海南海口景山学校2025-2026学年七年级上学期期中考试英语试题

2025-2026学年度第一学期 海口景山学校期中考试七年级英语科试题 考试时间：90分钟 满分：120分 第一部分 听力部分（共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ. 听句子选图画。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 看图听句子，选出与句子一致的图画。每个句子读一遍。 1. ________ 2. ________ 3. ________ 4. ________ 5. ________ Ⅱ. 情景反应。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 根据你所听到的句子，选出正确的答语，每个句子读两遍。 6. A. 12. B. Skating. C. A teacher. 7. A. Yes, there are. B. Yes, I do. C. Yes, I am. 8. A. On Sunday. B. Everybody. C. It’s difficult. 9. A. About love. B. On a farm. C. A postman. 10. A. Welcome! B. Thanks! C. OK! Ⅲ. 对话理解。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 请听对话，回答以下小题。对话读两遍。 11. How old is Jeff? A. 11 years old. B. 12 years old. C. 13 years old. 12. What is Jeff’s favourite subject? A. Physics. B. Biology. C. Geography. 请听对话，完成以下小题。对话读两遍。 13. What does Tony wear? A. A blue jacket. B. A black coat. C. A blue shirt. 14. What kind of boy is Tony? A. Careful. B. Clever. C. Helpful. 15. What is Tony good at? A. Playing football. B. Playing volleyball. C. Playing basketball. Ⅳ. 短文理解。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 根据你所听到的短文内容，选出最佳选项。短文读两遍。 16. What is Alan’s school like? A. Big. B. New. C. Beautiful. 17. How many floors are there in the teaching building? A. Five. B. Four. C. Three. 18. Where does Alan like doing his homework after school? A. In his classroom. B. In the library. C. At home. 19. What activity does the Students’ Union hold at the school hall every year? A. The dance party. B. The art festival. C. The singing competition. 20. When do students do morning exercises every day? A. After the first class. B. After the second class. C. After the third class. 第二部分 笔试部分（共六大题，满分100分） Ⅴ. 单项选择。（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 选择填空。从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项。 1. —Whose notebook is this, Mary? Is it ________? —Oh, yes, it’s mine. A. yours B. hers C. his 2. My grandpa likes walking ________ the river after dinner. A. across B. along C. through 3. —Good morning, class. Is everyone here? —No, Ms King. Susan is ________ today. A. serious B. absent C. lonely 4. My face turned red and my mouth felt dry ________ I was very nervous. A. because B. or C. so 5. — What is the ________ of the film? — The mother finally finds her son. A. meaning B. result C. ending 6. —________ there any after-school clubs in your school? —Of course. I’m in the art club. A. Is B. Are C. Were 7. —Let’s take a walk after we finish ________. —OK. A. eat B. to eat C. eating 8. A mother’s love is great. It can ________ her child ________ danger (危险). A. help; with B. introduce; to C. protect; from 9. —Dad, I won the boys’ 400m race today. —Really? ________! A. Good idea B. Well done C. Thank you 10. Which question can the poster answer? Qiong Opera Club Fridays 5:30 pm to 6:30 pm Music Room Are you interested in Qiong Opera? Do you want to learn to sing it? Come and join us! A. When do the club members meet? B. Who teaches Qiong Opera at the club? C. How many members does the club have? Ⅵ. 完形填空。（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面的短文，掌握其大意，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 In the first class, Mrs Li asked each kid to introduce themselves. Nana stood up when it was her turn. She was ____11____ nervous and couldn’t say one word. She hung (使下垂) her head and kept ____12____. Seeing that, Mrs Li asked, “Can you draw?” Nana ____13____ Mrs Li and nodded. “Then how about ____14____ a picture of yourself on the blackboard?” Mrs Li asked with a smile. Nana’s eyes met Mrs Li’s, ____15____ suddenly Nana didn’t feel nervous any more. She walked to the ____16____ and started to draw with chalk (粉笔). Then a nice ____17____ appeared on the blackboard. “Wow! It just looks like her,” many kids said. “____18____!” Mrs Li said. “Thank you!” Hearing those words, Nana felt happy and she began to ____19____ herself. She said, “Hi everybody. Nice to meet you. I’m Nana and I’m 13. My ____20____ is drawing and I’d love to share the joy of drawing with you. Thank you.” 11. A. almost B. also C. really 12. A. silent B. strict C. awake 13. A. looked out for B. looked up at C. looked around for 14. A. taking B. drawing C. showing 15. A. and B. or C. but 16. A. art room B. stage C. blackboard 17. A. map B. picture C. sentence 18. A. Sorry B. Great C. Sure 19. A. enjoy B. serve C. introduce 20. A. hobby B. task C. advice Ⅶ. 阅读理解。（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文材料，根据材料内容，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Have fun at Shanghai University! Shanghai University is many people’s dream university. Do you want to study at it in the future too? Why not visit it for yourself? Activities 9:00 am-10:30 am Learn about the history of the university in its museum (博物馆) 11:00 am-12:00 pm Learn about computer science 12:00 pm-1:00 pm Have lunch in the dining hall 1:30 pm-3:00 pm Learn science from Mr Lee and ask him some questions 3:30 pm-5:00 pm Visit the library Things to know All 7th-graders are welcome. Meet at 8:00 am at our school gate next Monday and take the bus to the university together. Sign up (报名) for the activity at Office 602 before 5:00 pm this Friday. 21. Where will the visitors learn about the history of the university? A. In a classroom. B. In its museum. C. In the library. 22. They will ________ from 11:00 am to 12:00 pm. A. have lunch B. talk with Mr Lee C. learn about computer science 23. They will stay at the library for ________ hour (s). A. 1 B. 1.5 C. 2 24. Who can take part in the activity? A. 7th-graders. B. 8th-graders. C. 9th-graders. 25. Which of the following is TRUE? A. The activity is on Friday. B. They will meet at 9 in the morning. C. They will take the bus to the university. B 2024年，国家主席习近平授予巴依卡·凯力迪别克“人民卫士”国家荣誉称号。 72-year-old Bayika Kalidibek lives in Xinjiang. In 1972, he took over his father’s position as a border patrolman (护边员)． It’s not easy being a border patrolman. The border area has high mountains and rough roads. Bayika has go hurt (受伤) many times during patrols, but he still loves his job. He said, “Protecting the border is everyone’s job, not just the country’s.” In 2004, his son Laqini started to work as a border patrolman too. Sadly, he lost his life when saving a boy from a cold river in 2021. He was only 41 at that time. “I’m really sad, but I’m proud (自豪的) of him,” Bayika said. “Our family has protected the border for more than 70 years. We will pass down our family’s tradition from one generation (一代人) to the next.” The stories of Bayika and his family are really touching! Let’s learn from them. 26. Bayika began to work as a border patrolman in ________. A. 1972 B. 2004 C. 2021 27. What is the Chinese meaning of the underlined word “rough”? A. 宽阔的 B. 拥堵的 C. 崎岖的 28. Paragraph 2 is mainly about Bayika’s ________. A. family B. job C. hobby 29. Bayika’s son lost his life ________. A. during a patrol B. when saving a boy C. when swimming in a river 30. Which is the best title for the passage? A. The proud family protect the border B. A happy family from Xinjiang C. What’s it like to be a border patrolman? C Rob knows many things, but he doesn’t know how to make friends. He thinks it’s hard. Michael comes to ask Rob, “Can you help me make a cake? My mum’s birthday is coming.” “I’m busy. Why not buy a cake?” Rob says and keeps reading. Shelly comes to ask Rob, “Can you help me with my Chinese? It’s so difficult.” “I’m busy. Why not read your Chinese book again?” Rob says. Three other children come for help too, but Rob doesn’t help anyone. Rob doesn’t have good friends. He has to think about how to make friends. He asks his mother about it. “Help others in need, and you can find the way,” Mum says. Rob starts to help all the children in need, but he still has no idea about how to make friends. Oh! Those children Rob helps come to ask him to play football with them. They all have fun. Rob now has many friends. And he knows how to make friends. 31. Michael wants to make a cake for his ________. A. mother B. brother C. father 32. ________ children ask Rob for help, but he doesn’t help them. A. Two B. Three C. Five 33. Rob has fun ________ with some children. A. reading books B. speaking Chinese C. playing football 34. What is the story about? A. What to do with friends. B. How to make friends. C. Where to have fun. 35. From the story, we learn ________. A. children need to play sports B. friends need to help each other C. parents can find the way to help others Ⅷ. 补全短文。（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 根据短文内容从下面选出能填入空白处的最佳选项（其中有一项为多余选项）。 A family tree is a way of showing the people in your family. Do you want to make your family tree? ____36____. First, learn more about your family. ____37____ Or you can look at some old photos with them to learn about the stories behind them. You can buy a notebook. And then write down some important information about your family in it. ____38____ Be careful not to make a mistake. Next, find something important to make your family tree. ____39____. Lastly, draw a family tree. ____40____ On the left of the paper, you can write the names of your father’s parents. On the right, you can write the names of your mother’s parents. A. A family tree is big too. B. You can start with your grandparents. C. Now let me tell you how to make one. D. Spend some time talking with your family. E. It is important to write down their names, ages and jobs. F. You may need a pencil, a ruler, a pen, an eraser and paper. Ⅸ. 任务型读写。（共8小题；61至65小题每题1分，66、67小题每题2分，68小题6分，满分15分） 阅读下列短文，根据短文内容按要求完成任务。 Do you love to eat bread? Can you make bread? Children at Nova Middle School in Florida, America learn to make bread at school. First, the children find a kind of bread they want to make. Then, their maths teacher tells them what they need. “To make 1 kg of this kind of bread, we need 2 eggs and 240 ml of water, about this much,” the teacher says. In the cooking lesson, there are two cooks. They show the children how to use yeast (酵母). After that, a cook tells them the reason for using yeast. A kid named Ella learned about fermentation (发酵) from making bread. She says, “Learning by doing is great. It teaches us a lot. All my classmates love the cooking class.” Cook Richard thinks cooking is useful (有用的) for children. He says, “It teaches them not only maths and science, but also a life skill (技能).” Task Ⅰ: Finish the chart according to the article. Fill in each blank with no more than 3 words. 41. ________ 42. ________ 43. ________ 44. ________ 45. ________ Task Ⅱ: Answer the following questions. 46. Where is Nova Middle School? __________________________________________________________________________________________ 47. How many cooks are there in the cooking lesson? __________________________________________________________________________________________ 48. Can you cook? What do you think of cooking? (Write about 20 words.) ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Ⅹ. 书面表达。（满分20分） 49. 假如你是李华，是一名时间管理达人，善于合理规划时间。你已经为自己制定了一份详细的课后活动时间表。请你根据表格中的信息，写一篇英文发言稿，在本周的英语口语活动上向同学们介绍你的具体安排。 My after-school timetable pm Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Swimming （5:00-6:00） Erhu club （4:00-6:00） English films （7:00-9:00） Swimming （5:00-6:00） English films （7:00-9:00） 要求： （1）包括所给提示信息，可适当拓展； （2）条理清楚，意思连贯，语句通顺，语法正确； （3）60~70词（发言稿的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数）。 参考词汇：keep fit 保持健康，make friends 交朋友，make good use of 充分利用 Hello everyone, Today I’m happy to share with you my after-school timetable. _______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ That’s all. Thank you! 2025-2026学年度第一学期 海口景山学校期中考试七年级英语科试题 考试时间：90分钟 满分：120分 第一部分 听力部分（共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ. 听句子选图画。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 看图听句子，选出与句子一致的图画。每个句子读一遍。 1. ________ 2. ________ 3. ________ 4. ________ 5. ________ Ⅱ. 情景反应。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 根据你所听到的句子，选出正确的答语，每个句子读两遍。 6. A. 12. B. Skating. C. A teacher. 7. A. Yes, there are. B. Yes, I do. C. Yes, I am. 8. A. On Sunday. B. Everybody. C. It’s difficult. 9. A. About love. B. On a farm. C. A postman. 10. A. Welcome! B. Thanks! C. OK! Ⅲ. 对话理解。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 请听对话，回答以下小题。对话读两遍。 11. How old is Jeff? A. 11 years old. B. 12 years old. C. 13 years old. 12. What is Jeff’s favourite subject? A. Physics. B. Biology. C. Geography. 请听对话，完成以下小题。对话读两遍。 13. What does Tony wear? A. A blue jacket. B. A black coat. C. A blue shirt. 14. What kind of boy is Tony? A. Careful. B. Clever. C. Helpful. 15. What is Tony good at? A. Playing football. B. Playing volleyball. C. Playing basketball. Ⅳ. 短文理解。（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 根据你所听到的短文内容，选出最佳选项。短文读两遍。 16. What is Alan’s school like? A. Big. B. New. C. Beautiful. 17. How many floors are there in the teaching building? A. Five. B. Four. C. Three. 18. Where does Alan like doing his homework after school? A. In his classroom. B. In the library. C. At home. 19. What activity does the Students’ Union hold at the school hall every year? A. The dance party. B. The art festival. C. The singing competition. 20. When do students do morning exercises every day? A. After the first class. B. After the second class. C. After the third class. 第二部分 笔试部分（共六大题，满分100分） Ⅴ. 单项选择。（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 选择填空。从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项。 【1题答案】 【答案】A 【2题答案】 【答案】B 【3题答案】 【答案】B 【4题答案】 【答案】A 【5题答案】 【答案】C 【6题答案】 【答案】B 【7题答案】 【答案】C 【8题答案】 【答案】C 【9题答案】 【答案】B 【10题答案】 【答案】A Ⅵ. 完形填空。（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【11~20题答案】 【答案】11. C 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. A Ⅶ. 阅读理解。（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文材料，根据材料内容，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【21~25题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. C B 【26~30题答案】 【答案】26. A 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. A C 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. A 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. B Ⅷ. 补全短文。（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. C 37. D 38. E 39. F 40. B Ⅸ. 任务型读写。（共8小题；61至65小题每题1分，66、67小题每题2分，68小题6分，满分15分） 【41~48题答案】 【答案】41. make 42. maths 43. reason 44. a life skill 45. useful 46. It is in Florida, America. 47. Two. 48. Yes, I can. I think cooking is fun. It helps me learn skills and make tasty food for my family.（答案不唯一） Ⅹ. 书面表达。（满分20分） 【49题答案】 【答案】 参考范文 Hello everyone, Today I’m happy to share with you my after-school timetable. On Monday and Thursday, I go swimming from 5:00 pm to 6:00 pm to keep fit. On Tuesday, I join the Erhu club from 4:00 pm to 6:00 pm, where I can make friends. On Wednesday and Friday, watching English films from 7:00 pm to 9:00 pm is my favorite. I hope all of us can make good use of our time. That’s all. Thank you! 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $