学易金卷：九年级英语上学期9月学情自测卷【测试范围： Unit 1～Unit 4】（新教材鲁教版五四制）

: : 2026-2027学年九年级上学期9月学情自测卷（新教材鲁教版五四制） 英语 .: (考试时间：120分钟试卷满分：150分) .: .: 注意事项： : 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。 如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5黑色签字 : 笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.测试范围：九年级全册Unit 1~Unit4(新教材鲁教版)。 4.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 % 第一部分听力（共四节，满分30分） ·: 第一节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1.A.What class are you in?B.How old are you? C.Who's your class teacher? 2.A.This is my new friend.B.He is my brother. C.That's my grandfather. : O 3.A.Do you play the piano?B.Are they potato plants?C.May I have your name? 4.A.I don't see the keys. B.I can't find the cap. C.I'm not in Grade 8. 5.A.He isn't leaving for London.B.We shouldn't eat in class.C.She didn't stay up late. 第二节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 斟 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的 : 正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 : 6.When was Linda born? .: A.On April 1st. B.On June 1st. C.On July 1st 7.What's on the table? : A.Some tomatoes. B.Some apples. C.Some pears. 8.Who is the girl in the photo? .: 区 A.Jack's cousin. B.Gina's cousin. C.Kate's sister : 9.Who supports the girl? A.Her parents. B.Her teachers. C.Her classmates. : : 10.How often should Laura water the plants? A.Twice a day. B.Twice a week. C.Once a day. : 试题第1页（共12页) .: 可学科网·学易金卷做好德：就限彩是鲁普 第三节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确 答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11.What does Will's father look like? A.Tall. B.Short. C.Thin 12.Who's this woman with the pink hat? A.Will's grandmother.B.Will's mother. C.Will's sister. 13.What is Will's mother's job? A.Ateacher. B.A doctor. C.A driver. 14.What does Will's grandpa often do? A.He helps other people.B.He tells funny stories. C.He cooks delicious food. 15.What is Will's sister like? A.Quiet and shy. B.Lovely and clever. C.Friendly and helpful. 第四节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答 案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16.Where did the story happen? A.In ancient China. B.In ancient Egypt. C.In ancient Greece 17.What was the crown made of? A.Gold. B.Silver. C.We don't know. 18.When did Archimedes get the idea to solve the problem? A.While he was having lunch. B.While he was taking a bath C.While he was reading books. 19.What displaced more water? A.The crown. B.Some gold of the same weight.C.The pots and the bowls 20.Who was sent to prison? A.Archimedes. B.King Hiero. C.The crown maker. 第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节阅读理解（共20个小题：每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 试题第2页（共12页) 列学科网·学易金卷做概费：限彩是鲁潜 Have you ever imagined living on Mars?Many scientists believe that it could happen in the next 50 years. Let's take a look at what life might be like there. First,the houses on Mars would be very different from those on Earth.They would need to be strong enough to protect people from the dangerous radiation (and extreme temperatures.Most houses would be built under the ground or inside large domes (with air systems to keep the air clean and warm. Second,food would also be a big challenge.Farmers would grow vegetables in special greenhouses where they can control the light and water.People might also eat a lot of protein bars made from insects,because raising animals would take too much space and resources. Transportation on Mars would be mainly by rovers (or flying cars.Since Mars has weaker gravity than Earth,people could jump much higher and even fly with special suits. However,living on Mars wouldn't be easy.People would have to learn to live without many things we take for granted,like fresh water and large open spaces.But many people think that the adventure and the chance to start a new life would be worth it. 21.What is the main idea of the text? A.How to build houses on Mars. B.What life might be like on Mars. C.Why people want to live on Mars. D.The challenges of living on Earth. 22.Why would houses on Mars be built under the ground or in domes? A.To save space. B.To protect people from bad conditions. C.To make them look more beautiful. D.To keep away from insects. 23.What would people probably eat on Mars? A.Fresh vegetables from outside. B.Meat from animals. C.Protein bars made from insects. D.Traditional Earth food. 24.Which of the following is TRUE about transportation on Mars? A.People can't jump high there. B.Rovers and flying cars are common. C.Gravity is stronger than on Earth. D.People don't need special suits. 25.What do many people think of living on Mars? A.It's impossible to achieve. B.It's not worth the trouble. C.It's an exciting and valuable adventure.D.It's just a dream with no real meaning. 夕 On Earth,we use bricks (to build houses,but what about building things on the moon?We use "lunar bricks",of course!Scientists at Huazhong University of Science and Technology (HUST)have developed "lunar bricks".They hope to use the bricks to build a research station on the moon. 试题第3页（共12页） To make the bricks,the scientists used a lunar soil simulant )The bricks are more than three O times stronger than normal red bricks.They also have special structures,which were used in ancient Chinese buildings.This makes it possible to simply put these bricks together. Professor Zhou Cheng from HUST said that they had tested five different kinds of simulated lunar soil composition (and used three ways to harden them.In this way they could choose the best materials for & making the bricks."Lunar soil isn't the same everywhere on the moon,"Zhou said."For example,one of the kinds tested simulates the lunar soil at the landing site of Chang'e-5,which is mainly basalt (). The lunar bricks need to be tested well before being used because the moon has an extreme ( environment.Quakes often happen there.And it gets as hot as 180 C during the day and as cold as-190C at 张 night.The lunar bricks have been sent to China's space station on the"Tianzhou-8 spacecraft.There,scientists carried out tests to see how well the bricks work in space.The first bricks returned to Earth on November 14th, 2025. 游 游 26.Which properly shows the strength comparison of lunar bricks and red bricks? 游 A. B uans D. .... O lunar bricks red bricks lunar bricks red bricks lunar bricks red bricks lunar bricks red bricks 27.How did scientists find the best materials for making lunar bricks? A.They learned about lunar soil from scientific reports. B.They compared different bricks used widely nowadays. C.They read many books about ancient Chinese buildings. : D.They did many tests on simulated lunar soil and treated it in different ways. 28.What is the main idea of the fourth paragraph? 些 .: A.The introduction of China's "Tianzhou-8"spacecraft. O O B.The reasons why lunar bricks need to be tested in space. C.The temperature difference on the moon between day and night. D.The time when the first lunar bricks returned to Earth. 29.Which of the following best explains the purpose of developing"lunar bricks"according to Paragraph 1? : A.To study the composition of lunar soil. B.To build a research station on the moon. C.To test the technology of making bricks in space. D.To improve the strength of normal red bricks. 试题第4页（共12页) 30.What is most probably the structure of the passage? 1 2 2 O 3 : : C When I was a teenager,my parents were never interested in the music I preferred.They said to me,"David, the music you like listening to is a lot of noise."At the same time,my father described the music that he liked as .: beautiful.As it turns out,they are not alone.As I grow older,I've often heard people of my age say,"Today's music is terrible."Many older people just don't like new music.But why is that? n The mere exposure effect(纯粹接触效应)may explain this.It means the more familiar we are with % something,the more likely we are to prefer it.When we are in our early teens,we usually spend a lot of time .: listening to popular music and discussing it with our friends.The new songs and singers during this time become .: familiar to us.After we turn 30 years old,we are busy working and raising our families.We don't have so much : time to look for new music.Instead,we prefer to listen to our old favourites.According to studies,by the time we turn 33 years old,most of us will completely stop exploring new music. O But I think there is another reason for older people's dislike of new music.Most new music,after all,is not written for them.It is made for young people.Some types of music began as a rebellion by young people against out-of-date ways of doing things.These types include punk,rap,hip-hop,heavy metal and more.They naturally 怒 interest younger listeners. Do your parents dislike the music you like too?Now,after reading this article,you know there is nothing wrong with that. 31.Which of the following charts correctly shows "the mere exposure effect"?(Preference:,Level of O familiarity: 熟悉度) Preference Preference Preference : : .: B C D Level offamiliarity Level of familiarity Level of familiarity Level of familiarity .: 32.Why do many older people dislike new music? DBecause the new music sounds terrible. 2Because they are afraid of noise. 3Because most new music is not written for them. O O : : 试题第5页（共12页） 可学科网·学易金卷做怒“：想景是” 4Because they are not familiar with the new music. A.①② B.②③ C.③④ D.②④ 33.Which word is closest in meaning to the underlined word "rebellion"in Paragraph 3? A.Purpose. B.Sense. C.Praise. D.Disagreement. 34.What can we infer from the last paragraph? A.New music will become more popular with older people. B.Older people will try to listen to different kinds of new music. C.People will know it's normal that older people dislike new music. D.More beautiful and simple songs will be written for older people. 35.What can be the best title for the passage? A.Why don't Your Parents Like the Music You Like? B.What's the Real Meaning of the Mere Exposure Effect? C.When do Most Young People Stop Exploring New Music? D.How do Young People Like Different Types of New Music? D Chengdu,a city in Southwest China's Sichuan Province,is the first in Chinese mainland to host the World Games (TWG).This big sports event for non-Olympic sports was held from August 7 to August 17.Recently,the torch for The World Games 2025 Chengdu was shown to the public.It's named "Zhumeng",which means "Bamboo Dream"in Chinese and sounds likechasing dreams".This is the first-ever torch in TWG's history. The torch's design is inspired by the Grand Bronze Standing Figure from the Sanxingdui Ruins in Sichuan. The Grand Bronze Standing Figure is a famous relic from the Sanxingdui civilization ()one of China's oldest cultures.Using this figure in the torch design shows wisdom of Chinese culture's unity in diversity.The torch looks like both a tall figure and a proud bamboo shoot.In China,bamboo stands for modesty (and strength.It is ideal for representing sports because it shows unity,hard work,and health. As home to giant pandas,Sichuan has lots of bamboo forests,the favorite food of pandas.The top of the torch is shaped like a young bamboo shoot with two buds (stretching out.This symbolizes an open and friendly China welcoming the world.The whole torch looks like a strong bamboo stalk,showing the sports spirit of unity and trying hard. The torch's nozzle (is like the Sun-shaped Crown worn by the Bronze Standing Figure found at the Jinsha Site in Chengdu.It shows Chengdu's deep culture and gives athletes endless energy,like the sun.It also symbolizes their spirit of wanting to do their best. At the bottom of the torch,a phoenix-shaped bird holds it up.This reminds us of an old saying,"When a 试题第6页（共12页） 列学科网·学易金卷做概费：就限是鲁潜 holy bird flies and sings,peace is in the world."It shows China's rich culture and our hope for world peace. 36.How long did the World Games 2025 Chengdu last A.5 days B.10 days C.11 days D.15 days 37.Which of the following is NOT true about the TWG 2025? A.It's a chance to show the culture of Chengdu. B.Chengdu is the second city in China to host it. C.It's for non-Olympic sports D.The torch is named"Zhumeng''. 38.In Chinese culture,what does bamboo represent? A.Modesty and strength B.Wealth and treasure. C.Hope and courage. D.Knowledge and wisdom. 39.Why is the phoenix-shaped bird used at the bottom of the torch? A.To honor Sichuan's bamboo forests B.To show the spirit of hard work C.To remind people of ancient sports D.To represent hope for world peace 40.What is the author's purpose in describing the torch's design A.To educate readers about the history of TWG. B.To discuss the importance of bamboo in China. C.To show Chinese culture through the torch's design. D.To compare different torch designs. 第二节阅读七选五（共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选 项。 The Wooden Drum Festival is an important event for the Wa people in Yunnan.It is named after the wooden drum,a special musical instrument.41 The wooden drums are the most important part of the festival They are not just musical instruments but also carry deep cultural meanings.The Wa people believe the drums connect them with their ancestors and nature. 42 They are about 0.8 meters wide and 2 meters long. 43 They dance in a circle,moving to the strong beat of the drums to express their wishes for a happy life and good luck.When dancing,they sing songs which are about the Wa people's history and daily life. 44 It also helps keep their culture alive.Besides dancing,there are also sports games and traditional opera shows. The Wa people mainly live in two areas in Yunnan:Ximeng Wa Autonomous County (and 试题第7页（共12页） Cangyuan Wa Autonomous County.The festival usually lasts three days.In the past,the Wa people celebrated the O festival in the"Grey Month"of the Wa calendar.45.This change allows more people to learn about the Wa culture. The Wooden Drum Festival brings all the Wa people together.It also offers visitors a great chance to learn ab out their culture A.So the dance is not just for fun. B.The drums are usually made ofred wood. C.Many Wa people play the wooden drum at the festival. D.The festival shows their history,traditions,and rich culture. 张 : E.It is a good opportunity for young people to make new friends. F.People come together around the drum house during the festival. G.But since 2002,they have changed the date to April 10th to 12th. 游 第三部分语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 游 第一节补全对话（共5个小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 A:What are you listening to,Alex? O B:Hey,Dave!I'm listening to a band called "The Toms".46 A:No,I haven't.Are they a new band? B:Yes,they only started singing earlier this year.47. A:Wow,they must be really popular.48 B:They are from California in the United States.There are five people in the band and they are all teenage boys. : 1 49 B:Yes,but it sounds more like rock.I like their music because it's loud and full of energy.I feel excited when I listen to it. A:50 I think if I listen to their music every morning,it will make me happy for the rest of the day! 46.A.Do you like them? B.Have you heard of them? C.What do you think of them? D.Where did you buy it? 1 : 47.A.But no one has known them. B.But I like them very much. C.But they've already made two CDs. D.But they are really good at dancing. 48.A.Where are they from? B.What do they want to do? C.Who is their teacher? D.What's your favorite band? : 49.A.I think they are playing rock music,right? B.I guess what they're playing is pop music,right? 试题第8页（共12页） : C.Do you like playing rock music? D.Why not listen to it with me? 50.A.No way. B.No problem. O : C.Me,too D.Me,neither : 第二节完形填空（共15个小题：每小题1分，满分15分） : 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Drones (were invented in recent years.They are very helpful to us.They can do a lot of things for us. They can 5l_photos,.deliver(递送)things from packages(包裹)to pizzas and follow wild animals.But they have many 52 uses now. : : Can you believe it?Drones can serve people coffee.This kind of drone was made by US company IBM.It can deliver 53 to sleepy people.The drone can know when to bring a cup of coffee by studying a : person's 54 information.Then,the drone will fly to the person.There is a 55 device(设备) under the drone.It helps the drone to give coffee.The drone can also learn 56 someone's : coffee-drinking habits,and tell when someone needs next 57 of coffee. F Drones can also save lives.One company in Africa uses drones to deliver medicine and blood fast and 58 many people's lives.The drones are able to fly at 59 of up to 60 mph.When they are within a minute of the destination(目的地)，the doctors will get a message and60 for them nearby.The drone O drops off the package 61 then returns to its home. : A92-year-old hunter(猎手)in Virginia was 62 and had to spend a night in the woods.The 63 searched for him all night but failed to find him.It is 64 that the drone found him in only 20 minutes.Also,drones helped firefighters know better about the 65 in wildfire fighting 斟 51.A.take B.remain C.list D.lock 52.A.all B.both C.other D.nor 53.A.biscuit B.cookie C.salt D.coffee 54.A.accidental B.personal C.professional D.educational : 55.A.musical B.daily C.special D.local : 56.A.about B.off C.onto D.under .: 57.A.style B.trade C.smell D.cup 58.A.develop B.save C.solve D.improve 59.A.heels B.patterns C.speeds D.bells 60.A.wait B.heat C.spread D.treat : : 61.A.if B.but C.so D.and 62.A.1ow B.lost C.hungry D.blind : 试题第9页（共12页） : : .: @学科网·学易金卷做概意：就限蒙是 63.A.hero B.customer C.police D.saint 64.A.lucky B.private C.local D.proud 65.A.electricity B.situation C.pioneer D.Earthquake 第三节阅读填空（共10个小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Good moming,every one! Today,I'd like to talk about my favourite sports event.Actually,when I used the word "event"',I meant two events:the 2008 Summer Olympics and the 2022 Winter Olympics.They 66. (hold)in Beijing-the first city ever to host both the Summer and the Winter Olympics. The most recent was the 2022 Winter Olympics.A total of nearly 2,900 67. (athlete)attended and competed in 109 events in seven Olympic winter sports.There were many exciting moments.Nearly the whole world watched the fantastic figure skating and ski jumping competitions.I watched the freestyle skiing,and like everyone else,I fell in love with those brave and 68. (talent)athletes.I also became 69. huge fan of the mascot,Bing DwenDwen. And we shall not forget the amazing achievements in the 2008 Summer Olympics.I watched 70. wonder as Usain Bolt smiled his way across the finish line in the 100 metres,setting a new world record.Then I watched the drama of the shooting event.Du Li won her second Olympic gold medal,after the first one in 2004.Both 71. (be)dramatic come-from-behind victories. Hosting two Olympics brought challenges but also opportunities to Beijing.Both Games showed China's success in 72.(it)reform and opening-up on the world stage.China's great achievements have gained worldwide attention.In both events,many volunteers and citizens helped out.They worked with pride 73. (make)sure that people from around the world had a pleasant stay. Events like the Olympic Games build bridges between countries and form friendships between people.The purpose of the Olympics is to build relationships between people,to celebrate the Olympic spirit,and to bring people together for peace and harmony.This is shown in the motto of the 2008 Olympics,"One World,One Dream",74. the motto of the 2022 Olympics,"Together for a Shared Future".These mottos touch my heart quite 75. (deep)as I'm sure they touch yours 第四部分写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76.A:What's the matter with you,Tom? 试题第10页（共12页） 西学科网·学易金卷做祝税：限景是” B: 77.A:How was the weather yesterday? B: So,I played with joy in the rain. 78.A: B:It must be Lily's.She really loves sports. 79.A:What is your brother's favourite subject? B: 80.A: B:Yes.I have.I went there last year. Gg 试题第11页（共12页） 第二节写作(25分) :::::0 81.体育运动始终伴随着我们的成长。体育精神激励着我们，指引着我们，让我们坚持不懈。请你 以The Spirit of Sports”"为题，写一篇80-l00词的英语短文。内容包括：1)你对体育精神的理解；(2)你参与 的一次体育活动，以及你在活动中遇到的困难与挑战：（③）你的感悟。 The Spirit of Sports 年 张 河 游 0司 0 性 试题第12页（共12页）■口口口 2026-2027学年九年级上学期9月学情自测卷（新教材鲁教版五四制) 英语答题卡 准 考 证 学校 班级 姓名 座位号 [o] [o] [0] [o] [o] [o] [o] [o] [o] 1.答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚，并填涂相应的 e 填 正确填涂 考号信息点。 [3] [3] [3] [3 [3] [4] [4] [41 注意 2.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂：解答题必须使用黑色的签字笔书写 团A 团A 错误填涂 事项 不得用铅笔或圆珠笔作解答题：字体工整、笔迹清楚。 [6] $% 3请按照题号顺序在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写 [71 Es E 的答题无效：在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。 [8] [ [ [91 9 91 91 4保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破。 监考员填涂缺考 [] 选择题 选择题（1-20每小题1.5分，21-45每小题2分，46-65每小题1分。) [A][B] [c][D] [A][B][C][D] 11 [A][B] [c][D] 16 [A][B][C][D] 2 [A] [B] [c] [D] 7 [A][B][C][D] 12 [A] [B] [c] [D] 17 [A] [B][c][D] [A] [B] [c] [D] 8 [A][B] [c][D] 13 [A] [B] [c] [D] 18 [A] [B][c] [D] [A] [B] [c] [D] 9 [A][B][C][D] [A][B] [c] [D] 19 [A] [B][C][D] [A][B][C][D] 10 [A][B][C][D] 分 [A][B][C] [D] 20 [A][B][c][D] 21 [A] [B] [c] [D] 26 [A] [B] [c] [D] 31 [A][B][C] [D] 36 [A][B][C][D] 22 [A] [B] [c] [D] 1 [A] [B] [c] [D] [A] [B] [c] [pi [A] [B][C] [D] 23 [A] [B][C] [D] [A] [B] [c] [D] [A] [B] [c] 38 [A][B][C][D] [A] [B] [c] [D] 29 [A][B] [c] [D] 34 [A] [B][c] [D] 39 [A][B][c][D] 25 [A][B][C] [D] 30 [A][B][C][D] 35 [A] [B][C] [D] 40 [A][B][c][D] 41A][B][C][D][E][F][G] 46 [A][B][C] [D] [A][B][C][D] 42[A][B][C][D][B] [F][G] 47 [A][B] [c] [D] 52 CA][B][C][D] 43[A][B][C][D][B][F][G] 48 [A][B][C] [D] 5 [A] [B][c][D] 44[A][B][C][D][E][F][G] 49 [A][B][C] [D] [A][B][C][D] 45[A][B][C][D][E][F][G] 50 [A][B][C][D] 55 [A][B][C][D] 56 [A][B][C][D] 61 [A][B][C][D] 57 [A][B][c] [D] [A] [B][c] [D] 58 [A][B][C] [D] 63 [A][B][C] [D] 59 [A][B][C][D] 64 [A][B][C] [D] 60 [A][B][C][D] 65 [A][B][C][D] 非选择题 六、阅读填空(15分) 66 67. 68 69 70 71 72. 73 74 75. 七、书面表达(35分) 第一部分情景运用(10分) 76 77. 78. 79. 80 第二部分作文(25分)听力考试正式开始。What class are you in? Listen to the next question. This is my new friend. Listen to the next . question. Are the potato plans? Listen to the next question. I can't find the cap. Listen to the next . question. We shouldn't eat in class. Listen to the next question . when birthday, lana. I was born on children's s day. When is your birthday? Linda. I was born on children's day. Listen to the next question. Look, what are they where over there on the table? Oh, some tomatoes. Look, what are they where over there . on the table? Oh, some tomatoes. Listen to the next question. Good morning, jack. Morning a is the . girl in the photo your sister? No, he is my cousin kate. Good morning, jack. Good morning. Now is the . girl in the photo your sister? No, he is my cousin kate. Listen to the next question. what do your parents think of your collection? Some of my classmates think it's strange, but my parents support me. Listen to the next question, Laura. Don't forget to water the plants. They will be date if you do not water them twice a day. Okay, dad, I won't forget. Listen to the next question. Hi, well, what's this is . a photo of my family? Look, this is my father. He is talent strong. He is a doctor. He is very friendly and always helps other people. Who's this woman with a pink hat? You mean the beautiful woman? He is my mother. He teaches chinese in the middle school. Her students love her very much. Are these your grandparents? Yes, they are. My grandpa often tells us funny stories. My grandma cooks delicious food for us. W and who is this cute girl? Is my sister . SHE is very lovely and clever. He likes singing and dancing. We love . each other. What a warm family. Hi, well, what's this is . a photo of my family? Look, this is my father. He is tall and strong. He is a doctor. He is very friendly and always helps . other people. Who's this woman with a pink hat? You mean the beautiful woman? He is my mother. He teaches chinese in the middle school. Her students love her very much. Are these your grandparents? Yes, they are. My grandpa often tells us funny stories. My granda cooks delicious food for us. And who is this cute girl? Is my sister. He is very lovely and clever. SHE likes singing and dancing. We love each other. What a warm family. Listen to the next question. One day in ancient greece, king hero asked the crowd maker to make a golden crown. At first, he was very happy with IT. Later, however, he began to doubt that he was a real golden trial. He sent the crown to our committees and asked him to find out the truth. Our committees were still thinking about this problem as he filled his bath with water. When he got into the bath, some water ran over that IT shelter. Dart committees, I know how to solve the king's problem. Archemedian went straight to the palace to see the king. First, he weight the crown and asked the king for some gold of the same weight. Next, he put two parts into two big bowls and filled both parts with water. He puts the gold into one pot, and some water ran into the bowl. Then he put the crown into the of a pot. This time, even more water ran into the boat. Look at this set up comedy to king hero. This crown displaced more water than gold of the same weight. So i'm certain that it's not completely made of gold. Then king hero sent the crowd maker to prison. One day in ancient greece, king hero asked the crowd maker to make a golden crowd. At first, he was very happy with IT. Later, however, he began to a doubt that he was a real golden crown. He sent the crown to our committees and asked him to find out the truth. Our committees were still thinking about this problem as he filled his bath with water. When he got into the bath, some water ran over that IT shelter. Our committees, I know how to solve the king's problem. Archemedian went straight to the palace to see the king. First, he waited the crown and asked the king for some gold of the same weight. Next, he put two pots into two big bowls and filled both parts with water. He puts the gold into one pot, and some water ran into the bowl. Then he put the crown into the other pot. This time, even more water ran into the boat. Look at this, said our communities to king hero. This crown displaced more water than gold of the same weight. So i'm certain that is not completely made of gold. Then king hero sent the crown maker to prison. 听力部分到此结束。 2026-2027学年九年级上学期9月学情自测卷（新教材鲁教版五四制） 英语·参考答案 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 1．A 2．A 3．B 4．B 5．B 6．B 7．A 8．A 9．A 10．A 11．A 12．B 13．A 14．B 15．B 16．C 17．C 18．B 19．A 20．C 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20个小题：每小题2分，满分40分） 21．B 22．B 23．C 24．B 25．C 26．D 27．D 28．B 29．B 30．D 31．A 32．C 33．D 34．C 35．A 36．C 37．B 38．A 39．D 40．C 第二节 阅读七选五（共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 41．D 42．B 43．F 44．A 45．G 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5个小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 46.B 47.C 48.A 49.B 50.C 第二节 完形填空（共15个小题：每小题1分，满分15分） 51．A 52．C 53．D 54．B 55．C 56．A 57．D 58．B 59．C 60．A 61．D 62．B 63．C 64．A 65．B 第三节 阅读填空（共10个小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分） 66. were held 67. athletes 68. talented 69. a 70. in 71. were 72. its 73. to make 74. and 75. deeply 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 【参考答案】 76．I have a stomachache 77．It was rainy 78．Whose football is it 79．His favourite subject is geography 80．Have you ever been to the Great Wall 第二节 写作（25分） 【参考范文】 The Spirit of Sports In my view, the spirit of sports is all about keeping trying and respecting others. It helps us overcome difficulties and grow stronger. Last month, I took part in a badminton match. At first, I was confident. However, the other player played much better. I was so upset that I even thought about giving up. But I remembered the spirit of sports. I pulled myself together, focused on each shot, and managed to finish the game. Although I lost, I was proud of myself. This experience taught me sports spirit always lights up our way. 答案第2页，共2页 ( 1 / 2 ) 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $■口口口 2026-2027学年九年级上学期9月学情自测卷（新教材鲁教版五四制） 英语答题卡 老 证 学校 班级」 姓名 座位号 [0] [o] 0] [o] [o] o] [0] [0] [o] [1] [1] [1 [1] [1] [1 [1 [ [1] 答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚，并填涂相应 [4] 的考号信息点。 [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] 正确填涂 5] [5] [6J [5] [5] [s] 填涂样例 2.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂：解答题必须使用黑色的签字笔书 注意 [6 [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [o1 写，不得用铅笔或圆珠笔作解答题：字体工整、笔迹清楚。 7] 错误填涂 事项 [8 8 爵 请按照题号顺序在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写 井$% [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] 的答题无效：在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。 保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破。 监考员填涂缺考 [] 选择题 选择题(1-20每小题1.5分，21-45每小题2分，46-65每小题1分。) 1 [A][B][C][D] 6 [A][B][C][D] 11 [A][B] [c][D] 16 [A][B] [c][D] 2 [A][B][C][D] > [A][B][C][D] [A][B][C] [D] [A][B][C][D] 3 [A][B][C][D] 8 [A][B][C][D] 3 [A] [B] [c][D] 18 [A][B] [c][D] [A][B][C][D] 9 [A] [B] [c][D] 1 CA][B] [c] [D] 19 [A] [B] [c] [D] 「A1「B1「C1「D7 10 [A][B][C][D] [A] [B][C] [D] 20 [A][B] [c][D] 21 [A][B][c] [D] 26 [A][B][c] [D] 3 [A] [B] [c] [D] 36 [A][B][C][D] 22 [A][B] [c] [D] 27 [A] [B] Lc] [D] CA] [B] [c] [D] 37 [A][B] [c] [D] 23 [A] [B] [c] 1 28 [A] [B] [c1 [D] 33 [A [e] [e] [D] 9 [A] [B] [c] [D] [A][B] [c] CA] [B][c] [D] CAJ [c] [D] 39 [A][B][C] [D] 25 [A][B] [c] [DI 30 [A][B][C] [D] 35 [A] [B] Ce] [D] 40 [Al [BI [c] [D] 41[A][B] [c][D] [E] [F] [G] 6 CA] [B] [c [D] 51 [A] [B] [c] 42[A] [B] [c] [D] [B] [F] [c] CA] [B] [D] 43 [A] [B] [c] [D] [E] [F] [c] 47 c] [p] CA] [B] [c] [D] 52 [A] [B] [c] 44[A] [B] [c] [D] [E] [F] ] 45[A][B][c][D][B][F][G CA] [B] [c] [D] [D] 50 [A][B] [c] [D] 53 [A] [B] [c] 56 [A] [B] [c] 61 [A][B][C] [D] [D] 62 [A] [B][C] [D] 57 [A] [B] [c] 63 [A][B][c][D] [D] 64 [A][B][C][D] 58 [A] [B] [c] 65 [A] [B] [c] [D] 非选择题 六、阅读填空（15分) 66. 67 68 69 70 71 72 73. 74. 75. 七、书面表达(35分) 第一部分情景运用(10分) 76. 77. 78. 79. 2 80. 第二部分作文(25分) 英语模拟训练答题卡第2页（共2页） 2026-2027学年九年级上学期9月学情自测卷（新教材鲁教版五四制） 英 语 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．测试范围：九年级全册 Unit 1~Unit 4（新教材鲁教版）。 4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 第一节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1．A．What class are you in? B．How old are you? C．Who’s your class teacher? 2．A．This is my new friend. B．He is my brother. C．That’s my grandfather. 3．A．Do you play the piano? B．Are they potato plants? C．May I have your name? 4．A．I don’t see the keys. B．I can’t find the cap. C．I’m not in Grade 8. 5．A．He isn’t leaving for London. B．We shouldn’t eat in class. C．She didn’t stay up late. 第二节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6．When was Linda born? A．On April 1st. B．On June 1st. C．On July 1st. 7．What’s on the table? A．Some tomatoes. B．Some apples. C．Some pears. 8．Who is the girl in the photo? A．Jack’s cousin. B．Gina’s cousin. C．Kate’s sister. 9．Who supports the girl? A．Her parents. B．Her teachers. C．Her classmates. 10．How often should Laura water the plants? A．Twice a day. B．Twice a week. C．Once a day. 第三节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到一段对话, 对话后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11．What does Will’s father look like? A．Tall. B．Short. C．Thin. 12．Who’s this woman with the pink hat? A．Will’s grandmother. B．Will’s mother. C．Will’s sister. 13．What is Will’s mother’s job? A．A teacher. B．A doctor. C．A driver. 14．What does Will’s grandpa often do? A．He helps other people. B．He tells funny stories. C．He cooks delicious food. 15．What is Will’s sister like? A．Quiet and shy. B．Lovely and clever. C．Friendly and helpful. 第四节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16．Where did the story happen? A．In ancient China. B．In ancient Egypt. C．In ancient Greece. 17．What was the crown made of? A．Gold. B．Silver. C．We don’t know. 18．When did Archimedes get the idea to solve the problem? A．While he was having lunch. B．While he was taking a bath. C．While he was reading books. 19．What displaced more water? A．The crown. B．Some gold of the same weight. C．The pots and the bowls. 20．Who was sent to prison? A．Archimedes. B．King Hiero. C．The crown maker. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20个小题：每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Have you ever imagined living on Mars? Many scientists believe that it could happen in the next 50 years. Let’s take a look at what life might be like there. First, the houses on Mars would be very different from those on Earth. They would need to be strong enough to protect people from the dangerous radiation (辐射) and extreme temperatures. Most houses would be built under the ground or inside large domes (圆顶建筑) with air systems to keep the air clean and warm. Second, food would also be a big challenge. Farmers would grow vegetables in special greenhouses where they can control the light and water. People might also eat a lot of protein bars made from insects, because raising animals would take too much space and resources. Transportation on Mars would be mainly by rovers (漫游车) or flying cars. Since Mars has weaker gravity than Earth, people could jump much higher and even fly with special suits. However, living on Mars wouldn’t be easy. People would have to learn to live without many things we take for granted, like fresh water and large open spaces. But many people think that the adventure and the chance to start a new life would be worth it. 21．What is the main idea of the text? A．How to build houses on Mars. B．What life might be like on Mars. C．Why people want to live on Mars. D．The challenges of living on Earth. 22．Why would houses on Mars be built under the ground or in domes? A．To save space. B．To protect people from bad conditions. C．To make them look more beautiful. D．To keep away from insects. 23．What would people probably eat on Mars? A．Fresh vegetables from outside. B．Meat from animals. C．Protein bars made from insects. D．Traditional Earth food. 24．Which of the following is TRUE about transportation on Mars? A．People can’t jump high there. B．Rovers and flying cars are common. C．Gravity is stronger than on Earth. D．People don’t need special suits. 25．What do many people think of living on Mars? A．It’s impossible to achieve. B．It’s not worth the trouble. C．It’s an exciting and valuable adventure. D．It’s just a dream with no real meaning. B On Earth, we use bricks (砖块) to build houses, but what about building things on the moon? We use “lunar bricks”, of course! Scientists at Huazhong University of Science and Technology (HUST) have developed “lunar bricks”. They hope to use the bricks to build a research station on the moon. To make the bricks, the scientists used a lunar soil simulant (模拟月壤). The bricks are more than three times stronger than normal red bricks. They also have special structures, which were used in ancient Chinese buildings. This makes it possible to simply put these bricks together. Professor Zhou Cheng from HUST said that they had tested five different kinds of simulated lunar soil composition (成分) and used three ways to harden them. In this way they could choose the best materials for making the bricks. “Lunar soil isn’t the same everywhere on the moon,” Zhou said. “For example, one of the kinds tested simulates the lunar soil at the landing site of Chang’e-5, which is mainly basalt (玄武岩).” The lunar bricks need to be tested well before being used because the moon has an extreme (极端的) environment. Quakes often happen there. And it gets as hot as 180 ℃ during the day and as cold as -190 ℃ at night. The lunar bricks have been sent to China’s space station on the “Tianzhou-8” spacecraft. There, scientists carried out tests to see how well the bricks work in space. The first bricks returned to Earth on November 14th, 2025. 26．Which properly shows the strength comparison of lunar bricks and red bricks? A．B．C．D． 27．How did scientists find the best materials for making lunar bricks? A．They learned about lunar soil from scientific reports. B．They compared different bricks used widely nowadays. C．They read many books about ancient Chinese buildings. D．They did many tests on simulated lunar soil and treated it in different ways. 28．What is the main idea of the fourth paragraph? A．The introduction of China’s “Tianzhou-8” spacecraft. B．The reasons why lunar bricks need to be tested in space. C．The temperature difference on the moon between day and night. D．The time when the first lunar bricks returned to Earth. 29．Which of the following best explains the purpose of developing “lunar bricks” according to Paragraph 1? A．To study the composition of lunar soil. B．To build a research station on the moon. C．To test the technology of making bricks in space. D．To improve the strength of normal red bricks. 30．What is most probably the structure of the passage? A． B． C． D． C When I was a teenager, my parents were never interested in the music I preferred. They said to me, “David, the music you like listening to is a lot of noise.” At the same time, my father described the music that he liked as beautiful. As it turns out, they are not alone. As I grow older, I’ve often heard people of my age say, “Today’s music is terrible.” Many older people just don’t like new music. But why is that? The mere exposure effect (纯粹接触效应) may explain this. It means the more familiar we are with something, the more likely we are to prefer it. When we are in our early teens, we usually spend a lot of time listening to popular music and discussing it with our friends. The new songs and singers during this time become familiar to us. After we turn 30 years old, we are busy working and raising our families. We don’t have so much time to look for new music. Instead, we prefer to listen to our old favourites. According to studies, by the time we turn 33 years old, most of us will completely stop exploring new music. But I think there is another reason for older people’s dislike of new music. Most new music, after all, is not written for them. It is made for young people. Some types of music began as a rebellion by young people against out-of-date ways of doing things. These types include punk, rap, hip-hop, heavy metal and more. They naturally interest younger listeners. Do your parents dislike the music you like too? Now, after reading this article, you know there is nothing wrong with that. 31．Which of the following charts correctly shows “the mere exposure effect”? (Preference: 偏爱，Level of familiarity: 熟悉度) A． B． C． D． 32．Why do many older people dislike new music? ①Because the new music sounds terrible. ②Because they are afraid of noise. ③Because most new music is not written for them. ④Because they are not familiar with the new music. A．①② B．②③ C．③④ D．②④ 33．Which word is closest in meaning to the underlined word “rebellion” in Paragraph 3? A．Purpose. B．Sense. C．Praise. D．Disagreement. 34．What can we infer from the last paragraph? A．New music will become more popular with older people. B．Older people will try to listen to different kinds of new music. C．People will know it’s normal that older people dislike new music. D．More beautiful and simple songs will be written for older people. 35．What can be the best title for the passage? A．Why don’t Your Parents Like the Music You Like? B．What's the Real Meaning of the Mere Exposure Effect? C．When do Most Young People Stop Exploring New Music? D．How do Young People Like Different Types of New Music? D  Chengdu, a city in Southwest China’s Sichuan Province, is the first in Chinese mainland to host the World Games (TWG). This big sports event for non-Olympic sports was held from August 7 to August 17. Recently, the torch for The World Games 2025 Chengdu was shown to the public. It’s named “Zhumeng”, which means “Bamboo Dream” in Chinese and sounds like “chasing dreams”. This is the first-ever torch in TWG’s history. The torch’s design is inspired by the Grand Bronze Standing Figure from the Sanxingdui Ruins in Sichuan. The Grand Bronze Standing Figure is a famous relic from the Sanxingdui civilization (文明), one of China’s oldest cultures. Using this figure in the torch design shows wisdom of Chinese culture’s unity in diversity. The torch looks like both a tall figure and a proud bamboo shoot. In China, bamboo stands for modesty (谦逊) and strength. It is ideal for representing sports because it shows unity, hard work, and health. As home to giant pandas, Sichuan has lots of bamboo forests, the favorite food of pandas. The top of the torch is shaped like a young bamboo shoot with two buds (芽) stretching out. This symbolizes an open and friendly China welcoming the world. The whole torch looks like a strong bamboo stalk, showing the sports spirit of unity and trying hard. The torch’s nozzle (喷嘴) is like the Sun-shaped Crown worn by the Bronze Standing Figure found at the Jinsha Site in Chengdu. It shows Chengdu’s deep culture and gives athletes endless energy, like the sun. It also symbolizes their spirit of wanting to do their best. At the bottom of the torch, a phoenix-shaped bird holds it up. This reminds us of an old saying, “When a holy bird flies and sings, peace is in the world. ” It shows China’s rich culture and our hope for world peace. 36．How long did the World Games 2025 Chengdu last ? A．5 days B．10 days C．11 days D．15 days 37．Which of the following is NOT true about the TWG 2025? A．It’s a chance to show the culture of Chengdu. B．Chengdu is the second city in China to host it. C．It’s for non-Olympic sports. D．The torch is named “Zhumeng”. 38．In Chinese culture, what does bamboo represent? A．Modesty and strength. B．Wealth and treasure. C．Hope and courage. D．Knowledge and wisdom. 39．Why is the phoenix-shaped bird used at the bottom of the torch? A．To honor Sichuan’s bamboo forests B．To show the spirit of hard work C．To remind people of ancient sports D．To represent hope for world peace 40．What is the author’s purpose in describing the torch’s design ? A．To educate readers about the history of TWG. B．To discuss the importance of bamboo in China. C．To show Chinese culture through the torch’s design. D．To compare different torch designs. 第二节 阅读七选五（共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 The Wooden Drum Festival is an important event for the Wa people in Yunnan. It is named after the wooden drum, a special musical instrument. 41 The wooden drums are the most important part of the festival. They are not just musical instruments but also carry deep cultural meanings. The Wa people believe the drums connect them with their ancestors and nature. 42 They are about 0.8 meters wide and 2 meters long. 43 They dance in a circle, moving to the strong beat of the drums to express their wishes for a happy life and good luck. When dancing, they sing songs which are about the Wa people’s history and daily life. 44 It also helps keep their culture alive. Besides dancing, there are also sports games and traditional opera shows. The Wa people mainly live in two areas in Yunnan: Ximeng Wa Autonomous County (自治县) and Cangyuan Wa Autonomous County. The festival usually lasts three days. In the past, the Wa people celebrated the festival in the “Grey Month” of the Wa calendar. 45 . This change allows more people to learn about the Wa culture. The Wooden Drum Festival brings all the Wa people together. It also offers visitors a great chance to learn about their culture. A．So the dance is not just for fun. B．The drums are usually made of red wood. C．Many Wa people play the wooden drum at the festival. D．The festival shows their history, traditions, and rich culture. E．It is a good opportunity for young people to make new friends. F．People come together around the drum house during the festival. G．But since 2002, they have changed the date to April 10th to 12th. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5个小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 A: What are you listening to, Alex? B: Hey, Dave! I’m listening to a band called “The Toms”. 46 A: No, I haven’t. Are they a new band? B: Yes, they only started singing earlier this year. 47 . A: Wow, they must be really popular. 48 B: They are from California in the United States. There are five people in the band and they are all teenage boys. A: 49 B: Yes, but it sounds more like rock. I like their music because it’s loud and full of energy. I feel excited when I listen to it. A: 50 I think if I listen to their music every morning, it will make me happy for the rest of the day! 46. A. Do you like them? B. Have you heard of them? C. What do you think of them? D. Where did you buy it? 47. A. But no one has known them. B. But I like them very much. C．But they’ve already made two CDs. D. But they are really good at dancing. 48. A.Where are they from? B. What do they want to do? C. Who is their teacher? D. What’s your favorite band? 49. A. I think they are playing rock music, right? B．I guess what they’re playing is pop music, right? C. Do you like playing rock music? D. Why not listen to it with me? 50. A. No way. B. No problem. C. Me, too. D．Me, neither. 第二节 完形填空（共15个小题：每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Drones (无人机) were invented in recent years. They are very helpful to us. They can do a lot of things for us. They can 51 photos, deliver (递送) things from packages (包裹) to pizzas and follow wild animals. But they have many 52 uses now. Can you believe it? Drones can serve people coffee. This kind of drone was made by US company IBM. It can deliver 53 to sleepy people. The drone can know when to bring a cup of coffee by studying a person’s 54 information. Then, the drone will fly to the person. There is a 55 device (设备) under the drone. It helps the drone to give coffee. The drone can also learn 56 someone’s coffee-drinking habits, and tell when someone needs next 57 of coffee. Drones can also save lives. One company in Africa uses drones to deliver medicine and blood fast and 58 many people’s lives. The drones are able to fly at 59 of up to 60 mph. When they are within a minute of the destination (目的地) , the doctors will get a message and 60 for them nearby. The drone drops off the package 61 then returns to its home. A 92-year-old hunter (猎手) in Virginia was 62 and had to spend a night in the woods. The 63 searched for him all night but failed to find him. It is 64 that the drone found him in only 20 minutes. Also, drones helped firefighters know better about the 65 in wildfire fighting. 51．A．take B．remain C．list D．lock 52．A．all B．both C．other D．nor 53．A．biscuit B．cookie C．salt D．coffee 54．A．accidental B．personal C．professional D．educational 55．A．musical B．daily C．special D．local 56．A．about B．off C．onto D．under 57．A．style B．trade C．smell D．cup 58．A．develop B．save C．solve D．improve 59．A．heels B．patterns C．speeds D．bells 60．A．wait B．heat C．spread D．treat 61．A．if B．but C．so D．and 62．A．low B．lost C．hungry D．blind 63．A．hero B．customer C．police D．saint 64．A．lucky B．private C．local D．proud 65．A．electricity B．situation C．pioneer D．Earthquake 第三节 阅读填空（共10个小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Good morning, everyone! Today, I’d like to talk about my favourite sports event. Actually, when I used the word “event”, I meant two events: the 2008 Summer Olympics and the 2022 Winter Olympics. They 66._________(hold) in Beijing—the first city ever to host both the Summer and the Winter Olympics. The most recent was the 2022 Winter Olympics. A total of nearly 2,900 67._________(athlete) attended and competed in 109 events in seven Olympic winter sports. There were many exciting moments. Nearly the whole world watched the fantastic figure skating and ski jumping competitions. I watched the freestyle skiing, and like everyone else, I fell in love with those brave and 68.________(talent) athletes. I also became 69._______ huge fan of the mascot, Bing Dwen Dwen. And we shall not forget the amazing achievements in the 2008 Summer Olympics. I watched 70._______wonder as Usain Bolt smiled his way across the finish line in the 100 metres, setting a new world record. Then I watched the drama of the shooting event. Du Li won her second Olympic gold medal, after the first one in 2004. Both 71.______(be) dramatic come-from-behind victories. Hosting two Olympics brought challenges but also opportunities to Beijing. Both Games showed China’s success in 72.________(it) reform and opening-up on the world stage. China’s great achievements have gained worldwide attention. In both events, many volunteers and citizens helped out. They worked with pride 73._______( make) sure that people from around the world had a pleasant stay. Events like the Olympic Games build bridges between countries and form friendships between people. The purpose of the Olympics is to build relationships between people, to celebrate the Olympic spirit, and to bring people together for peace and harmony. This is shown in the motto of the 2008 Olympics, “One World, One Dream”, 74._______ the motto of the 2022 Olympics, “Together for a Shared Future”. These mottos touch my heart quite 75._________(deep) as I’m sure they touch yours. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76．A: What’s the matter with you, Tom? B: ______________________________. 77．A: How was the weather yesterday? B: ____________________. So, I played with joy in the rain. 78．A: ______________________________? B: It must be Lily’s. She really loves sports. 79．A: What is your brother’s favourite subject? B: ______________________________. 80．A: ______________________________? B: Yes, I have. I went there last year. 第二节 写作（25分） 81．体育运动始终伴随着我们的成长。体育精神激励着我们，指引着我们，让我们坚持不懈。请你以“The Spirit of Sports”为题，写一篇80-100词的英语短文。内容包括：(1)你对体育精神的理解；(2)你参与的一次体育活动，以及你在活动中遇到的困难与挑战；(3)你的感悟。 The Spirit of Sports ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 试卷第6页，共7页 ( 1 / 6 ) 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026-2027学年九年级上学期9月学情自测卷（新教材鲁教版五四制） 英 语 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．测试范围：九年级全册 Unit 1~Unit 4（新教材鲁教版）。 4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 第一节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1．A．What class are you in? B．How old are you? C．Who’s your class teacher? 2．A．This is my new friend. B．He is my brother. C．That’s my grandfather. 3．A．Do you play the piano? B．Are they potato plants? C．May I have your name? 4．A．I don’t see the keys. B．I can’t find the cap. C．I’m not in Grade 8. 5．A．He isn’t leaving for London. B．We shouldn’t eat in class. C．She didn’t stay up late. 第二节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6．When was Linda born? A．On April 1st. B．On June 1st. C．On July 1st. 7．What’s on the table? A．Some tomatoes. B．Some apples. C．Some pears. 8．Who is the girl in the photo? A．Jack’s cousin. B．Gina’s cousin. C．Kate’s sister. 9．Who supports the girl? A．Her parents. B．Her teachers. C．Her classmates. 10．How often should Laura water the plants? A．Twice a day. B．Twice a week. C．Once a day. 第三节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到一段对话, 对话后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11．What does Will’s father look like? A．Tall. B．Short. C．Thin. 12．Who’s this woman with the pink hat? A．Will’s grandmother. B．Will’s mother. C．Will’s sister. 13．What is Will’s mother’s job? A．A teacher. B．A doctor. C．A driver. 14．What does Will’s grandpa often do? A．He helps other people. B．He tells funny stories. C．He cooks delicious food. 15．What is Will’s sister like? A．Quiet and shy. B．Lovely and clever. C．Friendly and helpful. 第四节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16．Where did the story happen? A．In ancient China. B．In ancient Egypt. C．In ancient Greece. 17．What was the crown made of? A．Gold. B．Silver. C．We don’t know. 18．When did Archimedes get the idea to solve the problem? A．While he was having lunch. B．While he was taking a bath. C．While he was reading books. 19．What displaced more water? A．The crown. B．Some gold of the same weight. C．The pots and the bowls. 20．Who was sent to prison? A．Archimedes. B．King Hiero. C．The crown maker. 听力答案 1．A 2．A 3．B 4．B 5．B 6．B 7．A 8．A 9．A 10．A 11．A 12．B 13．A 14．B 15．B 16．C 17．C 18．B 19．A 20．C 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20个小题：每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Have you ever imagined living on Mars? Many scientists believe that it could happen in the next 50 years. Let’s take a look at what life might be like there. First, the houses on Mars would be very different from those on Earth. They would need to be strong enough to protect people from the dangerous radiation (辐射) and extreme temperatures. Most houses would be built under the ground or inside large domes (圆顶建筑) with air systems to keep the air clean and warm. Second, food would also be a big challenge. Farmers would grow vegetables in special greenhouses where they can control the light and water. People might also eat a lot of protein bars made from insects, because raising animals would take too much space and resources. Transportation on Mars would be mainly by rovers (漫游车) or flying cars. Since Mars has weaker gravity than Earth, people could jump much higher and even fly with special suits. However, living on Mars wouldn’t be easy. People would have to learn to live without many things we take for granted, like fresh water and large open spaces. But many people think that the adventure and the chance to start a new life would be worth it. 21．What is the main idea of the text? A．How to build houses on Mars. B．What life might be like on Mars. C．Why people want to live on Mars. D．The challenges of living on Earth. 22．Why would houses on Mars be built under the ground or in domes? A．To save space. B．To protect people from bad conditions. C．To make them look more beautiful. D．To keep away from insects. 23．What would people probably eat on Mars? A．Fresh vegetables from outside. B．Meat from animals. C．Protein bars made from insects. D．Traditional Earth food. 24．Which of the following is TRUE about transportation on Mars? A．People can’t jump high there. B．Rovers and flying cars are common. C．Gravity is stronger than on Earth. D．People don’t need special suits. 25．What do many people think of living on Mars? A．It’s impossible to achieve. B．It’s not worth the trouble. C．It’s an exciting and valuable adventure. D．It’s just a dream with no real meaning. 【答案】21．B 22．B 23．C 24．B 25．C 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文，畅想了未来人类在火星上的生活场景，从住房、食物、交通等方面介绍了火星生活的特点与挑战。 21．文章第一段末尾提出“Let’s take a look at what life might be like there.”，随后各段分别从住房、食物、交通及生活感受等方面具体描述了火星生活的场景，因此全文主旨是介绍火星生活可能是什么样子的。 22．根据第二段中“They would need to be strong enough to protect people from the dangerous radiation and extreme temperatures.”可知，房屋建在地下或圆顶内是为了保护人们免受辐射和极端温度等恶劣环境条件的伤害。 23．根据第三段中“People might also eat a lot of protein bars made from insects...”可知，由于饲养动物太占空间和资源，人们可能会食用昆虫制成的蛋白棒。A选项的“户外新鲜蔬菜”不符合火星环境，B选项的“动物肉类”因资源限制难以实现，D选项的“传统地球食物”未被提及。 24．根据文章第四段“Transportation on Mars would be mainly by rovers(漫游车)or flying cars.”，可知火星上的主要交通方式是漫游车和飞行汽车，对应B选项。 25．根据文章最后一段“But many people think that the adventure and the chance to start a new life would be worth it.”，可知许多人认为在火星上生活是一场值得的冒险，对应C选项“一场令人兴奋且有价值的冒险”。A、B、D选项均与文中worth it“值得”的积极态度相悖，因此排除。 B On Earth, we use bricks (砖块) to build houses, but what about building things on the moon? We use “lunar bricks”, of course! Scientists at Huazhong University of Science and Technology (HUST) have developed “lunar bricks”. They hope to use the bricks to build a research station on the moon. To make the bricks, the scientists used a lunar soil simulant (模拟月壤). The bricks are more than three times stronger than normal red bricks. They also have special structures, which were used in ancient Chinese buildings. This makes it possible to simply put these bricks together. Professor Zhou Cheng from HUST said that they had tested five different kinds of simulated lunar soil composition (成分) and used three ways to harden them. In this way they could choose the best materials for making the bricks. “Lunar soil isn’t the same everywhere on the moon,” Zhou said. “For example, one of the kinds tested simulates the lunar soil at the landing site of Chang’e-5, which is mainly basalt (玄武岩).” The lunar bricks need to be tested well before being used because the moon has an extreme (极端的) environment. Quakes often happen there. And it gets as hot as 180 ℃ during the day and as cold as -190 ℃ at night. The lunar bricks have been sent to China’s space station on the “Tianzhou-8” spacecraft. There, scientists carried out tests to see how well the bricks work in space. The first bricks returned to Earth on November 14th, 2025. 26．Which properly shows the strength comparison of lunar bricks and red bricks? A．B．C．D． 27．How did scientists find the best materials for making lunar bricks? A．They learned about lunar soil from scientific reports. B．They compared different bricks used widely nowadays. C．They read many books about ancient Chinese buildings. D．They did many tests on simulated lunar soil and treated it in different ways. 28．What is the main idea of the fourth paragraph? A．The introduction of China’s “Tianzhou-8” spacecraft. B．The reasons why lunar bricks need to be tested in space. C．The temperature difference on the moon between day and night. D．The time when the first lunar bricks returned to Earth. 29．Which of the following best explains the purpose of developing “lunar bricks” according to Paragraph 1? A．To study the composition of lunar soil. B．To build a research station on the moon. C．To test the technology of making bricks in space. D．To improve the strength of normal red bricks. 30．What is most probably the structure of the passage? A． B． C． D． 【答案】26．D 27．D 28．B 29．B 30．D 【导语】本文介绍华科大研发月壤砖，其强度远超红砖，科学家通过模拟月壤实验优选原料，砖块经太空极端环境测试，有望用于搭建月球科研站。 【详解】26．原文第二段：“The bricks are more than three times stronger than normal red bricks.”，月壤砖强度是普通红砖的三倍以上。柱状图里代表lunar bricks的柱子要远高于red bricks，对应图D。 27．原文第三段：“they had tested five different kinds of simulated lunar soil composition and used three ways to harden them.”，科学家测试五种模拟月壤配方，并使用三种硬化方式做实验，以此选出最优材料。D对模拟月壤开展大量实验，用不同方式处理，符合原文。 28．原文第四段：先介绍月球昼夜温差极大、多发震动的极端恶劣环境，以此说明月壤砖必须经过太空实测的必要性，再补充搭载飞船测试、砖块返回地球的相关信息。段落核心是解释月壤砖太空测试的原因。 29．原文第一段：“They hope to use the bricks to build a research station on the moon.”，研发月壤砖的目的是在月球建造科研站。 30．文章第①段总述月壤砖的研发背景与用途；②③④段分别从砖块自身特点、材料实验、太空测试三个独立角度分层展开说明，属于“总-分” 结构，①统领②③④，对应选项B图示。 C When I was a teenager, my parents were never interested in the music I preferred. They said to me, “David, the music you like listening to is a lot of noise.” At the same time, my father described the music that he liked as beautiful. As it turns out, they are not alone. As I grow older, I’ve often heard people of my age say, “Today’s music is terrible.” Many older people just don’t like new music. But why is that? The mere exposure effect (纯粹接触效应) may explain this. It means the more familiar we are with something, the more likely we are to prefer it. When we are in our early teens, we usually spend a lot of time listening to popular music and discussing it with our friends. The new songs and singers during this time become familiar to us. After we turn 30 years old, we are busy working and raising our families. We don’t have so much time to look for new music. Instead, we prefer to listen to our old favourites. According to studies, by the time we turn 33 years old, most of us will completely stop exploring new music. But I think there is another reason for older people’s dislike of new music. Most new music, after all, is not written for them. It is made for young people. Some types of music began as a rebellion by young people against out-of-date ways of doing things. These types include punk, rap, hip-hop, heavy metal and more. They naturally interest younger listeners. Do your parents dislike the music you like too? Now, after reading this article, you know there is nothing wrong with that. 31．Which of the following charts correctly shows “the mere exposure effect”? (Preference: 偏爱，Level of familiarity: 熟悉度) A． B． C． D． 32．Why do many older people dislike new music? ①Because the new music sounds terrible. ②Because they are afraid of noise. ③Because most new music is not written for them. ④Because they are not familiar with the new music. A．①② B．②③ C．③④ D．②④ 33．Which word is closest in meaning to the underlined word “rebellion” in Paragraph 3? A．Purpose. B．Sense. C．Praise. D．Disagreement. 34．What can we infer from the last paragraph? A．New music will become more popular with older people. B．Older people will try to listen to different kinds of new music. C．People will know it’s normal that older people dislike new music. D．More beautiful and simple songs will be written for older people. 35．What can be the best title for the passage? A．Why don’t Your Parents Like the Music You Like? B．What's the Real Meaning of the Mere Exposure Effect? C．When do Most Young People Stop Exploring New Music? D．How do Young People Like Different Types of New Music? 【答案】31．A 32．C 33．D 34．C 35．A 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文，主要探讨了为何父母不喜欢孩子的音乐：熟悉度效应（年少常听，年长不追新）及新音乐专为年轻人创作。 31．文章第二段提到“The mere exposure effect (纯粹接触效应) may explain this. It means the more familiar we are with something, the more likely we are to prefer it.”，“纯粹接触效应”是指：熟悉度越高，偏好度越高，所以正确的图表应该是：横轴为“熟悉度”，纵轴为“偏好”，两者呈正相关（上升曲线）。选项A的图示符合。 32．第三段明确写道“Most new music, after all, is not written for them. It is made for young people.”，大多数新音乐不是为他们写的，是为年轻人创作的。第二段提到“ According to studies, by the time we turn 33 years old, most of us will completely stop exploring new music.”，年轻人到33岁后不再探索新音乐，所以对新音乐不熟悉，而“纯粹接触效应”表明人们偏好熟悉的事物。③④符合。 33．原文第三段提到“Some types of music began as a rebellion by young people against out-of-date ways of doing things.”，某些音乐类型起初是年轻人对过时做事方式的一种“反抗/叛逆”，rebellion意为“反抗/叛逆”，与disagreement（不认同/反对）意思最接近。 34．最后一段提到“Do your parents dislike the music you like too? Now, after reading this article, you know there is nothing wrong with that.”，读完这篇文章后，你会明白父母不喜欢你的音乐是很正常的，没什么问题。选项C“人们会知道老年人不喜欢新音乐是正常的”与原文完全吻合。 35．全文以作者自身经历开头，探讨“为什么父母不喜欢孩子听的音乐”，并从“纯粹接触效应”和“新音乐的目标受众”两个角度解释原因。最后一段点题：这很正常。选项A“为什么你的父母不喜欢你喜欢的音乐？”最准确，既点明了现象，也引出全文解释。 D  Chengdu, a city in Southwest China’s Sichuan Province, is the first in Chinese mainland to host the World Games (TWG). This big sports event for non-Olympic sports was held from August 7 to August 17. Recently, the torch for The World Games 2025 Chengdu was shown to the public. It’s named “Zhumeng”, which means “Bamboo Dream” in Chinese and sounds like “chasing dreams”. This is the first-ever torch in TWG’s history. The torch’s design is inspired by the Grand Bronze Standing Figure from the Sanxingdui Ruins in Sichuan. The Grand Bronze Standing Figure is a famous relic from the Sanxingdui civilization (文明), one of China’s oldest cultures. Using this figure in the torch design shows wisdom of Chinese culture’s unity in diversity. The torch looks like both a tall figure and a proud bamboo shoot. In China, bamboo stands for modesty (谦逊) and strength. It is ideal for representing sports because it shows unity, hard work, and health. As home to giant pandas, Sichuan has lots of bamboo forests, the favorite food of pandas. The top of the torch is shaped like a young bamboo shoot with two buds (芽) stretching out. This symbolizes an open and friendly China welcoming the world. The whole torch looks like a strong bamboo stalk, showing the sports spirit of unity and trying hard. The torch’s nozzle (喷嘴) is like the Sun-shaped Crown worn by the Bronze Standing Figure found at the Jinsha Site in Chengdu. It shows Chengdu’s deep culture and gives athletes endless energy, like the sun. It also symbolizes their spirit of wanting to do their best. At the bottom of the torch, a phoenix-shaped bird holds it up. This reminds us of an old saying, “When a holy bird flies and sings, peace is in the world. ” It shows China’s rich culture and our hope for world peace. 36．How long did the World Games 2025 Chengdu last ? A．5 days B．10 days C．11 days D．15 days 37．Which of the following is NOT true about the TWG 2025? A．It’s a chance to show the culture of Chengdu. B．Chengdu is the second city in China to host it. C．It’s for non-Olympic sports. D．The torch is named “Zhumeng”. 38．In Chinese culture, what does bamboo represent? A．Modesty and strength. B．Wealth and treasure. C．Hope and courage. D．Knowledge and wisdom. 39．Why is the phoenix-shaped bird used at the bottom of the torch? A．To honor Sichuan’s bamboo forests B．To show the spirit of hard work C．To remind people of ancient sports D．To represent hope for world peace 40．What is the author’s purpose in describing the torch’s design ? A．To educate readers about the history of TWG. B．To discuss the importance of bamboo in China. C．To show Chinese culture through the torch’s design. D．To compare different torch designs. 【答案】36．C 37．B 38．A 39．D 40．C 【解析】 【导语】本文是一篇说明文，介绍2025年成都世界运动会，重点讲解本届世运会火炬“逐梦”的设计灵感、造型寓意，融合三星堆、金沙遗址、竹子、神鸟等四川传统文化元素，展现中华文化内涵。 36．原文第一段赛事时间：held from August 7 to August 17。从8月7日至8月17日，一共持续11天。 37．题干选出不正确的一项。原文第一段“is the first in Chinese mainland to host the World Games”，说明成都是中国大陆首个举办城市，并非中国第二个，B表述错误；A、C、D均能在原文找到对应信息。 38．原文第二段“In China, bamboo stands for modesty (谦逊) and strength.”，竹子在中国文化中代表谦逊与力量。 39．文章末尾：At the bottom of the torch, a phoenix-shaped bird holds it up…It shows China’s rich culture and our hope for world peace. 底部神鸟造型象征期盼世界和平。 40．全文大量篇幅拆解火炬各处造型对应的传统文化，作者借火炬设计展示中国、四川特色文化，对应C选项。文章并非介绍世运会历史、单纯讨论竹子，也没有对比多款火炬。 第二节 阅读七选五（共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 The Wooden Drum Festival is an important event for the Wa people in Yunnan. It is named after the wooden drum, a special musical instrument. 41 The wooden drums are the most important part of the festival. They are not just musical instruments but also carry deep cultural meanings. The Wa people believe the drums connect them with their ancestors and nature. 42 They are about 0.8 meters wide and 2 meters long. 43 They dance in a circle, moving to the strong beat of the drums to express their wishes for a happy life and good luck. When dancing, they sing songs which are about the Wa people’s history and daily life. 44 It also helps keep their culture alive. Besides dancing, there are also sports games and traditional opera shows. The Wa people mainly live in two areas in Yunnan: Ximeng Wa Autonomous County (自治县) and Cangyuan Wa Autonomous County. The festival usually lasts three days. In the past, the Wa people celebrated the festival in the “Grey Month” of the Wa calendar. 45 . This change allows more people to learn about the Wa culture. The Wooden Drum Festival brings all the Wa people together. It also offers visitors a great chance to learn about their culture. A．So the dance is not just for fun. B．The drums are usually made of red wood. C．Many Wa people play the wooden drum at the festival. D．The festival shows their history, traditions, and rich culture. E．It is a good opportunity for young people to make new friends. F．People come together around the drum house during the festival. G．But since 2002, they have changed the date to April 10th to 12th. 【答案】41．D 42．B 43．F 44．A 45．G 【解析】 【导语】本文介绍了云南佤族的木鼓节，涵盖节日的核心元素、活动及文化意义。 41．根据“The Wooden Drum Festival is an important event…It is named after the wooden drum”可知，这里补充“木鼓节展示佤族的历史、传统与文化”的核心定位。D选项“这个节日展示了他们的历史、传统和丰富的文化”契合节日的文化属性。故选D。 42．根据“They are about 0.8 meters wide and 2 meters long”可知，这里介绍木鼓的制作材料。B选项“这些鼓通常由红木制成”匹配对木鼓的细节描述。故选B。 43．根据“They dance in a circle…to express their wishes for a happy life and good luck”可知，这里补充节日里人们围绕鼓房聚集的场景。F选项“节日期间，人们聚集在鼓房周围”衔接“集体舞蹈”的活动描述。故选F。 44．根据“When dancing, they sing songs which are about the Wa people's history and daily life…It also helps keep their culture alive”可知，这里说明舞蹈不仅是娱乐。A选项“所以这种舞蹈不只是为了娱乐”衔接“传承文化”的深层意义。故选A。 45．根据“In the past, the Wa people celebrated the festival in the ‘Grey Month’…This change allows more people to learn about the Wa culture”可知，这里介绍节日日期的变化。G选项“但自2002年起，他们将日期改为4月10日至12日”匹配“日期变更”的描述。故选G。 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5个小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 A: What are you listening to, Alex? B: Hey, Dave! I’m listening to a band called “The Toms”. 46 A: No, I haven’t. Are they a new band? B: Yes, they only started singing earlier this year. 47 . A: Wow, they must be really popular. 48 B: They are from California in the United States. There are five people in the band and they are all teenage boys. A: 49 B: Yes, but it sounds more like rock. I like their music because it’s loud and full of energy. I feel excited when I listen to it. A: 50 I think if I listen to their music every morning, it will make me happy for the rest of the day! 46. A. Do you like them? B. Have you heard of them? C. What do you think of them? D. Where did you buy it? 47. A. But no one has known them. B. But I like them very much. C．But they’ve already made two CDs. D. But they are really good at dancing. 48. A.Where are they from? B. What do they want to do? C. Who is their teacher? D. What’s your favorite band? 49. A. I think they are playing rock music, right? B．I guess what they’re playing is pop music, right? C. Do you like playing rock music? D. Why not listen to it with me? 50. A. No way. B. No problem. C. Me, too. D．Me, neither. 【答案】46.B 47.C 48.A 49.B 50.C 【解析】 【导语】Alex向Dave介绍新乐队The Toms，谈及乐队情况与音乐风格，Dave也很喜欢这支乐队。 46.句意：根据答语“No, I haven’t.”可知问句是现在完成时的一般疑问句。B选项“Have you heard of them?”符合语境。故选B。 47.句意：前文提到乐队今年早些时候才开始唱歌，后文说“他们一定很受欢迎”。C选项“但他们已经出了两张CD”可衔接上下文。故选C。 48.句意：由答语“They are from California in the United States.”可知问句询问来自哪里。故选A。 49.句意：答语“Yes, but it sounds more like rock.”表示肯定并纠正风格，说明此处猜测是流行音乐。故选B。 50.句意：后文说话人也觉得听这个音乐能让人开心，说明认同对方观点。Me, too表示“我也是”。故选C。 第二节 完形填空（共15个小题：每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Drones (无人机) were invented in recent years. They are very helpful to us. They can do a lot of things for us. They can 51 photos, deliver (递送) things from packages (包裹) to pizzas and follow wild animals. But they have many 52 uses now. Can you believe it? Drones can serve people coffee. This kind of drone was made by US company IBM. It can deliver 53 to sleepy people. The drone can know when to bring a cup of coffee by studying a person’s 54 information. Then, the drone will fly to the person. There is a 55 device (设备) under the drone. It helps the drone to give coffee. The drone can also learn 56 someone’s coffee-drinking habits, and tell when someone needs next 57 of coffee. Drones can also save lives. One company in Africa uses drones to deliver medicine and blood fast and 58 many people’s lives. The drones are able to fly at 59 of up to 60 mph. When they are within a minute of the destination (目的地) , the doctors will get a message and 60 for them nearby. The drone drops off the package 61 then returns to its home. A 92-year-old hunter (猎手) in Virginia was 62 and had to spend a night in the woods. The 63 searched for him all night but failed to find him. It is 64 that the drone found him in only 20 minutes. Also, drones helped firefighters know better about the 65 in wildfire fighting. 51．A．take B．remain C．list D．lock 52．A．all B．both C．other D．nor 53．A．biscuit B．cookie C．salt D．coffee 54．A．accidental B．personal C．professional D．educational 55．A．musical B．daily C．special D．local 56．A．about B．off C．onto D．under 57．A．style B．trade C．smell D．cup 58．A．develop B．save C．solve D．improve 59．A．heels B．patterns C．speeds D．bells 60．A．wait B．heat C．spread D．treat 61．A．if B．but C．so D．and 62．A．low B．lost C．hungry D．blind 63．A．hero B．customer C．police D．saint 64．A．lucky B．private C．local D．proud 65．A．electricity B．situation C．pioneer D．Earthquake 【答案】51．A 52．C 53．D 54．B 55．C 56．A 57．D 58．B 59．C 60．A 61．D 62．B 63．C 64．A 65．B 【解析】 【导语】本文主要介绍无人机的多种用途，包括拍照、送咖啡、运送医疗物资、搜救迷路人员及协助灭火等，展示了科技对生活的帮助。 51．句意：它们可以拍照，递送从包裹到披萨等各种物品，还能追踪野生动物。 根据“photos”可知此处指拍照，固定搭配take photos意为“拍照”，应用take。其他选项与照片搭配不当。 52．句意：但它们现在有许多其他用途。 根据前文列举了几种用途及转折词“But”可知，此处指除了前述之外的“其他”用途，应用other。all所有，both两者，nor也不，不符合逻辑。 53．句意：它可以给困倦的人送咖啡。 根据“Drones can serve people coffee”以及“to sleepy people”可知，此处指送“咖啡”，应用coffee。biscuit饼干，cookie曲奇，salt盐，不符合逻辑。 54．句意：无人机可以通过研究一个人的个人信息知道何时送上一杯咖啡。 无人机要判断送咖啡的时间，需要研究人的个人信息，personal information符合语义，应用personal。accidental意外的，professional专业的，educational教育的，不符合逻辑。 55．句意：无人机下面有一个特殊设备。 根据“It helps the drone to give coffee”可知，这个设备是用来帮无人机递送咖啡的特殊装置，应用special。musical音乐的，daily日常的，local当地的，无法体现该设备的功能性。 56．句意：这款无人机还能了解一个人的喝咖啡习惯，并判断出何时需要下一杯咖啡。 固定搭配learn about意为“了解”，此处表示无人机了解人们喝咖啡的习惯，应用about。其他介词无此搭配。 57．句意：这款无人机还能了解一个人的喝咖啡习惯，并判断出何时需要下一杯咖啡。 前文提到a cup of coffee，此处表示判断人们什么时候需要下一杯咖啡，应用cup。 58．句意：非洲的一家公司利用无人机快速运送药品和血液，挽救了许多人的生命。 根据上文“Drones can also save lives”可知，此处指无人机快速送药物和血液，拯救很多人的生命，应用save。develop发展，solve解决，improve改善，不符合逻辑。 59．句意：无人机能以高达60英里每小时的速度飞行。 后文提到时速60英里，可知此处表示飞行速度，固定搭配at speeds of意为“以……的速度”，应用speeds。 60．句意：当他们距离目的地还有一分钟时，医生们会收到一条消息，并在附近等待它们。 根据逻辑，医生收到信息后会在附近“等待”接收，固定搭配wait for意为“等待”，应用wait。heat加热，spread传播，treat治疗，不符合语境。 61．句意：无人机放下包裹然后返回家园。 “drops off the package”和“then returns to its home”是顺承的连续动作，用并列连词and连接。if如果，but但是，so所以，逻辑关系不符。 62．句意：弗吉尼亚州一位92岁的猎人在森林中迷路，不得不在野外度过了一夜。 根据下文“searched for him”可知，他“迷路”了，应用lost。low低的，hungry饿的，blind盲的，逻辑不符。 63．句意：警察找了他一整夜，但没能找到他。 猎人迷路失踪，搜寻失踪人员的是警察police，符合常识。hero英雄，customer顾客，saint圣徒，不符合职业身份。 64．句意：很幸运无人机只用了20分钟就找到了他。 根据对比警察搜寻失败而无人机成功，可知这是“幸运的”，应用lucky。private私人的，local当地的，proud骄傲的，逻辑不符。 65．句意：无人机还帮助消防员更好地了解野火扑救的情况。 根据语境，无人机帮助消防员了解野火扑救的情况，应用situation。electricity电，pioneer先锋，earthquake地震，均不符合语义。 第三节 阅读填空（共10个小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Good morning, everyone! Today, I’d like to talk about my favourite sports event. Actually, when I used the word “event”, I meant two events: the 2008 Summer Olympics and the 2022 Winter Olympics. They 66._________(hold) in Beijing—the first city ever to host both the Summer and the Winter Olympics. The most recent was the 2022 Winter Olympics. A total of nearly 2,900 67._________(athlete) attended and competed in 109 events in seven Olympic winter sports. There were many exciting moments. Nearly the whole world watched the fantastic figure skating and ski jumping competitions. I watched the freestyle skiing, and like everyone else, I fell in love with those brave and 68.________(talent) athletes. I also became 69._______ huge fan of the mascot, Bing Dwen Dwen. And we shall not forget the amazing achievements in the 2008 Summer Olympics. I watched 70._______wonder as Usain Bolt smiled his way across the finish line in the 100 metres, setting a new world record. Then I watched the drama of the shooting event. Du Li won her second Olympic gold medal, after the first one in 2004. Both 71.______(be) dramatic come-from-behind victories. Hosting two Olympics brought challenges but also opportunities to Beijing. Both Games showed China’s success in 72.________(it) reform and opening-up on the world stage. China’s great achievements have gained worldwide attention. In both events, many volunteers and citizens helped out. They worked with pride 73._______( make) sure that people from around the world had a pleasant stay. Events like the Olympic Games build bridges between countries and form friendships between people. The purpose of the Olympics is to build relationships between people, to celebrate the Olympic spirit, and to bring people together for peace and harmony. This is shown in the motto of the 2008 Olympics, “One World, One Dream”, 74._______ the motto of the 2022 Olympics, “Together for a Shared Future”. These mottos touch my heart quite 75._________(deep) as I’m sure they touch yours. 【答案】66. were held 67. athletes 68. talented 69. a 70. in 71. were 72. its 73. to make 74. and 75. deeply 【解析】 【导语】本文演讲介绍北京双奥盛况，回忆赛事精彩瞬间，阐释奥运促进各国和平友好交流的精神。 66. 句意：两场奥运会在北京举办。主语they和hold是被动关系，奥运会为过去举办，一般过去时被动语态，故填were held。 67. 句意：近2900名运动员参赛。athlete为可数名词，数字2900后用复数，故填athletes。 68 句意：勇敢又有天赋的运动员。修饰名词athletes用形容词，talent变talented，故填talented。 69. 句意：我成为冰墩墩的忠实粉丝。huge辅音音素开头，不定冠词a表泛指，故填a。 70. 句意：我惊奇地观看比赛。固定搭配in wonder，意为惊奇地，故填in。 71. 句意：两场都是逆转取胜。主语both指代两场赛事，为复数，全文过去时态，故填were。 72. 句意：展示中国自身改革开放的成就。形容词性物主代词its修饰名词，故填its。 73. 句意：他们满怀热情工作，保障各国宾客体验。不定式表目的，故填to make。 74. 句意：2008和2022奥运口号。并列两个口号，用连词and连接，故填and。 75. 句意：这些口号深深打动我。副词修饰动词touch，deep变副词deeply，故填deeply。 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76．A: What’s the matter with you, Tom? B: ______________________________. 77．A: How was the weather yesterday? B: ____________________. So, I played with joy in the rain. 78．A: ______________________________? B: It must be Lily’s. She really loves sports. 79．A: What is your brother’s favourite subject? B: ______________________________. 80．A: ______________________________? B: Yes, I have. I went there last year. 【参考答案】 76．I have a stomachache 77．It was rainy 78．Whose football is it 79．His favourite subject is geography 80．Have you ever been to the Great Wall 第二节 写作（25分） 81．体育运动始终伴随着我们的成长。体育精神激励着我们，指引着我们，让我们坚持不懈。请你以“The Spirit of Sports”为题，写一篇80-100词的英语短文。内容包括：(1)你对体育精神的理解；(2)你参与的一次体育活动，以及你在活动中遇到的困难与挑战；(3)你的感悟。 The Spirit of Sports ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【参考范文】 The Spirit of Sports In my view, the spirit of sports is all about keeping trying and respecting others. It helps us overcome difficulties and grow stronger. Last month, I took part in a badminton match. At first, I was confident. However, the other player played much better. I was so upset that I even thought about giving up. But I remembered the spirit of sports. I pulled myself together, focused on each shot, and managed to finish the game. Although I lost, I was proud of myself. This experience taught me sports spirit always lights up our way. 试卷第6页，共7页 ( 1 / 11 ) 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ ( ………………○……………… 外 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… ) ( ………………○……………… 内 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… ) ( 此卷只装订 不密封 ) ( ………………○……………… 内 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… ………………○……………… 外 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… … 学校： ______________ 姓名： _____________ 班级： _______________ 考号： ______________________ ) 2026-2027学年九年级上学期9月学情自测卷（新教材鲁教版五四制） 英 语 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．测试范围：九年级全册 Unit 1~Unit 4（新教材鲁教版）。 4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 第一节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1．A．What class are you in? B．How old are you? C．Who’s your class teacher? 2．A．This is my new friend. B．He is my brother. C．That’s my grandfather. 3．A．Do you play the piano? B．Are they potato plants? C．May I have your name? 4．A．I don’t see the keys. B．I can’t find the cap. C．I’m not in Grade 8. 5．A．He isn’t leaving for London. B．We shouldn’t eat in class. C．She didn’t stay up late. 第二节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6．When was Linda born? A．On April 1st. B．On June 1st. C．On July 1st. 7．What’s on the table? A．Some tomatoes. B．Some apples. C．Some pears. 8．Who is the girl in the photo? A．Jack’s cousin. B．Gina’s cousin. C．Kate’s sister. 9．Who supports the girl? A．Her parents. B．Her teachers. C．Her classmates. 10．How often should Laura water the plants? A．Twice a day. B．Twice a week. C．Once a day. 第三节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到一段对话, 对话后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11．What does Will’s father look like? A．Tall. B．Short. C．Thin. 12．Who’s this woman with the pink hat? A．Will’s grandmother. B．Will’s mother. C．Will’s sister. 13．What is Will’s mother’s job? A．A teacher. B．A doctor. C．A driver. 14．What does Will’s grandpa often do? A．He helps other people. B．He tells funny stories. C．He cooks delicious food. 15．What is Will’s sister like? A．Quiet and shy. B．Lovely and clever. C．Friendly and helpful. 第四节（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中, 你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题, 从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前, 你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后, 你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。 16．Where did the story happen? A．In ancient China. B．In ancient Egypt. C．In ancient Greece. 17．What was the crown made of? A．Gold. B．Silver. C．We don’t know. 18．When did Archimedes get the idea to solve the problem? A．While he was having lunch. B．While he was taking a bath. C．While he was reading books. 19．What displaced more water? A．The crown. B．Some gold of the same weight. C．The pots and the bowls. 20．Who was sent to prison? A．Archimedes. B．King Hiero. C．The crown maker. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20个小题：每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Have you ever imagined living on Mars? Many scientists believe that it could happen in the next 50 years. Let’s take a look at what life might be like there. First, the houses on Mars would be very different from those on Earth. They would need to be strong enough to protect people from the dangerous radiation (辐射) and extreme temperatures. Most houses would be built under the ground or inside large domes (圆顶建筑) with air systems to keep the air clean and warm. Second, food would also be a big challenge. Farmers would grow vegetables in special greenhouses where they can control the light and water. People might also eat a lot of protein bars made from insects, because raising animals would take too much space and resources. Transportation on Mars would be mainly by rovers (漫游车) or flying cars. Since Mars has weaker gravity than Earth, people could jump much higher and even fly with special suits. However, living on Mars wouldn’t be easy. People would have to learn to live without many things we take for granted, like fresh water and large open spaces. But many people think that the adventure and the chance to start a new life would be worth it. 21．What is the main idea of the text? A．How to build houses on Mars. B．What life might be like on Mars. C．Why people want to live on Mars. D．The challenges of living on Earth. 22．Why would houses on Mars be built under the ground or in domes? A．To save space. B．To protect people from bad conditions. C．To make them look more beautiful. D．To keep away from insects. 23．What would people probably eat on Mars? A．Fresh vegetables from outside. B．Meat from animals. C．Protein bars made from insects. D．Traditional Earth food. 24．Which of the following is TRUE about transportation on Mars? A．People can’t jump high there. B．Rovers and flying cars are common. C．Gravity is stronger than on Earth. D．People don’t need special suits. 25．What do many people think of living on Mars? A．It’s impossible to achieve. B．It’s not worth the trouble. C．It’s an exciting and valuable adventure. D．It’s just a dream with no real meaning. B On Earth, we use bricks (砖块) to build houses, but what about building things on the moon? We use “lunar bricks”, of course! Scientists at Huazhong University of Science and Technology (HUST) have developed “lunar bricks”. They hope to use the bricks to build a research station on the moon. To make the bricks, the scientists used a lunar soil simulant (模拟月壤). The bricks are more than three times stronger than normal red bricks. They also have special structures, which were used in ancient Chinese buildings. This makes it possible to simply put these bricks together. Professor Zhou Cheng from HUST said that they had tested five different kinds of simulated lunar soil composition (成分) and used three ways to harden them. In this way they could choose the best materials for making the bricks. “Lunar soil isn’t the same everywhere on the moon,” Zhou said. “For example, one of the kinds tested simulates the lunar soil at the landing site of Chang’e-5, which is mainly basalt (玄武岩).” The lunar bricks need to be tested well before being used because the moon has an extreme (极端的) environment. Quakes often happen there. And it gets as hot as 180 ℃ during the day and as cold as -190 ℃ at night. The lunar bricks have been sent to China’s space station on the “Tianzhou-8” spacecraft. There, scientists carried out tests to see how well the bricks work in space. The first bricks returned to Earth on November 14th, 2025. 26．Which properly shows the strength comparison of lunar bricks and red bricks? A．B．C．D． 27．How did scientists find the best materials for making lunar bricks? A．They learned about lunar soil from scientific reports. B．They compared different bricks used widely nowadays. C．They read many books about ancient Chinese buildings. D．They did many tests on simulated lunar soil and treated it in different ways. 28．What is the main idea of the fourth paragraph? A．The introduction of China’s “Tianzhou-8” spacecraft. B．The reasons why lunar bricks need to be tested in space. C．The temperature difference on the moon between day and night. D．The time when the first lunar bricks returned to Earth. 29．Which of the following best explains the purpose of developing “lunar bricks” according to Paragraph 1? A．To study the composition of lunar soil. B．To build a research station on the moon. C．To test the technology of making bricks in space. D．To improve the strength of normal red bricks. 30．What is most probably the structure of the passage? A． B． C． D． C When I was a teenager, my parents were never interested in the music I preferred. They said to me, “David, the music you like listening to is a lot of noise.” At the same time, my father described the music that he liked as beautiful. As it turns out, they are not alone. As I grow older, I’ve often heard people of my age say, “Today’s music is terrible.” Many older people just don’t like new music. But why is that? The mere exposure effect (纯粹接触效应) may explain this. It means the more familiar we are with something, the more likely we are to prefer it. When we are in our early teens, we usually spend a lot of time listening to popular music and discussing it with our friends. The new songs and singers during this time become familiar to us. After we turn 30 years old, we are busy working and raising our families. We don’t have so much time to look for new music. Instead, we prefer to listen to our old favourites. According to studies, by the time we turn 33 years old, most of us will completely stop exploring new music. But I think there is another reason for older people’s dislike of new music. Most new music, after all, is not written for them. It is made for young people. Some types of music began as a rebellion by young people against out-of-date ways of doing things. These types include punk, rap, hip-hop, heavy metal and more. They naturally interest younger listeners. Do your parents dislike the music you like too? Now, after reading this article, you know there is nothing wrong with that. 31．Which of the following charts correctly shows “the mere exposure effect”? (Preference: 偏爱，Level of familiarity: 熟悉度) A． B． C． D． 32．Why do many older people dislike new music? ①Because the new music sounds terrible. ②Because they are afraid of noise. ③Because most new music is not written for them. ④Because they are not familiar with the new music. A．①② B．②③ C．③④ D．②④ 33．Which word is closest in meaning to the underlined word “rebellion” in Paragraph 3? A．Purpose. B．Sense. C．Praise. D．Disagreement. 34．What can we infer from the last paragraph? A．New music will become more popular with older people. B．Older people will try to listen to different kinds of new music. C．People will know it’s normal that older people dislike new music. D．More beautiful and simple songs will be written for older people. 35．What can be the best title for the passage? A．Why don’t Your Parents Like the Music You Like? B．What's the Real Meaning of the Mere Exposure Effect? C．When do Most Young People Stop Exploring New Music? D．How do Young People Like Different Types of New Music? D  Chengdu, a city in Southwest China’s Sichuan Province, is the first in Chinese mainland to host the World Games (TWG). This big sports event for non-Olympic sports was held from August 7 to August 17. Recently, the torch for The World Games 2025 Chengdu was shown to the public. It’s named “Zhumeng”, which means “Bamboo Dream” in Chinese and sounds like “chasing dreams”. This is the first-ever torch in TWG’s history. The torch’s design is inspired by the Grand Bronze Standing Figure from the Sanxingdui Ruins in Sichuan. The Grand Bronze Standing Figure is a famous relic from the Sanxingdui civilization (文明), one of China’s oldest cultures. Using this figure in the torch design shows wisdom of Chinese culture’s unity in diversity. The torch looks like both a tall figure and a proud bamboo shoot. In China, bamboo stands for modesty (谦逊) and strength. It is ideal for representing sports because it shows unity, hard work, and health. As home to giant pandas, Sichuan has lots of bamboo forests, the favorite food of pandas. The top of the torch is shaped like a young bamboo shoot with two buds (芽) stretching out. This symbolizes an open and friendly China welcoming the world. The whole torch looks like a strong bamboo stalk, showing the sports spirit of unity and trying hard. The torch’s nozzle (喷嘴) is like the Sun-shaped Crown worn by the Bronze Standing Figure found at the Jinsha Site in Chengdu. It shows Chengdu’s deep culture and gives athletes endless energy, like the sun. It also symbolizes their spirit of wanting to do their best. At the bottom of the torch, a phoenix-shaped bird holds it up. This reminds us of an old saying, “When a holy bird flies and sings, peace is in the world. ” It shows China’s rich culture and our hope for world peace. 36．How long did the World Games 2025 Chengdu last ? A．5 days B．10 days C．11 days D．15 days 37．Which of the following is NOT true about the TWG 2025? A．It’s a chance to show the culture of Chengdu. B．Chengdu is the second city in China to host it. C．It’s for non-Olympic sports. D．The torch is named “Zhumeng”. 38．In Chinese culture, what does bamboo represent? A．Modesty and strength. B．Wealth and treasure. C．Hope and courage. D．Knowledge and wisdom. 39．Why is the phoenix-shaped bird used at the bottom of the torch? A．To honor Sichuan’s bamboo forests B．To show the spirit of hard work C．To remind people of ancient sports D．To represent hope for world peace 40．What is the author’s purpose in describing the torch’s design ? A．To educate readers about the history of TWG. B．To discuss the importance of bamboo in China. C．To show Chinese culture through the torch’s design. D．To compare different torch designs. 第二节 阅读七选五（共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 The Wooden Drum Festival is an important event for the Wa people in Yunnan. It is named after the wooden drum, a special musical instrument. 41 The wooden drums are the most important part of the festival. They are not just musical instruments but also carry deep cultural meanings. The Wa people believe the drums connect them with their ancestors and nature. 42 They are about 0.8 meters wide and 2 meters long. 43 They dance in a circle, moving to the strong beat of the drums to express their wishes for a happy life and good luck. When dancing, they sing songs which are about the Wa people’s history and daily life. 44 It also helps keep their culture alive. Besides dancing, there are also sports games and traditional opera shows. The Wa people mainly live in two areas in Yunnan: Ximeng Wa Autonomous County (自治县) and Cangyuan Wa Autonomous County. The festival usually lasts three days. In the past, the Wa people celebrated the festival in the “Grey Month” of the Wa calendar. 45 . This change allows more people to learn about the Wa culture. The Wooden Drum Festival brings all the Wa people together. It also offers visitors a great chance to learn about their culture. A．So the dance is not just for fun. B．The drums are usually made of red wood. C．Many Wa people play the wooden drum at the festival. D．The festival shows their history, traditions, and rich culture. E．It is a good opportunity for young people to make new friends. F．People come together around the drum house during the festival. G．But since 2002, they have changed the date to April 10th to 12th. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5个小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 A: What are you listening to, Alex? B: Hey, Dave! I’m listening to a band called “The Toms”. 46 A: No, I haven’t. Are they a new band? B: Yes, they only started singing earlier this year. 47 . A: Wow, they must be really popular. 48 B: They are from California in the United States. There are five people in the band and they are all teenage boys. A: 49 B: Yes, but it sounds more like rock. I like their music because it’s loud and full of energy. I feel excited when I listen to it. A: 50 I think if I listen to their music every morning, it will make me happy for the rest of the day! 46. A. Do you like them? B. Have you heard of them? C. What do you think of them? D. Where did you buy it? 47. A. But no one has known them. B. But I like them very much. C．But they’ve already made two CDs. D. But they are really good at dancing. 48. A.Where are they from? B. What do they want to do? C. Who is their teacher? D. What’s your favorite band? 49. A. I think they are playing rock music, right? B．I guess what they’re playing is pop music, right? C. Do you like playing rock music? D. Why not listen to it with me? 50. A. No way. B. No problem. C. Me, too. D．Me, neither. 第二节 完形填空（共15个小题：每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Drones (无人机) were invented in recent years. They are very helpful to us. They can do a lot of things for us. They can 51 photos, deliver (递送) things from packages (包裹) to pizzas and follow wild animals. But they have many 52 uses now. Can you believe it? Drones can serve people coffee. This kind of drone was made by US company IBM. It can deliver 53 to sleepy people. The drone can know when to bring a cup of coffee by studying a person’s 54 information. Then, the drone will fly to the person. There is a 55 device (设备) under the drone. It helps the drone to give coffee. The drone can also learn 56 someone’s coffee-drinking habits, and tell when someone needs next 57 of coffee. Drones can also save lives. One company in Africa uses drones to deliver medicine and blood fast and 58 many people’s lives. The drones are able to fly at 59 of up to 60 mph. When they are within a minute of the destination (目的地) , the doctors will get a message and 60 for them nearby. The drone drops off the package 61 then returns to its home. A 92-year-old hunter (猎手) in Virginia was 62 and had to spend a night in the woods. The 63 searched for him all night but failed to find him. It is 64 that the drone found him in only 20 minutes. Also, drones helped firefighters know better about the 65 in wildfire fighting. 51．A．take B．remain C．list D．lock 52．A．all B．both C．other D．nor 53．A．biscuit B．cookie C．salt D．coffee 54．A．accidental B．personal C．professional D．educational 55．A．musical B．daily C．special D．local 56．A．about B．off C．onto D．under 57．A．style B．trade C．smell D．cup 58．A．develop B．save C．solve D．improve 59．A．heels B．patterns C．speeds D．bells 60．A．wait B．heat C．spread D．treat 61．A．if B．but C．so D．and 62．A．low B．lost C．hungry D．blind 63．A．hero B．customer C．police D．saint 64．A．lucky B．private C．local D．proud 65．A．electricity B．situation C．pioneer D．Earthquake 第三节 阅读填空（共10个小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Good morning, everyone! Today, I’d like to talk about my favourite sports event. Actually, when I used the word “event”, I meant two events: the 2008 Summer Olympics and the 2022 Winter Olympics. They 66._________(hold) in Beijing—the first city ever to host both the Summer and the Winter Olympics. The most recent was the 2022 Winter Olympics. A total of nearly 2,900 67._________(athlete) attended and competed in 109 events in seven Olympic winter sports. There were many exciting moments. Nearly the whole world watched the fantastic figure skating and ski jumping competitions. I watched the freestyle skiing, and like everyone else, I fell in love with those brave and 68.________(talent) athletes. I also became 69._______ huge fan of the mascot, Bing Dwen Dwen. And we shall not forget the amazing achievements in the 2008 Summer Olympics. I watched 70._______wonder as Usain Bolt smiled his way across the finish line in the 100 metres, setting a new world record. Then I watched the drama of the shooting event. Du Li won her second Olympic gold medal, after the first one in 2004. Both 71.______(be) dramatic come-from-behind victories. Hosting two Olympics brought challenges but also opportunities to Beijing. Both Games showed China’s success in 72.________(it) reform and opening-up on the world stage. China’s great achievements have gained worldwide attention. In both events, many volunteers and citizens helped out. They worked with pride 73._______( make) sure that people from around the world had a pleasant stay. Events like the Olympic Games build bridges between countries and form friendships between people. The purpose of the Olympics is to build relationships between people, to celebrate the Olympic spirit, and to bring people together for peace and harmony. This is shown in the motto of the 2008 Olympics, “One World, One Dream”, 74._______ the motto of the 2022 Olympics, “Together for a Shared Future”. These mottos touch my heart quite 75._________(deep) as I’m sure they touch yours. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76．A: What’s the matter with you, Tom? B: ______________________________. 77．A: How was the weather yesterday? B: ____________________. So, I played with joy in the rain. 78．A: ______________________________? B: It must be Lily’s. She really loves sports. 79．A: What is your brother’s favourite subject? B: ______________________________. 80．A: ______________________________? B: Yes, I have. I went there last year. 第二节 写作（25分） 81．体育运动始终伴随着我们的成长。体育精神激励着我们，指引着我们，让我们坚持不懈。请你以“The Spirit of Sports”为题，写一篇80-100词的英语短文。内容包括：(1)你对体育精神的理解；(2)你参与的一次体育活动，以及你在活动中遇到的困难与挑战；(3)你的感悟。 The Spirit of Sports ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 试题 第7页（共8页） 试题 第8页（共8页） 试题 第5页（共8页） 试题 第6页（共8页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $