousands of yuan carelessly. B. He took someone’s to-go bag by accident. C. He had an awful breakfast at a noodle house. D. He got unexpected money at a noodle house. 5. Which of the following can be put into the blank ▲ in paragraph 3? A. he could just take the money B. he was going to return the money C. he is certainly a good person D. he needed to have breakfast 6. According to the passage, which word can best describe Andy? A. Brave. B. Careful. C. Honest. D. Smart. 7. Which of the following could be the best title for this passage? A. A Shocking Discovery at a Noodle House B. A Man Good at Making Videos on TikTok C. A Customer Friendly to the Staff Person D. A Guy Got Free Meals for Returning ¥3000 C ①Living in China has made me realize how convenient life can be. It’s much better than I ever thought. ②The moment I came to this country, a wave of pleasant surprise washed over me. The public transport system, especially in its big cities like Beijing and Shanghai, is great. The subway networks cover every part of the big cities. People can avoid the traffic jams and get to where they want to go much faster. High-speed trains that connect cities like Beijing and Shanghai in less than five hours are another example of China’s wonderful transportation system. ③Another great thing that stands out in China is the availability (可用性) of services. If my bike is broken and needs a repairman, or if I want to have daily needs, electronics or even medicine, I just need to make a phone call or click on my phone a few times. Since everything is available online, I no longer have to go far to the supermarket or the store. It is one of the key reasons I’ve stayed in China for so long—something I’ve never experienced in any other country. ④What’s more, China’s convenience doesn’t only lie in the speed of services, but also in their user- friendliness. The whole system is designed with user experience in mind. For example, the apps I use for transportation or deliveries are user-friendly, even for people who are not good at technology. Everything, including payment methods, is simple and direct. It means you don’t need to spend time learning how to use the systems. This makes it easy for everyone to get things done without difficulties. ⑤The convenience in China has made me more productive and relaxed. I’m sure that with technological progress and infrastructure (基础设施) development, life in China will become even more convenient in the future. 8. What is the main idea of this passage? A. The kinds of user-friendly apps. B. The convenience of living in China. C. The future of technological progress in China. D. The development of high speed trains in China. 9. What does the underlined word “It” in Paragraph 3 refer to? A. People can easily use different apps. B. People can connect with others by phone. C. People can get whatever they want online. D. People can go anywhere by high-speed train. 10. What is the structure of the passage? A. B. C. D. 11. Which of the following is most likely to be the writer of this passage? A. Yurina, an international student in Beijing for 4 years. B. Teng Fei, a Chinese who has just returned from abroad. C. Amy, a foreigner who has had a one-week trip to China. D. Fu Xing, a Chinese student who is proud of Chinese culture. D When she was 14 years old, Remya Jose’s life was turned upside down by a family crisis (危机). Remya, who lived in a small village in India, learned that her mother was ill and her father would have to spend his time caring for her. As a result, she and her twin sister had to do most of the housework—including washing clothes. To make things even more difficult, the Jose family couldn’t afford an electric washing machine. Instead, the two girls would have to do the washing all by hand in the local river, and then carefully carry everything back to their home—a task that took several hours. Being a good student interested in engineering, Remya wanted to make a washing machine which could be used without electricity. She started studying electric washers to learn how they worked. Remya then designed (设计) a machine that used bicycle pedals (踏板), she and her father went to a local auto shop. Workers there not only gave her the parts, they helped her make the machine! Here’s how the machine works: Remya used a cylinder (圆筒) to hold the clothes and put it in a cube (立方体). Next, the cylinder cleaned the clothes just like a regular washing machine. Remya’s invention worked! She had created her own human-powered washing machine—and now a task that used to take several hours took only 30 minutes. Remya’s washing machine was chosen from among 25,000 entries as India’s best innovation! She was given India’s National Award and honored by the nation’s former president. The story of this young woman’s creative invention was known around the world. “Remya Jose made a difference,” said Jeanine Thomas of The Borden Project, “Her invention saves time and money for the world’s poor. Her story shows that with creativity, one individual can improve the lives of many.” 12. What was Remya and her twin sister’s main problem? A. Their parents were too busy. B. They couldn’t get good education. C. Their home was far from the river. D. They spent much time washing clothes. 13. Which of the following best shows how Remya solved the problem? ①getting bicycle pedals and chains ②making a human-powered washer ③testing her machine by washing clothes ④studying how washing machines worked A. ③①④② B. ④②①③ C. ①④③② D. ④①②③ 14. What does the underlined word “innovation” in Paragraph 5 most probably mean? A. Prize. B. Invention. C. Request. D. Process. 15. What can we learn from Remya’s story? A. With help, an inventor can win great honor. B. With kindness, one can save the lives of many. C. With courage, a poor girl can change the world. D. With creativity, one can make a great difference. 第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面材料，从下面所给的A-E五个选项中选出正确选项 (其中一项是多余选项) 。 Do you know how to get the best help from AI? Here are three ways I've just learnt. ◆When you ask AI for help, make sure you clearly describe its role and the task you want it to do. ◆If the answer isn’t clear, ask follow-up (继续的，接着的) questions.. ◆After you finish your work, ask AI to check and improve it. AI is like a super-smart friend! 1 Check out my talk with AI. Do you think I am a good AI user? 2025-04-05 09: 03 Now you are a student in Grade 9. You need to plan a school-leavers’ party. The party will have 3 parts and last for 2 hours. 2 2025-04-05 09: 04 A Plan for a School-leavers' Party Theme: Memory and Dream Total Time: 2 Hours Part 1: Memory Hall (18: 30-19: 15) · Walk through the Memory Hall with old photos on the wall. · Pick a piece of paper from the “Memory Box”. Part 2: Fun Show Time (19: 15-20: 00) · Watch a sand art show about the school life in the last three years. · Dress up as your dream job. Let others guess your job! Part 3: Wish Making Time (20: 00-20: 30) · 3 2025-04-05 09: 06 How do students make a wishing tree in Part 3? 2025-04-05 09: 06 How to make a wishing tree: Write wishes on pieces of paper and put them on the wishing tree. 2025-04-06 13: 15 I made a party plan using your suggestions. 4 Can you improve it? 2025-04-06 13: 16 How to improve the party plan: 1. Sing the class song together and take a photo! This makes the party more fun. 2. Instead of watching a cartoon, make a class photobook together. It’s more meaningful. send a message A. Make a wishing tree with the paper. B. Would you like to come to the party? C. Can you create a simple plan for the party? D. I don’t think it’s fun and meaningful enough. E. You can also turn it into a helper, just like me. 16. ________ 17. ________ 18. ________ 19. ________ 20. Do you think the boy is a good AI user? Why or why not? (不超过15词) ______________________________________________ 第Ⅱ卷 第三部分 语言运用 （共三节，满分40分） 第一节 完型填空（共15小题，每小题1分 满分15分） It was Brenda Taylor’s big day. As a reporter for her school newspaper, she would interview Rashad Fuller today, the star player for the Bluebay ____21____ Team. To Brenda, this meant a lot. She ____22____ to be a professional football player just like Fuller. Brenda’s dad, Dr. Philip Taylor supported her dream but ____23____ allowed her to train after she finished her homework. “Work hard in all areas, and many things are possible,” he often said seriously. At school, Brenda ____24____ the questions for the interview again and again before the big hour came. When she finally saw Fuller, Brenda was ____25____ to find he didn’t look like the exciting player she saw on TV. He seemed serious in a suit. For some reason, he reminded Brenda of her ____26____. Brenda began the interview by asking Fuller how he got started in sports. “My talent showed early,” Fuller continued telling Brenda how he won competitions and became ____27____. “All those wins made me think I’d keep going like that forever. But I hurt my ____28____ in my last year of high school. That was when I met my hero. “____29____ was that?” Brenda was interested. “Dr. Philip Taylor,” Fuller smiled. “My dad?” Brenda ____30____ with her eyes open. “Why was he your hero?” Fuller told Brenda how her father encouraged him to do his best in football after treating his knee. But with four operations on the knee, ____31____ couldn’t play football for long. Then Dr. Taylor advised him to explore more possibilities. “That’s why I started studying ____32____ in the university,” Fuller continued. “When I retire (退役) from football, I want to be a doctor like your father.” “But you are ____33____ enough.” Brenda couldn’t understand. “You don’t have to work.” “It’s not about money,” Fuller said. “I want to ____34____ more with my life. Work hard in all areas, and many things are possible. The words were familiar, ____35____ this time they seemed to become more meaningful to Brenda. She couldn’t wait to tell her new hero about her big day. 21. A. Basketball B. Volleyball C. Football D. Baseball 22. A. planned B. stopped C. refused D. agreed 23. A. even B. only C. almost D. also 24. A. pointed at B. found out C. handed in D. went over 25. A. afraid B. surprised C. glad D. angry 26. A. father B. brother C. cousin D. uncle 27. A. happy B. busy C. famous D. silent 28. A. foot B. hand C. leg D. knee 29. A. Why B. Who C. Where D. How 30. A. warned B. explained C. shouted D. suggested 31. A. I B. you C. he D. she 32. A. geography B. English C. history D. medicine 33. A. brave B. rich C. polite D. important 34. A. discuss B. achieve C. guess D. introduce 35. A. so B. or C. but D. unless 第二节 词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） A. 将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。 partner remain central lively speech deal with Last month, I joined in our school’s English speech competition. At first, I didn’t know how to ____36____ the big stage. Luckily, my best friend Lily came to help me. Because of her, the boring practice turned out to be a ____37____ one. She helped me practice my ____38____ every afternoon, giving tips on body language. When talking on stage, I ____39____ calm and just talked like chatting with friends. Everything went well as planned. When I finished, all the listeners cheered loudly. I won third place! Standing in the ____40____ part of the stage, I felt extremely excited and didn’t feel nervous anymore. I’m so thankful to my best friend and ____41____, Lily. B. 阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。 Quan Hongchan, the young diving star from China, didn’t grow up dreaming of fame. Every day, you’ll find her ____42____ (在……旁边) the training pool, practicing her dives over and over again. Many of her teammates and young fans ____43____ (仰慕) her because she works so hard to get better at diving. Her coach often uses a ____44____ (可移动的) phone to record her training. She knows only hard work can increase her chance to do every move right and turn talent into success. “We need to know ____45____ (确切) how to control her body in the air,” her coach says. At the Tokyo Olympics, she suddenly became a ____46____ (国家) hero. This success came from her hard work. She ____47____ (复习) what she learnt so hard that it finally paid off. She ____48____ (得分) full marks in many dives, shocking the world and winning gold. After the games, many sports fans even visited her team’s official ____49____ (网站) to read more stories about her. For Quan, though ____50____ (广泛) known all over China now, she’s still on the way to achieving more. 第三节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（一个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。 Cave (洞穴) paintings are the oldest pictures. They do not have written words, ____51____ when we look at them, we can still get an idea how the people felt when they drew them. Sometime between 4000 and 3000 BC, people in Egypt and Mesopotamia developed ____52____ skill of writing. They engraved (雕刻) text on stones first. But it was impossible ____53____ (carry) stones from place to place. The invention of papyrus (纸莎草纸) allowed documents to be moved ____54____ (easy). Writing on papyrus made ____55____ easy to correct mistakes, too. People ____56____ (make) the first books from papyrus and from thin animal skins. Paper ____57____ (invent) in China as early as 105 CE. The quality of paper soon became very good. The world’s ____58____ (old) printed book is from China, too. It came out ____59____ May 11, 868 CE. In Europe, books were written manually (人工地) until the middle of the 15th century. For many people, one of life’s greatest ____60____ (pleasure) is spending a few hours in a bookshop looking through the books. 第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分） 61. 假定你是李平，请你对英国朋友Linda的邮件进行回复，词数100左右，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 To: Li Ping@**mail.com Subject: Long time no see! Hi Li Ping, We haven’t been in touch for a year, and I’m sure we’ve both changed. What is the most important change for you this year and why? The biggest change for me is that I’ve fallen in love with Chinese tea. I know Hangzhou is known for Longjing tea. Could you tell me how tea is produced and where I could experience tea making in Hangzhou? Hope to hear from you soon! Linda Dear Linda, ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Ping 2025学年第一学期期中学业水平测试 九年级英语 命题人：闻涛中学九年级英语组 审核人：倪晶、周婷婷 考生须知： 1. 本试卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。 2. 答题前，在答题纸上写学校、班级、姓名和座位号。 3. 必须在答题纸的对应答题位置上答题，写在其他地方无效。务必注意试题序号和答题序号相对应。 第Ⅰ卷 第一部分 听力理解（共三节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What does the man order? A. Tomato soup. B. Beef noodles. C. Cabbage dumplings. 2. Where are the speakers going for their holidays? A. Mount Huang. B. The West Lake. C. Shaolin Temple. 3. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. A friend. B. A holiday. C. A photo. 4. When did John start watching TV? A. 9:10 p.m. B. 9:20 p.m. C. 9:50 p.m. 5. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. At a store. B. At home. C. At a restaurant. 第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段较长对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。 6. What’s the weather like now? A. Sunny. B. Snowy. C. Rainy. 7. How are the speakers going to the mountains? A. By car. B. By bus. C. By train. 听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。 8. How old was Tim when he wrote his first book? A. 10. B. 11. C. 12. 9. Who led Tim into the world of books? A. His teacher. B. His father. C. His mother. 10. What does Tim think of Robinson Crusoe? A. Excellent. B. Great. C. Interesting. 第三节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，独白读两遍。 听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。 11. What is the first thing to do in the speaker’s English learning? A. Take notes. B. Listen to the radio. C. Work with a group. 12. Who can help the speaker with something he doesn’t know? A. His teachers. B. His friends. C. The students in his group. 13. Where does the speaker go to join in the English Corner every Tuesday evening? A. Zhongshan Park. B. The library. C. The school. 14. Why does the speaker often go to the library to read some English books? A. Because he goes there for an English test. B. Because it can help the speaker improve reading skills. C. Because it can help the speaker make progress in spoken English. 15. How many ways of learning English are mentioned in this passage? A. 2. B. 3. C. 4. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. D 3. B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. D 5. A 6. C 7. D C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. B 9. C 10. D 11. A D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. D 13. D 14. B 15. D 第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. E 17. C 18. A 19. D 20. Yes. He uses AI as a helper and constantly asks questions to improve. 第Ⅱ卷 第三部分 语言运用 （共三节，满分40分） 第一节 完型填空（共15小题，每小题1分 满分15分） 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. C 31. C 32. D 33. B 34. B 35. C 第二节 词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） A. 【36~41题答案】 【答案】36. deal with 37. lively 38. speech 39. remained 40. central 41. partner B. 【42~50题答案】 【答案】42. beside 43. admire 44. mobile 45. exactly 46. national 47. reviewed 48. scored 49. website 50. widely 第三节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 【51~60题答案】 【答案】51. but 52. the 53. to carry 54. easily 55. it 56. made 57. was invented 58. oldest 59. on 60. pleasures 第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分） 【61题答案】 【答案】 Dear Linda, I’m so glad to hear from you. It has been a year since we last met. The most important change for me is that I have fallen in love with running. I run every morning because it helps me keep fit and relax. As for tea production, tea leaves are picked by hand and then fried in a big pan. After that, they are dried and packed carefully. If you come to Hangzhou, I suggest you visit the China National Tea Museum. It is a perfect place where you can experience tea making and learn about tea culture. I’m looking forward to your visit. Yours, Li Ping 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $