河北保定市莲池区2025一2026学年第一学期期末试卷八年级英语

2025—2026学年第一学期期末试卷 八年级英语 注意事项：1．本试卷共8页，总共120分，考试时间120分钟。 2．答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。 3．所有答案均在答题卡上作答，在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前，请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”，按照“注意事项”的规定答题。 4．答选择题时，用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑：答非选择题时，请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语(共5题，每题1分，满分5分) 1．A．Yes, please. B．Certainly. C．Well done. 2．A．I agree with you. B．No, it isn’t. C．I don’t know. 3．A．No, thanks. B．This way, please. C．OK, here I come. 4．A．Sorry, I won’t. B．Yes, I’d love to. C．No, I don’t. 5．A．Of course not. B．Have a good time. C．Sounds good. 第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案(共13题;每题1分，满分13分) 6．What is the boy going to do? A． B． C． 7．What animal does Sally like best? A． B． C． 8．Who wants to be a tour guide? A．Dave. B．Anna. C．Dave’s mother. 9．What does Dave’s mother want him to be? A．A reporter. B．An engineer. C．A pilot. 10．How often does Lucy visit the old? A．Once a week. B．Twice a week. C．Three times a week. 11．What can Steve do at the old people’s home? A．Read stories. B．Do some cleaning. C．Chat with the old. 12．How does Alice learn English? A．Read aloud every morning. B．Listen to the radio. C．Talk to her friends. 13．What does Tom think of his English? A．Very poor. B．Just so-so. C．Very good. 14．Where is the English corner? A．Behind the library B．In the classroom. C．Beside the language lab. 15．What will Laura and Danny do first? A．Sweep the floor. B．Wash the clothes. C．Take out the rubbish. 16．What food does their mother love? A．Potatoes and tomatoes. B．Beef and potatoes. C．Beef and tomatoes. 17．How can they make it a surprise for their mother? A．By letting their mom sleep at home. B．By asking their mom cook in the kitchen. C．By getting their mom out of the house first. 18．What’s their mother’s hobby? A．Cooking. B．Shopping. C．Swimming. 第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案(共7题;每题1分，满分7分) 19．When is the food party? A．On Tuesday. B．On Wednesday. C．On Friday. 20．What can the winner of the game get? A．Delicious food. B．Handmade toys. C．A painting. 21．If you want more information, what can you do? A．Make a phone call. B．Send an e-mail. C．Ask your teacher. 22．Whom is Happy Art Museum for? A．Children under 12． B．People aged 13 to 16． C．The old above 50． 23．When can children visit the museum? A．From Tuesday to Saturday. B．From Tuesday to Sunday. C．From Wednesday to Sunday. 24．What should the volunteer guides be good at? A．Speaking English well. B．Communicating with children. C．Knowing something about history. 25．What can volunteers get after working for 40 hours? A．A nice picture. B．A free ticket. C．Some money. 第四节 听短文填空(共5题;每题1分，满分5分) Different ways to spend weekends and holidays On weekends 26．Enjoy their weekends at the sports ________. 27．Spend ________ hours driving to the countryside. 28．Go for a ________ or a boat. During holidays 29．Take up their hobbies or do some physical ________. 30．Get ________ to nature. 第二部分 语言运用(共两节，满分25分) 第一节 完形填空(共10题;每题1分，满分10分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 Different countries have their own festivals. The Spring Festival is a special time in Chinese culture. Families come together to celebrate the new year with ____1____. In the small town of Happy Valley, the Liu family is getting ____2____ for the big day. Mrs Liu is busy in the kitchen. She is preparing delicious dishes for the family. Her dumplings are everyone’s favourite. At the same time, the whole family is helping with decorations. The grandma is making paper-cuts with ____3____. The father is outside the house. He is ____4____ red lanterns. The children, Xiaoming and Xiaohua, are ____5____ excited. They can’t wait to wear their new clothes and get hongbao. Everyone ____6____ the festival time. In the evening, the Liu family ____7____ together for the dinner. There is a big meal on the table. The smell of the dishes and their laughter ____8____ the room. Mrs Liu tells stories about the old days. It ____9____ them to recall Spring Festivals past. After dinner, everyone sits in the living room to watch the Spring Festival Gala on TV. They don’t sleep ____10____ the Spring Festival Gala ends. They all feel warm and happy. 1. A. talent B. strength C. treasure D. pleasure 2. A. ready B. serious C. lucky D. nervous 3. A. mirrors B. scissors C. baskets D. fireworks 4. A. hanging up B. fighting against C. serving for D. driving away 5. A. still B. nearly C. quite D. hardly 6. A. checks B. enjoys C. researches D. suffers 7. A. explores B. collects C. provides D. gathers 8. A. break B. fill C. control D. cover 9. A. helps B. forces C. asks D. invites 10. A. if B. although C. until D. because 第二节 短文填空(共15题，每题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。 Do you know Sun Yingsha? She is ____11____ amazing ping-pong player in China. Her ____12____ (wonder) performance and fighting spirit in the table tennis make her unique. Sun Yingsha was born ____13____ 2000 in Shijiazhuang. At a young age, she started to play table tennis and was ____14____ (talent) in it. Her talent and hard work made her stand out ____15____ (quick). She won her ____16____ (one) World Table Tennis Championship title in 2019． Sun Yingsha is ____17____ (know) for her fast speed and powerful attacks. Her quick movements often surprise everyone. She always ____18____ (try) her best to play every match. Her ____19____ (confident) and hard work lead to many champions. While facing ____20____ (challenge) and difficulties, she still manages to stay calm and never gives up. Although she is of great success, she ____21____ (play) harder in the future to improve her ping-pong skills. She hopes ____22____ (encourage) more young people to love table tennis. Sun Yingsha is not only a great player, ____23____ also a good role model. She fights for our country. She thinks the national flag on the chest is always ____24____ (important) than the name on the back. Her story tells us if we work hard and always believe in ____25____ (we), our dreams will come true and we can also make a big difference to our country. Do you agree? 第三部分 阅读(共两节，满分40分) 第一节 阅读理解(共15题;每题2分，满分30分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Do you want to be a volunteer? Here is some advice. Help kids learn and grow. Be a big brother or sister at after-school care. You can help little kids to learn or play with them. Give back during the holidays. Serve dinner to the homeless, volunteer at an old people’s home, or give out toys to kids. Help at an animal shelter. Most shelters depend on volunteers to keep the cats and dogs happy and take them to exercise. And when you’re walking dogs, you get some exercise, too. Protect the environment. Take part in a park clean-up day. Plant a tree. Join a group to work together to protect a river. Help sick people. Helping others can make you feel good. When you cheer sick people up, you also feel happy. If you have several hobbies, find a way to do them all. For example, if you love kids and are good at painting and dancing, visit a children’s hospital and teach them these interesting things. 26. How can you help at after-school care? A. By helping kids learn and grow. B. By serving dinner to the homeless. C. By taking animals to exercise. D. By taking part in a clean-up day. 27. What can you do to help sick children according to the passage? A. Give out toys to them during holidays. B. Take them to the animal shelter. C. Protect the river near the hospital. D. Teach them painting or dancing. 28. What’s the main idea of the passage? A. When to be a volunteer. B. How to be a volunteer. C. Where to be a volunteer. D. Why to be a volunteer. B Stonehenge With a history of about 5,000 years, Stonehenge(巨石阵)is one of the world wonders. It’s a circle of stones of different heights. The stones used to be about 200 kilometers away. Now people still wonder how these people moved the huge stones without machines’ help. Louvre Museum No visit to Paris is complete without a trip to Louvre Museum(卢浮宫), one of the largest and most famous art museums in the world. About 35,000 works of art from different centuries are on show, of which the Mona Lisa is the best-known. Mount Qomolangma Heavy snow, cold wind and thin oxygen, Mount Qomolangma seems to say no to any climber who dreams about making it to the top of the world. Tenzing and Edmund were the earliest to arrive at the top, but they were up there for just 15 minutes before coming down. Lake District National Park In the north of England lies Lake District National Park, which is very beautiful, with hills, lakes and forest. Most tourists enjoy walking around the lakes and climbing mountains. Lake District National Park is also a perfect place to paint the beautiful countryside. 29. What is a great choice to enjoy walking around the lakes? A. Stonehenge. B. Louvre Museum. C. Mount Qomolangma. D. Lake District National Park. 30. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. Stonehenge has a history of five hundred years. B. The works of art in Louvre Museum are from the same century. C. Tenzing and Edmund were the first to reach the top of Qomolangma. D. Lake District National Park is in the south of England. 31. Where can we read the passage? A. In a diary. B. In a news report. C. In a travel guide. D. In a poem. C Flower ties, bottle caps, and colorful pieces of plastic—these would be rubbish to most of us. But 34-year-old Flora Blathwayt saw treasure and art. She even set up a company selling greeting cards made of them this year. Flora likes to make something by hand, and she always cares about environmental protection. On a clean-up trip to London’s river the Thames, she was amazed to see the rubbish in the river. After that, she decided to do something with it. Then she started to use the rubbish to make “green” greeting cards. She first made a birthday card for her sister. On the card, it was a car with lots of colorful pieces of plastic. Following the success of the card, she then started to make some for other family members and friends. Then she turned her hobby into a full-time business. A card sells for $6, and each one has words, showing where the plastic rubbish is from. Flora hopes her cards can help people know about plastic pollution in a fun way. She also hopes her small business is doing its bit—even if it’s just reminding people of the problems we still face. 32. What does Flora’s company sell this year? A. Flower ties. B. Bottle caps. C. Colorful plastic. D. Greeting cards. 33. Who was Flora’s first card for? A. Her mother. B. Her sister. C. Her father. D. Her friend. 34. What does the last paragraph want to tell us? A. Flora’s hope for her business. B. How Flora developed her business. C. How we can protect the environment. D. The importance of protecting the environment. 35. Which of the following words can be used to describe Flora? A. Kind. B. Active. C. Outgoing. D. Creative. D Some parents think children should play a lot in their childhood. However, some parents think children should learn more useful things. They teach their children to do chores by themselves early. What are chores? Chores are things we need to do every day, like washing the dishes and sweeping the floor. Here are some advantages that helping out with chores will bring to children. First, doing chores teaches children life skills. Children will need to do many hard things by themselves one day, so they should learn more life skills as early as possible. Doing chores like cooking, feeding pets and cleaning the house can help them become more independent and teach them how to solve problems by themselves. Second, doing chores helps children learn to respect others. If children are asked to clean up the house, they may know better about the mess they make. And they will respect others’ work more. Third, doing chores helps children be better at making plans and organizing their time. There are a lot of things to do every day, and it’s hard to fit them all in. Children need to do their homework, do housework and make friends. Learning to do these well helps them know what the most important thing is and how to organize their time well. 36. How does the writer introduce the topic of the passage in Paragraph 1? A. By asking questions. B. By comparing ideas. C. By telling stories. D. By describing experiences. 37. What are chores according to the passage? A. School subjects. B. Games that children play. C. Things to do every day. D. Activities for adults only. 38. What does the underlined word “independent” in Paragraph 2 probably mean? A. 有条理的 B. 独立的 C. 愉悦的 D. 有礼貌的 39. Which is the right structure of the passage?(①=Paragraph 1…) A. ①-②③④ B. ①-②③-④ C. ①-②-③④ D. ①②-③-④ 40. What does the writer want to tell us? A. To teach children how to do chores. B. To show why kids should respect others. C. To teach parents how to make plans for kids. D. To show parents how chores are beneficial to kids. 第二节 阅读表达(共5题;每题2分，满分10分) 阅读下面短文，简略回答问题。 The popular Chinese cartoon movie Ne Zha has a sequel (续集)! It continues the story of the brave young hero who fights to protect his family and friends. In the first movie, Ne Zha overcame many challenges and found out that he could change his life. Now, in Ne Zha 2, he faces even greater dangers and learns more about his powers. Ne Zha 2 is not only exciting but also teaches important lessons about courage, friendship, and never giving up. Ne Zha’s journey encourages young people to believe in themselves and work hard to realize their dreams. The cartoon in Ne Zha 2 is colourful and amazing. At the same time, it is full of action, making it a fun experience for everyone. Ne Zha 2 is also a great way to learn about Chinese culture. The story is based on ancient Chinese legends, and the characters are well-known in Chinese history. Watching the movie can help young students understand more about Chinese traditions and values. 41. Who does Ne Zha want to protect in the movie? ____________________________________________ 42. What does Ne Zha’s journey encourage young people to do? ____________________________________________ 43. Which words can best describe the cartoon in Ne Zha 2? ____________________________________________ 44. Why does the writer advise young students to watch Ne Zha 2? _____________________________________________ 45. What do you learn from the character Ne Zha? _____________________________________________ 第四部分 情景交际(满分10分) 补全对话(共5题;每题2分，满分10分) 根据下面的对话情景，在空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。 (Tony and John are talking after English class.) Tony: Hey, John. ________46________ John: I’m reading an English book. Tony: Cool! You’re pretty good at English. John: Thank you, Tony. You don’t look very happy. ________47________ Tony: Yesterday I met a foreign visitor at Renmin Square. She asked me for help and I gave her a hand, but I made some mistakes when I spoke English. John: ________48________ Everyone makes mistakes. Tony: I want to improve my spoken English. ________49________ John: Sure, let me see. ________50________ Tony: Good idea. Thank you very much. 第五部分 写作(满分15分) 书面表达 51. 随着期末的到来，同学们本学期的学习生活也即将结束。回望本学期的学习与生活，你取得了哪些进步或发现了自己哪些不足之处呢？接下来你计划通过什么方法提升改进呢？请你根据以下提示内容和要求写一篇英语短文。 My strong points OR weak points in: 1. subject learning (English…) 2. social skills (make friends…) 3. life skills (do chores…) Ways to improve myself: 1. … 2. … 参考词汇：be good at, be weak in, improve, try one’s best to do 要求：(1)短文须包含提示的全部信息(含右侧需补充的两处内容)，可适当发挥。 (2)文中不得提及真实校名、地名和人名等信息。 (3)词数80左右，开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数。 This term will be over. When I look back, ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ All in all, I will try my best to make myself better in the new term. 2025—2026学年第一学期期末试卷 八年级英语 注意事项：1．本试卷共8页，总共120分，考试时间120分钟。 2．答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。 3．所有答案均在答题卡上作答，在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前，请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”，按照“注意事项”的规定答题。 4．答选择题时，用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑：答非选择题时，请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语(共5题，每题1分，满分5分) 1．A．Yes, please. B．Certainly. C．Well done. 2．A．I agree with you. B．No, it isn’t. C．I don’t know. 3．A．No, thanks. B．This way, please. C．OK, here I come. 4．A．Sorry, I won’t. B．Yes, I’d love to. C．No, I don’t. 5．A．Of course not. B．Have a good time. C．Sounds good. 第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案(共13题;每题1分，满分13分) 6．What is the boy going to do? A． B． C． 7．What animal does Sally like best? A． B． C． 8．Who wants to be a tour guide? A．Dave. B．Anna. C．Dave’s mother. 9．What does Dave’s mother want him to be? A．A reporter. B．An engineer. C．A pilot. 10．How often does Lucy visit the old? A．Once a week. B．Twice a week. C．Three times a week. 11．What can Steve do at the old people’s home? A．Read stories. B．Do some cleaning. C．Chat with the old. 12．How does Alice learn English? A．Read aloud every morning. B．Listen to the radio. C．Talk to her friends. 13．What does Tom think of his English? A．Very poor. B．Just so-so. C．Very good. 14．Where is the English corner? A．Behind the library B．In the classroom. C．Beside the language lab. 15．What will Laura and Danny do first? A．Sweep the floor. B．Wash the clothes. C．Take out the rubbish. 16．What food does their mother love? A．Potatoes and tomatoes. B．Beef and potatoes. C．Beef and tomatoes. 17．How can they make it a surprise for their mother? A．By letting their mom sleep at home. B．By asking their mom cook in the kitchen. C．By getting their mom out of the house first. 18．What’s their mother’s hobby? A．Cooking. B．Shopping. C．Swimming. 第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案(共7题;每题1分，满分7分) 19．When is the food party? A．On Tuesday. B．On Wednesday. C．On Friday. 20．What can the winner of the game get? A．Delicious food. B．Handmade toys. C．A painting. 21．If you want more information, what can you do? A．Make a phone call. B．Send an e-mail. C．Ask your teacher. 22．Whom is Happy Art Museum for? A．Children under 12． B．People aged 13 to 16． C．The old above 50． 23．When can children visit the museum? A．From Tuesday to Saturday. B．From Tuesday to Sunday. C．From Wednesday to Sunday. 24．What should the volunteer guides be good at? A．Speaking English well. B．Communicating with children. C．Knowing something about history. 25．What can volunteers get after working for 40 hours? A．A nice picture. B．A free ticket. C．Some money. 第四节 听短文填空(共5题;每题1分，满分5分) Different ways to spend weekends and holidays On weekends 26．Enjoy their weekends at the sports ________. 27．Spend ________ hours driving to the countryside. 28．Go for a ________ or a boat. During holidays 29．Take up their hobbies or do some physical ________. 30．Get ________ to nature. 第二部分 语言运用(共两节，满分25分) 第一节 完形填空(共10题;每题1分，满分10分) 【1~10题答案】 【答案】1. D 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. C 第二节 短文填空(共15题，每题1分，满分15分) 【11~25题答案】 【答案】11. an 12. wonderful 13. in 14. talented 15. quickly 16. first 17. known 18. tries 19. confidence 20. challenges 21. will play 22. to encourage 23. but 24. more important 25. ourselves 第三部分 阅读(共两节，满分40分) 第一节 阅读理解(共15题;每题2分，满分30分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【26~28题答案】 【答案】26. A 27. D 28. B B 【29~31题答案】 【答案】29. D 30. C 31. C C 【32~35题答案】 【答案】32. D 33. B 34. A 35. D D 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. B 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. D 第二节 阅读表达(共5题;每题2分，满分10分) 【41~45题答案】 【答案】41. His family and friends. 42. It encourages young people to believe in themselves and work hard to realize their dreams./To believe in themselves and work hard to realize their dreams. 43. Colourful and amazing. 44. Because Ne Zha 2 is a great way to learn about Chinese culture./Because watching the movie can help students understand more about Chinese traditions and values./Because Ne Zha 2 can help students understand more about Chinese traditions and values. 45. We should always help others and never give up. 第四部分 情景交际(满分10分) 补全对话(共5题;每题2分，满分10分) 【46~50题答案】 【答案】46. What are you doing? 47. What’s wrong with you?/What’s the matter? 48. Don’t worry about it./Don’t worry. 49. Can you give me some advice? 50. You can practice speaking English every day. (开放性试题，言之有理即可) 第五部分 写作(满分15分) 书面表达 【51题答案】 【答案】例文 This term will be over. When I look back, I find I made more good friends and I knew about a lot of our culture, such as the traditional festivals and the special holiday celebrations. However, I also need to improve myself. First, my English is not good. English is an important subject, so I must try to learn it well. I’m going to join the English club next term. Second, I often spend much time playing computer games after school. Next term I plan to spend more time doing housework in my free time. All in all, I will try my best to make myself better in the new term. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $